Reproductive Health

Topic: Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART); Subtopic: Methods and Procedures Used in ART

Keyword Definitions:

• ART (Assisted Reproductive Technology): Techniques that help infertile couples conceive, such as IVF, ZIFT, and IUT.

• IVF (In Vitro Fertilization): Fusion of gametes outside the body followed by embryo transfer into the uterus.

• ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer): Transfer of a fertilized egg (zygote) into the fallopian tube.

• IUT (Intrauterine Transfer): Transfer of an embryo directly into the uterus.

• IUD (Intrauterine Device): A contraceptive device placed inside the uterus to prevent pregnancy.

Lead Question – 2022 (Abroad)
Which one of the following is not an Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) used by childless couples to have children?
1. ZIFT
2. IUD
3. IVF
4. IUT

Explanation: IUD (Intrauterine Device) is a contraceptive used to prevent pregnancy, not to assist conception. ART methods like IVF, ZIFT, and IUT are designed to help infertile couples conceive by manipulating gametes or embryos. Hence, IUD is not an ART method. Correct answer: 2. IUD

1. Which ART technique involves transferring embryos with more than 8 blastomeres into the fallopian tube?
1. ZIFT
2. GIFT
3. IUT
4. ICSI

Explanation: ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer) involves transferring zygotes or early-stage embryos into the fallopian tube. It is done after in vitro fertilization when the embryo has 8 or more blastomeres. It allows natural implantation in the uterus after fertilization. Correct answer: 1. ZIFT

2. Which of the following ART procedures involves the injection of a single sperm directly into an ovum?
1. GIFT
2. ICSI
3. ZIFT
4. IVF

Explanation: ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection) is a specialized ART technique where a single sperm is injected directly into the cytoplasm of an ovum. It is particularly useful for severe male infertility where sperm count or motility is low. Correct answer: 2. ICSI

3. Which of the following is not an example of in vitro fertilization?
1. ZIFT
2. IUT
3. GIFT
4. Test Tube Baby

Explanation: GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer) involves transferring gametes directly into the fallopian tube, where fertilization occurs naturally inside the body. It is not an in vitro process, unlike ZIFT, IUT, and Test Tube Baby techniques. Correct answer: 3. GIFT

4. Which ART procedure involves transfer of ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another woman?
1. IUT
2. ZIFT
3. GIFT
4. Surrogacy

Explanation: GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer) involves transferring gametes (sperm and ovum) into the fallopian tube for in vivo fertilization. If ovum is donated, it still falls under GIFT when transferred to another woman’s tube for conception. Correct answer: 3. GIFT

5. In IVF, fertilization occurs:
1. Inside the uterus
2. Inside the fallopian tube
3. In a laboratory dish
4. In the vagina

Explanation: IVF (In Vitro Fertilization) literally means fertilization outside the body, in a laboratory dish. The zygote or early embryo is later transferred into the uterus or fallopian tube for implantation and development. Correct answer: 3. In a laboratory dish

6. Which ART procedure helps overcome blockage in the oviducts?
1. GIFT
2. ZIFT
3. ICSI
4. IVF

Explanation: IVF is most suitable when fallopian tubes are blocked or damaged, preventing natural fertilization. By performing fertilization outside the body and transferring the embryo, IVF bypasses the need for oviductal transport. Correct answer: 4. IVF

Assertion-Reason Question
7. Assertion (A): Surrogacy involves a woman carrying an embryo for another couple.
Reason (R): Surrogacy is illegal in all countries.
1. (A) is true but (R) is false
2. (A) is false but (R) is true
3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
4. Both (A) and (R) are false

Explanation: Surrogacy involves a woman carrying a baby for another couple, often when the biological mother cannot carry pregnancy. It is legal in some countries under regulation, not banned globally. Hence, (A) is true, (R) is false. Correct answer: 1. (A) is true but (R) is false

Matching Type Question
8. Match the following:
A. IVF — (i) Fertilization outside body
B. ZIFT — (ii) Transfer of zygote
C. IUT — (iii) Transfer of embryo
D. GIFT — (iv) Transfer of gametes
1. A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
2. A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i
3. A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–i
4. A–iv, B–i, C–ii, D–iii

Explanation: IVF involves fertilization outside the body (i). ZIFT transfers zygotes (ii). IUT involves embryo transfer (iii). GIFT transfers gametes (iv) into the fallopian tube for in vivo fertilization. The correct matching is A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv. Correct answer: 1. A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv

Fill in the Blanks Question
9. The technique of transferring embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus is known as ________.
1. GIFT
2. ZIFT
3. IUT
4. ICSI

Explanation: IUT (Intrauterine Transfer) involves transferring embryos with more than 8 blastomeres directly into the uterus for implantation. It ensures proper embryonic growth and implantation in the endometrial lining. Correct answer: 3. IUT

Choose the Correct Statements Question
10. Statement I: GIFT involves transfer of zygote into the fallopian tube.
Statement II: ZIFT involves transfer of gametes into the fallopian tube.
1. Only Statement I is correct
2. Only Statement II is correct
3. Both Statements are correct
4. Both Statements are incorrect

Explanation: In GIFT, gametes (not zygote) are transferred into the fallopian tube for natural fertilization. In ZIFT, a zygote is transferred. Thus, both statements are incorrect. Correct answer: 4. Both Statements are incorrect

Topic: Contraception Methods; Subtopic: Intrauterine Devices (IUDs)

Keyword Definitions:

• Hormone-releasing IUD: Intrauterine device that releases progestin to prevent pregnancy by thickening cervical mucus and altering endometrial lining.

• Multiload 375: Copper IUD that may also be available in hormone-releasing versions in some formulations.

• LNG-20: Levonorgestrel-releasing IUD, a hormonal device effective for several years.

• Progestasert: Early hormone-releasing IUD releasing progesterone to prevent implantation.

• Lippe's loop: Copper IUD without hormonal release, prevents pregnancy mechanically.

• Vaults: Rare form of hormone-releasing IUD.

Lead Question - 2022 (Abroad)
The hormone releasing IUDs among the following are:
(a) Multiload 375 (b) LNG - 20
(c) Progestasert (d) Lippe's loop
(e) Vaults
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. (a) and (d) only
2. (c) and (e) only
3. (a) and (b) only
4. (b) and (c) only
Explanation: Hormone-releasing IUDs release progestin to prevent pregnancy. Among the listed options, LNG-20 and Progestasert are classic hormone-releasing devices, whereas Lippe's loop and Multiload 375 primarily rely on copper and mechanical action, not hormone release. Vaults are also hormone-based but less commonly used. Hence, the correct combination representing hormone-releasing IUDs is b and c. These devices act by thickening cervical mucus, inhibiting sperm motility, and altering endometrial lining, providing effective contraception for several years depending on the device type.

1. Single Correct Answer Type:
Which of the following is a purely copper IUD without hormonal release?
1. LNG-20
2. Progestasert
3. Lippe's loop
4. Vaults
Explanation: Lippe's loop is a copper-based IUD that does not release hormones. It prevents pregnancy mechanically by interfering with sperm movement and implantation. Unlike LNG-20 or Progestasert, which release progestin to alter cervical mucus and endometrial lining, Lippe's loop relies solely on the contraceptive effect of copper ions, which are spermicidal and inhibit fertilization.

2. Single Correct Answer Type:
Which IUD releases levonorgestrel for long-term contraception?
1. Multiload 375
2. LNG-20
3. Progestasert
4. Lippe's loop
Explanation: LNG-20 is a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device that provides effective long-term contraception, typically for 3–5 years. Levonorgestrel thickens cervical mucus, reduces sperm motility, and alters the endometrial lining to prevent implantation. This hormonal mechanism distinguishes LNG-20 from copper-only devices like Lippe's loop, which act mechanically and chemically without hormone release.

3. Single Correct Answer Type:
Progestasert IUD primarily works by:
1. Copper ion release
2. Progesterone release
3. Mechanical barrier only
4. Estrogen release
Explanation: Progestasert releases progesterone locally into the uterine cavity. Progesterone thickens cervical mucus, reduces sperm penetration, and alters endometrium to prevent implantation. Unlike copper IUDs, it does not rely on mechanical action or ion toxicity. Its efficacy lasts approximately one year, and it represents an early form of hormone-releasing IUDs designed to provide controlled contraceptive effects through hormonal rather than purely mechanical mechanisms.

4. Single Correct Answer Type:
Which mechanism is common to all hormonal IUDs?
1. Inhibit ovulation completely
2. Thicken cervical mucus
3. Increase endometrial receptivity
4. Release copper ions
Explanation: All hormonal IUDs, such as LNG-20 and Progestasert, thicken cervical mucus, preventing sperm from reaching the egg. They may also alter the endometrial lining, reducing implantation potential. They do not rely on copper ions and do not always inhibit ovulation entirely. The primary contraceptive effect is local and hormone-mediated rather than systemic or mechanical.

5. Single Correct Answer Type:
Which IUD type is replaced annually due to limited hormonal duration?
1. LNG-20
2. Progestasert
3. Multiload 375
4. Lippe's loop
Explanation: Progestasert

6. Single Correct Answer Type:
Vaults IUD is characterized by:
1. Copper release
2. Hormonal release
3. Mechanical only
4. Non-contraceptive use
Explanation: Vaults is a hormone-releasing IUD. It provides contraceptive effects primarily by releasing progesterone, which thickens cervical mucus and alters endometrial lining. Unlike copper IUDs, Vaults does not rely on ion toxicity. Although less commonly used, it is part of the hormone-releasing IUD category and demonstrates the efficacy of localized hormonal contraception in preventing pregnancy over the device’s lifespan.

7. Assertion-Reason Type:
Assertion (A): LNG-20 and Progestasert are hormonal IUDs.
Reason (R): They release progesterone or levonorgestrel to prevent pregnancy.
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true
Explanation: Both Assertion and Reason are correct. LNG-20 releases levonorgestrel, and Progestasert releases progesterone. These hormones prevent pregnancy by thickening cervical mucus, reducing sperm motility, and altering the endometrium. This local hormonal action distinguishes them from copper or mechanical IUDs, and the reason explains why these devices are classified as hormonal IUDs.

8. Matching Type:
Match the IUD with its type:
A. LNG-20 → (i) Hormonal
B. Lippe's loop → (ii) Copper
C. Progestasert → (iii) Hormonal
D. Multiload 375 → (iv) Copper
1. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
2. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
3. A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
4. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
Explanation: Correct matching is A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv). LNG-20 and Progestasert release hormones, making them hormonal IUDs. Lippe's loop and Multiload 375 are copper-based, non-hormonal devices. This distinction is essential for selecting IUDs based on patient needs, duration of action, and hormonal versus non-hormonal contraception preferences.

9. Fill in the Blanks Type:<

Topic: Contraception
Subtopic: Methods and Mechanisms of Action

Keyword Definitions:
- Contraception: Methods used to prevent pregnancy.
- Diaphragm: Barrier device covering the cervix to block sperm entry.
- Contraceptive Pills: Hormonal drugs that inhibit ovulation and implantation.
- Intrauterine Device (IUD): Device placed in uterus to prevent fertilization and increase phagocytosis of sperm.
- Lactational Amenorrhea: Temporary infertility due to breastfeeding after childbirth.
- Ovulation: Release of an egg from the ovary.
- Implantation: Attachment of fertilized egg to uterine wall.
- Sperm phagocytosis: Destruction of sperm by immune cells.
- Barrier methods: Contraceptive methods that prevent sperm from reaching the egg.
- Hormonal methods: Methods using synthetic hormones to prevent pregnancy.
- Fertility control: Techniques or devices used to regulate reproduction.

Lead Question - 2022:
Match List - I with List - II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions:
List - I List - II
(a) Diaphragms (i) Inhibit ovulation and implantation
(b) Contraceptive Pills (ii) Increase phagocytosis of sperm within uterus
(c) Intra Uterine Devices (iii) Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation following parturition
(d) Lactational Amenorrhea (iv) They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)- (ii), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)- (i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)- (i), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)- (iii), (d)-(ii)

Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Diaphragms act as a barrier by covering the cervix to block sperm entry. Contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation and implantation. Intrauterine devices increase phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus. Lactational amenorrhea results in temporary absence of menstrual cycles and ovulation following childbirth, preventing pregnancy.

1. Single Correct Answer:
Which contraceptive method primarily prevents ovulation?
(a) Diaphragm
(b) Contraceptive pills
(c) Intrauterine device
(d) Condom
Explanation: Contraceptive pills prevent pregnancy mainly by inhibiting ovulation through synthetic hormones. Diaphragms and condoms act as barriers, and IUDs interfere with sperm or implantation rather than stopping ovulation.

2. Single Correct Answer:
Which method increases sperm phagocytosis in the uterus?
(a) Diaphragm
(b) Contraceptive pills
(c) Intrauterine device
(d) Lactational amenorrhea
Explanation: Intrauterine devices (IUDs) increase phagocytosis of sperm in the uterus, reducing the chance of fertilization. Other methods act by hormonal inhibition, physical barriers, or temporary infertility.

3. Single Correct Answer:
Which is a temporary postnatal contraceptive method?
(a) Diaphragm
(b) Contraceptive pills
(c) Lactational amenorrhea
(d) IUD
Explanation: Lactational amenorrhea temporarily prevents ovulation due to breastfeeding after childbirth. It is effective only during the period of exclusive breastfeeding, whereas other methods provide continuous contraception independent of postpartum state.

4. Single Correct Answer:
Which contraceptive method acts as a barrier at the cervix?
(a) Condom
(b) Diaphragm
(c) Pills
(d) IUD
Explanation: The diaphragm covers the cervix, preventing sperm from entering the uterus. Condoms prevent sperm deposition, pills act hormonally, and IUDs work inside the uterine cavity to disrupt fertilization and implantation.

5. Single Correct Answer:
Which method inhibits both ovulation and implantation?
(a) Condom
(b) IUD
(c) Contraceptive pills
(d) Diaphragm
Explanation: Contraceptive pills act hormonally to inhibit ovulation and prevent implantation of fertilized eggs. Barrier methods and IUDs prevent fertilization but do not primarily affect ovulation.

6. Single Correct Answer:
Which method provides a physical barrier only?
(a) Diaphragm
(b) Pills
(c) IUD
(d) Lactational amenorrhea
Explanation: The diaphragm is a purely physical barrier that blocks sperm from entering the uterus. Pills and IUDs have hormonal or biochemical actions, and lactational amenorrhea acts through physiological suppression of ovulation.

7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Contraceptive pills prevent pregnancy by hormonal action.
Reason (R): They inhibit ovulation and alter uterine lining for implantation.
(a) Both A and R are true, R explains A
(b) Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
(c) A is true, R is false
(d) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Option (a) is correct. Contraceptive pills act hormonally, preventing ovulation and modifying the uterine lining to prevent implantation. Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason explains the mechanism of action.

8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match contraceptive methods with their primary actions:
List - I List - II
(a) Diaphragm (i) Hormonal inhibition of ovulation
(b) Contraceptive Pills (ii) Covers cervix to block sperm
(c) IUD (iii) Increases sperm phagocytosis
(d) Lactational amenorrhea (iv) Absence of menstruation and ovulation
Options:
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Explanation: Option (1) is correct. Diaphragm covers cervix, contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation, IUD increases sperm phagocytosis, and lactational amenorrhea prevents menstruation and ovulation postpartum. This matches methods with their main mechanisms accurately.

9. Fill in the Blanks:
________ prevents sperm from entering the uterus by covering the cervix.
(a) Contraceptive pills
(b) Diaphragm
(c) IUD
(d) Lactational amenorrhea
Explanation: The diaphragm physically covers the cervix, preventing sperm entry into the uterus. Pills act hormonally, IUD interferes with fertilization, and lactational amenorrhea suppresses ovulation post childbirth.

10. Choose the Correct Statements:
Identify correct statements:
1. IUD increases sperm phagocytosis.
2. Contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation.
3. Lactational amenorrhea provides permanent contraception.
4. Diaphragm acts as a barrier method.
Options:
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 2, 3, 4
(d) 1, 3, 4
Explanation: Option (b) is correct. IUD increases sperm phagocytosis, contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation, and the diaphragm blocks sperm physically. Lactational amenorrhea provides temporary, not permanent, contraception. Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

Topic: Contraception
Subtopic: Intrauterine Devices (IUDs)

Keyword Definitions:
• Lippe’s loop: A type of intrauterine device (IUD) used for contraception.
• Contraceptive: A device, drug, or method used to prevent pregnancy.
• IUD: Intrauterine device, a small T-shaped or looped device inserted into the uterus for birth control.
• Non-medicated IUD: IUD that prevents pregnancy without releasing hormones or copper.
• Copper IUD: IUD that releases copper ions to prevent fertilization.
• Vault barrier: A contraceptive device placed in the vagina to block sperm.
• Cervical barrier: Device like diaphragm or cervical cap preventing sperm entry.
• Hormonal contraceptives: Pills or implants releasing hormones to inhibit ovulation.
• Menstrual cycle: Monthly hormonal cycle in females that regulates ovulation.
• Fertilization: Union of sperm and ovum to form a zygote.

Lead Question (2022):
Lippe’s loop is a type contraceptive used as:
(1) Vault barrier
(2) Non-Medicated IUD
(3) Copper releasing IUD
(4) Cervical barrier

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Lippe’s loop is a non-medicated intrauterine device (IUD) used for long-term contraception. It is inserted into the uterus to prevent fertilization by creating a mechanical barrier without releasing hormones or copper, providing a reversible and safe method for birth control.

Guessed MCQs:

1. Single Correct Answer:
Which IUD releases copper ions to prevent pregnancy?
(a) Lippe’s loop
(b) Copper IUD
(c) Hormonal IUD
(d) Cervical cap
Explanation: The correct answer is (b). Copper IUDs release copper ions that are toxic to sperm, preventing fertilization effectively and providing long-term contraception.

2. Single Correct Answer:
Which contraceptive device is placed in the vagina to block sperm entry?
(a) Vault barrier
(b) Copper IUD
(c) Hormonal IUD
(d) Lippe’s loop
Explanation: The correct answer is (a). Vault barriers, like diaphragms, are inserted into the vagina to cover the cervix and block sperm from reaching the uterus, providing a barrier contraceptive method.

3. Single Correct Answer:
Which type of IUD works without releasing any medication?
(a) Copper IUD
(b) Hormonal IUD
(c) Non-medicated IUD
(d) Vault barrier
Explanation: The correct answer is (c). Non-medicated IUDs, like Lippe’s loop, act as mechanical devices inserted into the uterus to prevent fertilization without releasing hormones or copper.

4. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Copper IUDs prevent pregnancy by releasing copper ions.
Reason (R): Copper ions are toxic to sperm and prevent fertilization.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
(c) A is correct, R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect, R is correct
Explanation: The correct answer is (a). Copper IUDs release copper ions which are spermicidal, preventing sperm from fertilizing the ovum and providing effective contraception.

5. Single Correct Answer:
Which contraceptive device is reversible and long-term without hormones?
(a) Hormonal IUD
(b) Lippe’s loop
(c) Oral pills
(d) Condoms
Explanation: The correct answer is (b). Lippe’s loop provides long-term, reversible contraception without the use of hormones, by acting as a mechanical barrier inside the uterus.

6. Single Correct Answer:
Which method of contraception uses a physical barrier over the cervix?
(a) Vault barrier
(b) Lippe’s loop
(c) Copper IUD
(d) Hormonal injection
Explanation: The correct answer is (a). Cervical barriers, such as diaphragms or vault barriers, prevent sperm from entering the uterus by covering the cervical opening.

7. Matching Type:
Match the contraceptive device with its category:
Column A
1. Lippe’s loop
2. Copper IUD
3. Diaphragm
Column B
A. Non-medicated IUD
B. Copper releasing IUD
C. Cervical barrier
Options:
(a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
(b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
(c) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
(d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B
Explanation: The correct answer is (a). Lippe’s loop is a non-medicated IUD, copper IUD releases copper ions, and diaphragm is a cervical barrier.

8. Fill in the Blanks:
Lippe’s loop is a type of ______ used for long-term contraception.
(a) Hormonal implant
(b) Non-medicated IUD
(c) Copper IUD
(d) Vault barrier
Explanation: The correct answer is (b). Lippe’s loop is a non-medicated intrauterine device providing long-term reversible contraception without releasing hormones or copper.

9. Single Correct Answer:
Which contraceptive method provides mechanical blockage inside the uterus?
(a) Copper IUD
(b) Lippe’s loop
(c) Oral pills
(d) Condom
Explanation: The correct answer is (b). Lippe’s loop acts as a mechanical barrier within the uterus, preventing fertilization without chemical or hormonal action.

10. Choose the correct statements:
(a) Lippe’s loop is a non-medicated IUD
(b) Copper IUD releases copper ions
(c) Vault barrier is placed inside uterus
(d) Cervical barrier prevents sperm entry
Explanation: The correct answer is (a), (b), and (d). Vault barrier is inserted in the vagina, not uterus.

Topic : Assisted Reproductive Technologies
Subtopic : MOET Technique

Keyword Definitions :

• MOET : Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer is a technique to increase the reproductive potential of animals by inducing superovulation and embryo transfer.

• Superovulation : The release of multiple eggs from ovaries induced by hormone treatment.

• Artificial Insemination : A process of introducing sperm into the female reproductive tract without natural mating.

• Surrogate mother : A female animal receiving and carrying embryos of another female until birth.

• Embryo transfer : Implanting fertilized embryos into surrogate mothers for development.

Lead Question - 2021

Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?
(1) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
(2) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
(3) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate mothers at 8-32 cell stage
(4) Cow is administered hormone having LH like activity for super ovulation

Explanation : The incorrect step is that the cow yields 6-8 eggs at a time. Normally, MOET produces 6-8 embryos after superovulation and fertilization, not eggs. Correct steps include superovulation by hormones, artificial insemination, and embryo transfer at 8-32 cell stage into surrogate mothers. Hence, option (1) is correct.

1) Superovulation in cattle is usually induced by administration of
(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Prolactin
(4) Oxytocin

Explanation : FSH is administered for superovulation in cattle, causing multiple follicles to mature and ovulate. LH induces only one ovulation, oxytocin acts during parturition, and prolactin stimulates milk secretion. Thus, option (1) is the correct answer.

2) The embryos in MOET are transferred into
(1) Test-tube
(2) Surrogate mothers
(3) Artificial uterus
(4) Host sperm cells

Explanation : In MOET, fertilized embryos at the 8-32 cell stage are transferred into surrogate mothers for normal development. Other options are not part of the reproductive process. Hence, option (2) is correct.

3) Artificial insemination involves
(1) Transfer of embryo
(2) Introduction of sperm into the female tract
(3) Transfer of zygote
(4) Induction of ovulation

Explanation : Artificial insemination is the direct introduction of sperm into the female reproductive tract to achieve fertilization without mating. It does not involve embryo transfer, zygote placement, or ovulation induction. Hence, option (2) is correct.

4) Embryo transfer in MOET is done at
(1) Zygote stage
(2) 2-cell stage
(3) 8-32 cell stage
(4) Blastula stage

Explanation : In MOET, embryos are transferred at the 8-32 cell stage into surrogate mothers, ensuring better chances of implantation and survival. Zygote or 2-cell stages are too early, and blastula stage is too late. Hence, option (3) is correct.

5) Which of the following is a benefit of MOET?
(1) Higher milk production
(2) Rapid multiplication of elite animals
(3) Induction of artificial puberty
(4) Reducing gestation period

Explanation : MOET is primarily used to rapidly multiply genetically superior animals by producing more offspring through embryo transfer. It is not directly related to milk yield, puberty induction, or gestation. Hence, option (2) is correct.

6) Which hormone mimics LH activity in MOET?
(1) FSH
(2) hCG
(3) Progesterone
(4) Estrogen

Explanation : In MOET, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is administered as it mimics LH activity, inducing ovulation. FSH induces follicle growth, progesterone maintains pregnancy, and estrogen supports female reproductive physiology. Hence, option (2) is correct.

7) Assertion (A): MOET is used in animal breeding for rapid herd improvement.
Reason (R): MOET allows transfer of fertilized eggs from genetically inferior to superior animals.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation : MOET transfers embryos from superior animals to surrogate mothers for genetic improvement. The reason given is false because embryos are not taken from inferior animals. Thus, option (2) is correct.

8) Match the following related to MOET:
A. FSH injection – (i) Superovulation
B. hCG – (ii) Ovulation induction
C. Artificial insemination – (iii) Fertilization
D. Embryo transfer – (iv) Surrogate mother implantation
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)

Explanation : FSH injection induces superovulation, hCG induces ovulation, artificial insemination achieves fertilization, and embryo transfer implants embryos in surrogate mothers. Hence, the correct match is option (2).

9) Fill in the blanks: In MOET, embryos are transferred at the _______ stage into surrogate mothers.
(1) Zygote
(2) 2-cell
(3) 8-32 cell
(4) Blastula

Explanation : The correct stage for embryo transfer in MOET is the 8-32 cell stage. This ensures successful implantation and development. Other stages either fail to implant effectively or are too late for transfer. Hence, option (3) is correct.

10) Choose the correct statements:
A. MOET increases offspring from superior cows.
B. Surrogate mothers carry embryos from elite cows.
C. Embryos are transferred at 8-32 cell stage.
D. MOET eliminates the need for artificial insemination.
(1) A, B, and C
(2) A and D
(3) B, C, and D
(4) A, B, C, and D

Explanation : Statements A, B, and C are correct as MOET enhances multiplication of elite animals, uses surrogates, and transfers embryos at the 8-32 cell stage. Statement D is false since artificial insemination is an essential step in MOET. Hence, option (1) is correct.

Subtopic: Intrauterine Devices (IUDs)

• IUD: Intrauterine device, a contraceptive device inserted into the uterus to prevent pregnancy.

• Hormone-releasing IUD: Releases hormones like levonorgestrel to prevent fertilization or implantation.

• LNG 20: A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device.

• CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375: Copper-containing IUDs that prevent pregnancy by spermicidal action.

• Levonorgestrel: Synthetic progestin used in hormonal contraception.

• Contraception: Methods used to prevent pregnancy.

• Uterus: Female reproductive organ where IUD is placed.

• Fertilization: Fusion of sperm and egg to form zygote.

• Implantation: Attachment of fertilized egg to uterine wall.

• Spermicidal effect: Action that kills or immobilizes sperm.

• Reproductive health: Overall health related to reproductive system function and contraception.

Lead Question - 2021

Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?

(1) LNG 20
(2) Cu7
(3) Multiload 375
(4) CuT

Explanation: LNG 20 is a hormone-releasing IUD containing levonorgestrel that prevents fertilization by thickening cervical mucus and inhibiting sperm movement. Copper IUDs like Cu7, Multiload 375, and CuT prevent pregnancy mechanically or via spermicidal action, not by hormone release. Answer: LNG 20.

1. Single Correct Answer MCQ: The hormone released by LNG 20 primarily is:
Options:
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone (Levonorgestrel)
C. Testosterone
D. Oxytocin

Explanation: LNG 20 releases levonorgestrel, a synthetic form of progesterone, which thickens cervical mucus, inhibits sperm motility, and prevents fertilization. Estrogen, testosterone, and oxytocin are not involved in LNG IUD contraception. Answer: Progesterone (Levonorgestrel).

2. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Copper-containing IUDs prevent pregnancy by:
Options:
A. Hormone release
B. Spermicidal effect
C. Ovulation inhibition
D. Uterine contraction

Explanation: Copper IUDs like CuT release copper ions, which are toxic to sperm, producing a spermicidal effect. They do not release hormones or inhibit ovulation. Answer: Spermicidal effect.

3. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Multiload 375 is a type of:
Options:
A. Hormonal IUD
B. Copper IUD
C. Injectable contraceptive
D. Oral contraceptive

Explanation: Multiload 375 is a copper-containing IUD providing long-term contraception by spermicidal effect. It does not release hormones. Answer: Copper IUD.

4. Single Correct Answer MCQ: One advantage of hormone-releasing IUDs over copper IUDs is:
Options:
A. Increased menstrual bleeding
B. Reduced menstrual cramps
C. Higher risk of pregnancy
D. Mechanical blockage only

Explanation: Hormonal IUDs like LNG 20 reduce menstrual bleeding and cramps in addition to preventing pregnancy. Copper IUDs may increase bleeding and cramps. Answer: Reduced menstrual cramps.

5. Single Correct Answer MCQ: LNG 20 IUD is effective for approximately:
Options:
A. 1 year
B. 3-5 years
C. 10 years
D. Lifelong

Explanation: LNG 20 provides effective contraception for 3 to 5 years after insertion, releasing levonorgestrel gradually. Answer: 3-5 years.

6. Single Correct Answer MCQ: A primary mechanism by which LNG 20 prevents pregnancy is:
Options:
A. Ovulation inhibition
B. Thickening cervical mucus
C. Increasing uterine contractions
D. Destroying oocytes

Explanation: LNG 20 thickens cervical mucus, hindering sperm movement and preventing fertilization. Ovulation may also be partially inhibited. Answer: Thickening cervical mucus.

7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): LNG 20 is a hormone-releasing IUD.
Reason (R): It releases levonorgestrel into the uterine cavity.
Options:
A. Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B. Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C. A true, R false
D. A false, R true

Explanation: LNG 20 releases levonorgestrel locally into the uterus, functioning as a hormone-releasing IUD. Both assertion and reason are true, and R correctly explains A. Answer: Both A and R true, R correct explanation.

8. Matching Type MCQ:
List I: 1. Hormonal IUD 2. Copper IUD 3. Mechanism of LNG 20 4. Mechanism of CuT
List II: A. Spermicidal effect B. Levonorgestrel release C. Thickening cervical mucus D. Mechanical presence
Options:
A. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
B. 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
C. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
D. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

Explanation: Hormonal IUD (LNG 20) releases levonorgestrel, thickens cervical mucus; Copper IUD (CuT) acts spermicidally and prevents implantation mechanically. Answer: 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D.

9. Fill in the Blank MCQ: LNG 20 primarily prevents pregnancy by ______.
Options:
A. Destroying sperm
B. Thickening cervical mucus
C. Removing ovum
D. Blocking fallopian tube

Explanation: LNG 20 releases levonorgestrel that thickens cervical mucus, blocking sperm entry into uterus and fertilization. Answer: Thickening cervical mucus.

10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
Options:
A. LNG 20 releases levonorgestrel
B. CuT prevents pregnancy by hormone release
C. Multiload 375 is copper-based
D. LNG 20 increases menstrual bleeding

Explanation: LNG 20 releases levonorgestrel and reduces bleeding, CuT does not release hormones, Multiload 375 is copper-based. Correct statements: A and C. Answer: A and C.

Subtopic: Methods of Birth Control

• Vasectomy: Surgical removal or blockage of the vas deferens to prevent sperm transport.

• Tubectomy: Surgical removal or ligation of fallopian tubes to prevent fertilization.

• IUD (Intrauterine Device): Device inserted into the uterus to prevent implantation or cause phagocytosis of sperm.

• Vaults: Barrier contraceptive method blocking entry of sperm through the cervix.

• Contraception: Methods used to prevent pregnancy.

• Sperm Phagocytosis: Destruction of sperm by immune cells in the uterus or fallopian tubes.

• Fallopian Tube: Tube connecting ovary to uterus where fertilization may occur.

• Vas Deferens: Duct carrying sperm from testes to urethra.

• Cervix: Lower part of uterus connecting to vagina.

• Barrier Method: Contraceptive method physically preventing sperm from reaching the egg.

• Surgical Sterilization: Permanent contraception achieved through surgery on reproductive organs.

Lead Question - 2021

Match List - I with List - II

List - I: (a) Vaults (b) IUDs (c) Vasectomy (d) Tubectomy
List - II: (i) Entry of sperm through Cervix is blocked (ii) Removal of Vas deferens (iii) Phagocytosis of sperms within the Uterus (iv) Removal of fallopian tube

Options:
1. (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)
2. (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i)
3. (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
4. (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)

Explanation: Correct matching: Vaults block sperm at the cervix (i), IUDs induce phagocytosis of sperm (iii), Vasectomy removes or blocks vas deferens (ii), and Tubectomy removes fallopian tubes (iv). Answer: (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv).

1. Which method physically blocks sperm entry into the uterus?
Options:
A. Vasectomy
B. IUD
C. Vaults
D. Tubectomy

Explanation: Vaults act as a barrier to prevent sperm from entering the cervix and uterus. Other methods function via surgical or cellular mechanisms. Answer: Vaults.

2. Which contraceptive method involves removal of vas deferens?
Options:
A. Tubectomy
B. Vasectomy
C. IUD
D. Vaults

Explanation: Vasectomy involves surgically removing or blocking the vas deferens, preventing sperm from reaching ejaculate, resulting in permanent male sterilization. Answer: Vasectomy.

3. Which contraceptive device causes sperm phagocytosis?
Options:
A. Vaults
B. IUD
C. Vasectomy
D. Tubectomy

Explanation: IUDs prevent pregnancy by inducing local immune responses in the uterus, leading to phagocytosis of sperm, and preventing fertilization. Vaults and surgical methods do not involve cellular destruction. Answer: IUD.

4. Tubectomy is a method for:
Options:
A. Male sterilization
B. Female sterilization
C. Temporary contraception
D. Barrier method

Explanation: Tubectomy involves surgical removal or ligation of fallopian tubes in females, providing permanent sterilization. It is not temporary or male contraception. Answer: Female sterilization.

5. Which contraceptive is permanent for males?
Options:
A. IUD
B. Vaults
C. Vasectomy
D. Tubectomy

Explanation: Vasectomy permanently prevents sperm transport by cutting or blocking the vas deferens. IUDs and vaults are temporary, and tubectomy is female-specific. Answer: Vasectomy.

6. Barrier contraceptives work by:
Options:
A. Destroying sperm
B. Blocking sperm entry
C. Removing reproductive organs
D. Inducing immune phagocytosis

Explanation: Barrier methods like vaults physically prevent sperm from reaching the egg, without destroying them or performing surgical removal. IUDs may induce immune response, but vaults act as barriers. Answer: Blocking sperm entry.

7. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): IUDs prevent fertilization.
Reason (R): IUDs induce phagocytosis of sperm in the uterus.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation
B. Both A and R are true, R is not correct explanation
C. A is true, R is false
D. A is false, R is true

Explanation: IUDs prevent fertilization by triggering local immune reactions that cause phagocytosis of sperm in the uterus. The reason accurately explains the mechanism. Answer: Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation.

8. Match the following:
Column I: 1. Vaults 2. Vasectomy 3. Tubectomy 4. IUD
Column II: A. Blocks sperm at cervix B. Removes vas deferens C. Removes fallopian tube D. Phagocytosis of sperm
Options:
A. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
B. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
C. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
D. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

Explanation: Correct matching: Vaults block sperm at cervix (A), Vasectomy removes vas deferens (B), Tubectomy removes fallopian tubes (C), IUD induces sperm phagocytosis (D). Answer: 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D.

9. Fill in the blank: Permanent sterilization in females is achieved by _______.
Options:
A. Vasectomy
B. Tubectomy
C. IUD
D. Vaults

Explanation: Tubectomy provides permanent female sterilization by removing or ligating the fallopian tubes, preventing egg transport and fertilization. Other methods are temporary or male-specific. Answer: Tubectomy.

10. Choose the correct statements:
1. Vasectomy is male sterilization.
2. IUD causes phagocytosis of sperm.
3. Vaults block sperm entry.
4. Tubectomy is female sterilization.
Options:
A. 1, 2, 3 only
B. 2, 3, 4 only
C. 1, 3, 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation: All statements are correct. Vasectomy and tubectomy are permanent sterilizations for males and females, IUDs induce sperm phagocytosis, and vaults block sperm entry into the cervix. Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4.

Topic: Immunity and Immune System
Subtopic: Passive and Active Immunity

Keyword Definitions:

• Colostrum: First yellowish milk produced by mammary glands, rich in antibodies.

• IgA (Immunoglobulin A): Antibody present in colostrum and mucosal surfaces providing immune protection.

• Passive immunity: Immunity gained by receiving antibodies from another individual, temporary.

• Active immunity: Immunity developed when body produces its own antibodies after infection or vaccination.

• Acquired immunity: Immunity obtained during life, can be active or passive.

• Autoimmunity: Immune system attacking own body cells.

• Lactation: Secretion of milk by mammary glands.

• Neonate: Newborn child in early days after birth.

• Antibodies: Proteins produced by immune system to neutralize pathogens.

• Mucosal immunity: Immune protection at mucosal surfaces like gut, respiratory tract.

• Immunoglobulins: Antibody proteins providing defense against infections.

Lead Question - 2020 (COVID Reexam)

The yellowish fluid "colostrum" secreted by mammary glands of the mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant. This type of immunity is called as :

1. Passive immunity
2. Active immunity
3. Acquired immunity
4. Autoimmunity

Explanation: The correct answer is option 1. Colostrum provides passive immunity because the antibodies (IgA) are transferred directly from mother to infant without the infant generating them. This immunity protects the neonate against infections during early life. Active immunity involves antibody production by the individual’s own immune system, unlike passive immunity.

1. Chapter: Human Physiology
Topic: Immunity and Immune System
Subtopic: Passive and Active Immunity

Keyword Definitions:

• Colostrum: First milk rich in antibodies.

• IgA: Antibody protecting mucosal surfaces and infant.

• Passive immunity: Temporary immunity from external antibodies.

• Active immunity: Immunity generated by own body.

• Acquired immunity: Immunity developed during life.

• Autoimmunity: Immune system attacks own cells.

• Lactation: Milk secretion by mammary glands.

• Neonate: Newborn child.

• Antibodies: Proteins neutralizing pathogens.

• Mucosal immunity: Immune defense at mucous surfaces.

• Immunoglobulins: Antibodies providing protection against infections.

Q1. Single Correct Answer: Which antibody is abundant in colostrum?
a) IgG
b) IgA
c) IgM
d) IgE

Explanation: The correct answer is IgA. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) is present in high concentrations in colostrum and mucosal surfaces, providing passive immunity to the newborn. IgG, IgM, and IgE have different roles in systemic and allergic immune responses. Option (b) is correct.

Q2. Single Correct Answer: Passive immunity can be acquired through:
a) Vaccination
b) Infection
c) Colostrum
d) Autoimmune response

Explanation: The correct answer is colostrum. Passive immunity is obtained when antibodies are transferred from another individual, like mother to infant via colostrum. Vaccination and infection induce active immunity. Autoimmune responses are harmful self-reactive immunity. Therefore, option (c) is correct.

Q3. Single Correct Answer: Which immunity is temporary and immediate?
a) Active immunity
b) Passive immunity
c) Acquired immunity
d) Autoimmunity

Explanation: Passive immunity is immediate and temporary because antibodies are externally provided and do not induce memory in the recipient. Active immunity develops over time and provides long-term protection. Autoimmunity is harmful, and acquired immunity includes both active and passive types. Option (b) is correct.

Q4. Single Correct Answer: Newborn protection through breastfeeding is an example of:
a) Active immunity
b) Passive immunity
c) Autoimmunity
d) Innate immunity

Explanation: Breastfeeding transfers IgA antibodies to the neonate, providing passive immunity. The newborn does not produce these antibodies itself. Active immunity requires the infant’s immune system to generate antibodies. Innate immunity is non-specific, and autoimmunity is harmful. Option (b) is correct.

Q5. Single Correct Answer: Which immunoglobulin is mainly systemic?
a) IgA
b) IgG
c) IgM
d) IgE

Explanation: IgG is the main systemic immunoglobulin circulating in blood, providing long-term immunity and placental transfer. IgA is mucosal and in colostrum, IgM is first responder in infection, and IgE mediates allergic reactions. Therefore, option (b) is correct.

Q6. Single Correct Answer: Acquired immunity includes:
a) Active and passive immunity
b) Innate immunity only
c) Autoimmunity only
d) None of the above

Explanation: Acquired immunity refers to immunity developed during life, which includes active immunity (from infection or vaccination) and passive immunity (from external antibodies like colostrum). Innate immunity is inborn, autoimmunity is self-reactive. Therefore, option (a) is correct.

Q7. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): Colostrum provides passive immunity to infants.
Reason (R): IgA antibodies in colostrum protect mucosal surfaces and prevent infections.

a) Both A and R are true, R explains A
b) Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
c) A is true, R is false
d) A is false, R is true

Explanation: Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason explains the assertion. IgA antibodies in colostrum provide immediate protection to the neonate’s mucosal surfaces, preventing infections. Passive immunity is temporary and dependent on maternal antibody transfer. Option (a) is correct.

Q8. Matching Type: Match type of immunity with example:
Column - I: a) Passive, b) Active
Column - II: i) Colostrum, ii) Vaccination

Options:
1. a-i, b-ii
2. a-ii, b-i
3. a-i, b-i
4. a-ii, b-ii

Explanation: Passive immunity example is colostrum, while active immunity is developed through vaccination. Passive immunity provides immediate but temporary protection, active immunity provides long-term protection with memory. Option (1) correctly matches immunity type with its example.

Q9. Fill in the Blanks: Immunity provided by maternal antibodies is called ________.
a) Passive immunity
b) Active immunity
c) Acquired immunity
d) Autoimmunity

Explanation: Maternal antibodies, transferred via colostrum or placenta, provide passive immunity. This protects newborns temporarily until their own immune system matures. Active immunity develops from infection or vaccination. Autoimmunity is self-reactive immunity. Therefore, option (a) is correct.

Q10. Choose the correct statements:
1) Colostrum contains IgA antibodies.
2) Passive immunity is temporary.
3) Active immunity is provided through vaccination.
4) Autoimmunity protects the infant.

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) All are correct

Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Colostrum provides IgA antibodies, passive immunity is temporary, and active immunity can be induced by vaccination. Autoimmunity is harmful, not protective. Therefore, option (a) is correct.

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Topic: Infectious Diseases
Subtopic: Bacterial, Viral, Protozoal, and Helminthic Infections

Keyword Definitions:

• Typhoid: Bacterial infection caused by Salmonella typhi, transmitted via contaminated food and water.

• Malaria: Protozoal disease caused by Plasmodium species, transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes.

• Pneumonia: Respiratory infection, often caused by Haemophilus influenzae or Streptococcus pneumoniae.

• Filariasis: Parasitic disease caused by Wuchereria bancrofti, transmitted by mosquitoes, causing lymphatic blockage.

• Salmonella typhi: Bacterium causing typhoid fever.

• Plasmodium vivax: Protozoan parasite causing malaria with periodic fever.

• Haemophilus influenzae: Bacterium causing pneumonia and other respiratory infections.

• Wuchereria bancrofti: Parasitic worm causing lymphatic filariasis.

• Vector: Organism transmitting a pathogen between hosts.

• Protozoal infection: Disease caused by single-celled eukaryotic organisms.

• Helminthic infection: Disease caused by parasitic worms.

Lead Question - 2020 (COVID Reexam)

Match the following columns and select the correct option:

Column - I | Column - II
(i) Typhoid | (a) Haemophilus influenzae
(ii) Malaria | (b) Wuchereria bancrofti
(iii) Pneumonia | (c) Plasmodium vivax
(iv) Filariasis | (d) Salmonella typhi

1. (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
2. (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
3. (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
4. (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)

Explanation: The correct answer is option 1. Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi, Malaria by Plasmodium vivax, Pneumonia often by Haemophilus influenzae, and Filariasis by Wuchereria bancrofti. This matching illustrates the classification of diseases by pathogen type: bacterial, protozoal, bacterial respiratory, and helminthic infections, respectively.

1. Chapter: Human Health and Diseases
Topic: Infectious Diseases
Subtopic: Bacterial, Viral, Protozoal, and Helminthic Infections

Keyword Definitions:

• Typhoid: Bacterial infection by Salmonella typhi.

• Malaria: Protozoal infection by Plasmodium species.

• Pneumonia: Respiratory infection, bacterial or viral.

• Filariasis: Helminthic infection caused by Wuchereria bancrofti.

• Salmonella typhi: Causative bacterium of typhoid fever.

• Plasmodium vivax: Protozoan causing malaria.

• Haemophilus influenzae: Bacterium causing pneumonia.

• Wuchereria bancrofti: Parasitic worm causing lymphatic blockage.

• Vector: Organism transmitting pathogens.

• Protozoal infection: Disease by single-celled eukaryotes.

• Helminthic infection: Disease by parasitic worms.

Q1. Single Correct Answer: Which disease is caused by a bacterium?
a) Malaria
b) Typhoid
c) Filariasis
d) Influenza

Explanation: Typhoid is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi. Malaria is protozoal, Filariasis is helminthic, and Influenza is viral. Bacterial infections are treatable with antibiotics, distinguishing Typhoid from protozoal, viral, and helminthic diseases. Therefore, option (b) is correct.

Q2. Single Correct Answer: Which disease is transmitted by mosquitoes?
a) Typhoid
b) Malaria
c) Pneumonia
d) Tuberculosis

Explanation: Malaria is transmitted by female Anopheles mosquitoes, which act as vectors for Plasmodium vivax. Typhoid spreads via contaminated food and water, Pneumonia is airborne, and Tuberculosis is bacterial respiratory. Option (b) is correct because vector-borne transmission is key in malaria.

Q3. Single Correct Answer: Wuchereria bancrofti causes:
a) Typhoid
b) Filariasis
c) Pneumonia
d) Malaria

Explanation: Wuchereria bancrofti is a parasitic worm causing lymphatic filariasis, leading to edema and elephantiasis. Typhoid is bacterial, Pneumonia is respiratory bacterial or viral, and Malaria is protozoal. Therefore, option (b) correctly identifies the helminthic infection.

Q4. Single Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae commonly causes:
a) Typhoid
b) Pneumonia
c) Malaria
d) Filariasis

Explanation: Haemophilus influenzae is a bacterium causing respiratory infections like Pneumonia, especially in children. Typhoid is bacterial but caused by Salmonella typhi, Malaria is protozoal, and Filariasis is helminthic. Option (b) is correct for bacterial pneumonia causation.

Q5. Single Correct Answer: Plasmodium vivax infects:
a) Human liver and red blood cells
b) Lymphatic system
c) Respiratory tract
d) Gastrointestinal tract

Explanation: Plasmodium vivax infects human liver and red blood cells, causing cyclic fever in malaria. It is transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes. The lymphatic system is affected by Wuchereria bancrofti, the respiratory tract by pneumonia pathogens, and gastrointestinal tract by Salmonella typhi. Option (a) is correct.

Q6. Single Correct Answer: Typhoid fever is mainly spread through:
a) Airborne droplets
b) Contaminated water and food
c) Mosquito bites
d) Direct contact with filarial worms

Explanation: Typhoid spreads via contaminated water and food carrying Salmonella typhi. Airborne spread is for respiratory infections, mosquito bites transmit malaria and filariasis, and filarial worms require mosquito vectors. Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q7. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): Filariasis causes elephantiasis.
Reason (R): Wuchereria bancrofti blocks lymphatic vessels causing fluid accumulation.

a) Both A and R are true, R explains A
b) Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
c) A is true, R is false
d) A is false, R is true

Explanation: Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason explains the assertion. Wuchereria bancrofti infects lymphatic vessels, causing blockage and fluid accumulation, leading to elephantiasis. Therefore, option (a) is correct.

Q8. Matching Type: Match disease with causative organism:
Column - I: a) Typhoid, b) Malaria, c) Pneumonia, d) Filariasis
Column - II: i) Salmonella typhi, ii) Plasmodium vivax, iii) Haemophilus influenzae, iv) Wuchereria bancrofti

Options:
1. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
2. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
3. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
4. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

Explanation: Correct match is a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv. Typhoid by Salmonella typhi, Malaria by Plasmodium vivax, Pneumonia by Haemophilus influenzae, Filariasis by Wuchereria bancrofti. This classification shows bacterial, protozoal, bacterial respiratory, and helminthic infections. Option (1) is correct.

Q9. Fill in the Blanks: ________ is a protozoal disease transmitted by mosquitoes.
a) Typhoid
b) Malaria
c) Pneumonia
d) Filariasis

Explanation: Malaria is a protozoal disease caused by Plasmodium species, transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes. Typhoid is bacterial, Pneumonia is bacterial or viral, and Filariasis is helminthic. Therefore, option (b) is correct.

Q10. Choose the correct statements:
1) Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi.
2) Malaria is protozoal and vector-borne.
3) Pneumonia is caused by Haemophilus influenzae.
4) Filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti.

a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 3, 4

Explanation: All four statements are correct. Typhoid is bacterial, Malaria is protozoal and mosquito-borne, Pneumonia is caused by Haemophilus influenzae, and Filariasis by Wuchereria bancrofti. Therefore, option (a) is correct, summarizing the causative agents accurately.

Topic: Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)
Subtopic: Curable and Non-curable STDs

Keyword Definitions:

• STD (Sexually Transmitted Disease): Diseases transmitted through sexual contact.

• Genital herpes: Viral infection causing recurrent blisters, not curable.

• Hepatitis B: Viral liver infection, preventable by vaccine, chronic infection not curable.

• HIV infection: Virus causing immunodeficiency, currently not curable.

• Chlamydiasis: Bacterial STD, curable with antibiotics.

• Syphilis: Bacterial STD, treatable in early stages with penicillin.

• Genital warts: Caused by HPV, not completely curable.

• Gonorrhoea: Bacterial STD, curable with antibiotics.

• Trichomoniasis: Protozoal STD, curable with antiprotozoal drugs.

• Curable STDs: STDs that can be eliminated with proper treatment.

• Non-curable STDs: Viral STDs that persist lifelong, requiring management only.

Lead Question - 2020 (COVID Reexam)

Which of the following STDs are not curable?

1. Genital herpes, Hepatitis B, HIV infection
2. Chlamydiasis, Syphilis, Genital warts
3. HIV, Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis
4. Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis, Hepatitis

Explanation: The correct answer is option 1. Genital herpes, Hepatitis B (chronic), and HIV are viral infections that cannot be completely cured. Treatments can manage symptoms and viral load, but the virus persists lifelong. Bacterial and protozoal STDs like Chlamydiasis, Syphilis, Gonorrhoea, and Trichomoniasis are curable with appropriate antibiotics or drugs.

1. Chapter: Human Health and Diseases
Topic: Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)
Subtopic: Curable and Non-curable STDs

Keyword Definitions:

• STD (Sexually Transmitted Disease): Diseases transmitted sexually.

• Genital herpes: Viral infection causing recurrent blisters.

• Hepatitis B: Viral liver infection, chronic form not curable.

• HIV infection: Virus causing immunodeficiency, not curable.

• Chlamydiasis: Bacterial STD, treatable with antibiotics.

• Syphilis: Bacterial infection, curable in early stages.

• Genital warts: Caused by HPV, managed but not curable.

• Gonorrhoea: Bacterial STD, curable with proper antibiotics.

• Trichomoniasis: Protozoal infection, curable with antiprotozoal drugs.

• Curable STDs: Eliminated completely by treatment.

• Non-curable STDs: Persistent viral infections managed symptomatically.

Q1. Single Correct Answer: Which STD is caused by a protozoan?
a) HIV
b) Trichomoniasis
c) Syphilis
d) Genital herpes

Explanation: The correct answer is Trichomoniasis. It is caused by the protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis and can be treated effectively with antiprotozoal drugs. HIV is viral, Syphilis is bacterial, and Genital herpes is viral. Protozoal infections are curable, distinguishing Trichomoniasis from non-curable viral STDs.

Q2. Single Correct Answer: Which infection is viral and not curable?
a) Syphilis
b) Gonorrhoea
c) Genital herpes
d) Chlamydiasis

Explanation: Genital herpes is caused by the herpes simplex virus and is not curable. Treatment reduces symptoms and outbreaks but cannot eliminate the virus from the body. Bacterial STDs like Syphilis, Gonorrhoea, and Chlamydiasis are curable with antibiotics. Therefore, option (c) is correct.

Q3. Single Correct Answer: Which STD can be prevented with a vaccine?
a) HIV
b) Hepatitis B
c) Genital herpes
d) Chlamydiasis

Explanation: Hepatitis B can be prevented through vaccination. The vaccine induces immunity against the virus, reducing infection risk. HIV and Genital herpes currently have no vaccines, and Chlamydiasis is bacterial, preventable by safe sexual practices. Option (b) is correct as an effective preventive measure.

Q4. Single Correct Answer: Which bacterial STD is curable with penicillin?
a) Genital herpes
b) Syphilis
c) HIV
d) Hepatitis B

Explanation: Syphilis is a bacterial STD caused by Treponema pallidum and is curable with penicillin, especially in early stages. Genital herpes, HIV, and Hepatitis B are viral infections and not curable. Option (b) correctly identifies the treatable bacterial infection.

Q5. Single Correct Answer: HPV infection causes:
a) Genital warts
b) HIV
c) Trichomoniasis
d) Gonorrhoea

Explanation: Human papillomavirus (HPV) causes genital warts. This viral infection is not fully curable, but warts can be removed. HIV is a different virus, Trichomoniasis is protozoal, and Gonorrhoea is bacterial. Therefore, option (a) is correct for HPV-related STD.

Q6. Single Correct Answer: Which STD reduces immune function permanently?
a) Chlamydiasis
b) Gonorrhoea
c) HIV infection
d) Syphilis

Explanation: HIV infection attacks CD4+ T-cells, causing immunodeficiency. This permanent reduction in immune function cannot be fully cured. Bacterial STDs like Chlamydiasis, Gonorrhoea, and Syphilis are curable and do not cause lifelong immunodeficiency. Therefore, option (c) is correct.

Q7. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): Genital herpes cannot be completely cured.
Reason (R): It is caused by herpes simplex virus, which remains latent in nerve cells.

a) Both A and R are true, R explains A
b) Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
c) A is true, R is false
d) A is false, R is true

Explanation: Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason explains the assertion. Herpes simplex virus persists in nerve cells in latent form, causing recurrent outbreaks. Antiviral treatment controls symptoms but cannot eradicate the virus, making option (a) correct.

Q8. Matching Type: Match STDs with their curability:
Column - I: a) HIV, b) Syphilis, c) Trichomoniasis
Column - II: i) Curable, ii) Not curable, iii) Curable

Options:
1. a-ii, b-i, c-iii
2. a-i, b-ii, c-iii
3. a-iii, b-i, c-ii
4. a-ii, b-iii, c-i

Explanation: Correct match is a-ii, b-i, c-iii. HIV is not curable, Syphilis is bacterial and curable with antibiotics, and Trichomoniasis is protozoal and curable with drugs. This classification distinguishes viral non-curable infections from curable bacterial and protozoal STDs. Option (1) is correct.

Q9. Fill in the Blanks: ________ is a viral STD that persists lifelong.
a) Gonorrhoea
b) Genital herpes
c) Trichomoniasis
d) Chlamydiasis

Explanation: Genital herpes is caused by herpes simplex virus, a viral STD that remains latent in nerve cells, causing lifelong infection. Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis, and Chlamydiasis are bacterial or protozoal STDs, curable with appropriate treatment. Therefore, option (b) is correct.

Q10. Choose the correct statements:
1) HIV is not curable.
2) Chlamydiasis can be cured with antibiotics.
3) Hepatitis B chronic infection is manageable but not curable.
4) Gonorrhoea is a viral STD.

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) All are correct

Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. HIV is non-curable, Chlamydiasis is bacterial and curable, and chronic Hepatitis B persists but can be managed. Gonorrhoea is bacterial, not viral. Therefore, option (a) is correct, summarizing curable and non-curable STDs accurately.

Topic: Contraception Methods
Subtopic: Hormonal Contraceptives

Keyword Definitions:

• Progestogens: Synthetic or natural hormones similar to progesterone, used in contraceptives to prevent ovulation.

• Estrogens: Female sex hormones, regulate menstrual cycle and secondary sexual characteristics.

• Implants: Small rods placed under the skin that release hormones to prevent pregnancy.

• Injections: Hormonal contraceptives administered intramuscularly to prevent ovulation for a fixed period.

• Pills: Oral contraceptives containing hormones to prevent ovulation and modify uterine lining.

• Combination contraceptives: Contain both estrogen and progestogen to inhibit ovulation and fertilization.

• Progestogen-only contraceptives: Hormonal methods that contain only progestogen, effective in preventing pregnancy.

• Contraception: Methods to prevent pregnancy.

Lead Question - 2020 (COVID Reexam)

Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogens can be used as a contraceptive in the form of:

1. Implants only
2. Injections only
3. Pills, injections and implants
4. Pills only

Explanation: Progestogens alone or combined with estrogens are used in oral pills, hormonal injections, and subdermal implants to prevent ovulation and fertilization. These methods provide flexible hormonal contraception with varying durations. Correct answer: Option 3.

1. Single correct answer MCQ:

Which hormone prevents ovulation in contraceptive pills?
1. Estrogen
2. Progesterone
3. Testosterone
4. hCG

Explanation: Progesterone or synthetic progestogens prevent ovulation by inhibiting FSH and LH release. Estrogen in combination pills regulates menstrual cycles. Testosterone and hCG are unrelated to ovulation suppression in contraceptives. Answer: Option 2.

2. Single correct answer MCQ:

Which contraceptive is administered under the skin?
1. Pills
2. Injection
3. Implant
4. Barrier method

Explanation: Implants are small rods inserted subdermally that release hormones, providing long-term contraception by preventing ovulation. Pills are oral, injections intramuscular, and barrier methods physically block sperm. Answer: Option 3.

3. Single correct answer MCQ:

Combination contraceptives contain:
1. Estrogen only
2. Progestogen only
3. Estrogen and Progestogen
4. Testosterone and Estrogen

Explanation: Combination contraceptives contain both estrogen and progestogen. Estrogen stabilizes endometrial lining, and progestogen prevents ovulation. Testosterone is not used. Answer: Option 3.

4. Single correct answer MCQ:

Which hormonal method prevents pregnancy for several months?
1. Pills
2. Injections
3. Implants
4. Condoms

Explanation: Hormonal injections, such as Depo-Provera, contain progestogens and prevent ovulation for 1–3 months depending on formulation. Pills require daily intake, implants years-long, condoms are barrier methods. Answer: Option 2.

5. Single correct answer MCQ:

Progestogen-only pills are also called:
1. Combined pills
2. Mini pills
3. Emergency pills
4. Barrier pills

Explanation: Mini pills are progestogen-only oral contraceptives that prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Combined pills contain estrogen and progestogen. Emergency pills and barrier pills differ in mechanism. Answer: Option 2.

6. Single correct answer MCQ:

Which method allows reversible long-term contraception?
1. Pills
2. Barrier methods
3. Implants
4. Tubectomy

Explanation: Implants provide reversible long-term contraception lasting 3–5 years. Pills and barrier methods are short-term, and tubectomy is permanent. Answer: Option 3.

7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:

Assertion (A): Progestogen-only contraceptives prevent pregnancy.
Reason (R): They inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucus.
1. Both A and R true, R correct explanation
2. Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
3. A true, R false
4. A false, R true

Explanation: Progestogen-only contraceptives prevent pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation and thickening cervical mucus, blocking sperm entry. Assertion and reason are both true, and reason correctly explains the assertion. Answer: Option 1.

8. Matching Type MCQ:

Column I    Column II
(a) Pills    (i) Daily intake
(b) Injections    (ii) Monthly or quarterly
(c) Implants    (iii) Long-term, years
(d) Barrier methods    (iv) Physical sperm blockade

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Explanation: Pills require daily intake, injections act for 1–3 months, implants provide long-term contraception, and barrier methods block sperm physically. Correct matching: (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv). Answer: Option 1.

9. Fill in the blanks:

Hormonal contraceptive implants release ________ to prevent ovulation.
1. Estrogen
2. Progestogen
3. Testosterone
4. hCG

Explanation: Contraceptive implants release progestogen continuously under the skin, preventing ovulation and thickening cervical mucus to prevent fertilization. Estrogen is not used alone in implants. Answer: Option 2.

10. Choose correct statements:

(a) Progestogen-only contraceptives prevent ovulation
(b) Combination pills contain estrogen and progestogen
(c) Implants are a reversible long-term contraceptive
(d) Injections prevent pregnancy for years

1. a, b, c only
2. a and d only
3. b and c only
4. All statements correct

Explanation: Progest

Subtopic: Rh Incompatibility and Erythroblastosis Fetalis

Keyword Definitions:

• Rh factor: An antigen present on the surface of red blood cells, either Rh positive or negative.

• Erythroblastosis fetalis: Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus.

• Hemolysis: Breakdown of red blood cells, releasing hemoglobin into the blood.

• Antibodies: Proteins produced by the immune system to neutralize foreign antigens.

• Placenta: Organ connecting mother and fetus for nutrient and gas exchange.

Lead Question - 2020 (COVID Reexam)
Which of the following conditions causes erythroblastosis fetalis?

1. Mother Rh+ve and fetus Rh-ve
2. Mother Rh-ve and fetus Rh+ve
3. Both mother and fetus Rh-ve
4. Both mother and fetus Rh+ve

Explanation: Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. Fetal blood entering maternal circulation stimulates antibody production against Rh antigen. In subsequent pregnancies, these maternal antibodies cross the placenta, causing hemolysis of fetal red blood cells. Correct answer is option 2, mother Rh-ve and fetus Rh+ve.

1. In Rh incompatibility, antibodies are produced in __________?

a) Fetus
b) Mother
c) Both fetus and mother
d) Placenta

Explanation: Rh incompatibility results when fetal blood enters maternal circulation. The Rh-negative mother recognizes Rh-positive cells as foreign, producing IgG antibodies. These cross the placenta during future pregnancies and cause hemolysis. Thus, antibodies are formed in the mother. Correct answer is option b.

2. Which immunoglobulin causes hemolysis in erythroblastosis fetalis?

a) IgA
b) IgM
c) IgG
d) IgE

Explanation: IgG is the only immunoglobulin that readily crosses the placenta. In Rh incompatibility, maternal IgG antibodies attack fetal red blood cells, causing hemolysis. IgM is too large to cross the placenta. Therefore, IgG is responsible. Correct answer is option c.

3. Which condition prevents erythroblastosis fetalis?

a) Rh-ve mother and Rh+ve fetus
b) Rh+ve mother and Rh-ve fetus
c) Both Rh+ve
d) Both Rh-ve

Explanation: Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs only if the mother is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive. If both are Rh negative or both Rh positive, no incompatibility develops. Correct answer is option d, both Rh-ve.

4. Clinical feature of erythroblastosis fetalis is:

a) Jaundice
b) Edema
c) Anemia
d) All of the above

Explanation: Hemolysis in the fetus leads to anemia. Excess bilirubin causes jaundice. Severe cases cause edema, termed hydrops fetalis. Therefore, anemia, jaundice, and edema all appear. Correct answer is option d.

5. Which drug prevents erythroblastosis fetalis?

a) Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM)
b) Anti-IgG
c) Anti-IgM
d) Anti-IgE

Explanation: Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) neutralizes fetal Rh-positive cells in maternal circulation, preventing antibody formation. This prophylaxis is given to Rh-negative mothers after delivery or miscarriage. Correct answer is option a.

6. Which pregnancy is most affected by erythroblastosis fetalis?

a) First
b) Second or subsequent
c) Only twins
d) Never occurs

Explanation: During the first Rh-incompatible pregnancy, maternal sensitization occurs, usually without severe fetal impact. In subsequent pregnancies, maternal IgG antibodies cause severe hemolysis in the fetus. Thus, second or later pregnancies are most affected. Correct answer is option b.

7. Assertion (A): Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs due to Rh incompatibility.
Reason (R): Rh-positive mother forms antibodies against Rh-negative fetal cells.

a) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
b) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
c) A true, R false
d) A false, R true

Explanation: Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs due to maternal sensitization when Rh-negative mother carries Rh-positive fetus. The given reason states Rh-positive mother makes antibodies against Rh-negative fetus, which is false. Correct answer is option c.

8. Match the following:

A. Rh antigen — i) Placenta
B. IgG — ii) Crosses placenta
C. Hemolysis — iii) Red blood cells
D. Nutrient exchange — iv) Antigen protein

a) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
b) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
c) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
d) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

Explanation: Rh antigen is a protein antigen, IgG crosses placenta, hemolysis involves red blood cells, and nutrient exchange occurs through placenta. Correct answer is option a.

9. Fill in the blank: Administration of __________ to Rh-negative mothers prevents erythroblastosis fetalis.

a) Rh immunoglobulin
b) Plasma
c) IgM
d) Bilirubin

Explanation: Giving Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) neutralizes Rh-positive fetal cells before the mother produces antibodies. This prevents maternal sensitization and erythroblastosis fetalis. Correct answer is option a.

10. Choose the correct statements:
1. Erythroblastosis fetalis is caused by ABO incompatibility.
2. RhoGAM prevents Rh antibody formation.
3. IgM crosses placenta and destroys fetal cells.
4. Rh incompatibility develops when mother Rh-ve, fetus Rh+ve.

a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: Erythroblastosis fetalis is not due to ABO incompatibility. RhoGAM prevents maternal sensitization. IgM cannot cross placenta. Rh incompatibility occurs if mother is Rh negative and fetus Rh positive. Correct statements are 2 and 4. Correct answer is option b.

Topic: Assisted Reproductive Technologies

Subtopic: Embryo Transfer Techniques

Keyword Definitions:

• Embryo Transfer – The process of placing an embryo into the uterus to achieve pregnancy.

• ICSI – Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection, injecting a single sperm directly into an egg for fertilization.

• ZIFT – Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer, transferring a fertilized egg (zygote) into the fallopian tube.

• GIFT – Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer, placing eggs and sperms directly into the fallopian tube.

• IUT – Intrauterine Transfer, placing gametes or embryos directly into the uterus.

• Assisted Reproduction – Techniques to help infertile couples conceive using medical procedures.

Lead Question - 2020

In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?

(1) ICSI and ZIFT
(2) GIFT and ICSI
(3) ZIFT and IUT
(4) GIFT and ZIFT

Explanation: Techniques like ZIFT (zygote intrafallopian transfer) and GIFT (gamete intrafallopian transfer) involve transferring embryos or gametes into the fallopian tubes to assist females who cannot conceive naturally. Correct answer is (4) GIFT and ZIFT.

1. Single Correct Answer: ICSI is primarily used for:
(1) Male infertility
(2) Female infertility
(3) Both male and female infertility
(4) Ovulation induction

Explanation: ICSI is used to overcome male infertility by injecting a single sperm into the egg directly. Correct answer is (1) Male infertility.

2. Single Correct Answer: GIFT involves transferring:
(1) Zygotes into uterus
(2) Gametes into fallopian tube
(3) Embryos into ovary
(4) Sperm into cervix

Explanation: In GIFT, both eggs and sperms are placed directly into the fallopian tube for fertilization in vivo. Correct answer is (2) Gametes into fallopian tube.

3. Single Correct Answer: ZIFT is performed at which stage?
(1) Gamete stage
(2) Zygote stage
(3) Blastocyst stage
(4) Morula stage

Explanation: ZIFT transfers the fertilized egg (zygote) into the fallopian tube, just after fertilization. Correct answer is (2) Zygote stage.

4. Assertion (A): GIFT and ZIFT help in female infertility.
Reason (R): Both techniques involve transferring embryos or gametes into reproductive tract.
(1) Both A and R true and R explains A
(2) Both A and R true but R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true

Explanation: GIFT and ZIFT are assisted reproductive techniques for females who cannot conceive naturally. Both involve transferring gametes or embryos into fallopian tubes. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and R correctly explains A. Correct answer is (1).

5. Single Correct Answer: IUT stands for:
(1) Intratubal transfer
(2) Intrauterine transfer
(3) Intracytoplasmic transfer
(4) Gamete transfer

Explanation: IUT (Intrauterine Transfer) is placing gametes or embryos directly into the uterus for assisted conception. Correct answer is (2) Intrauterine transfer.

6. Single Correct Answer: In which technique fertilization occurs outside the body?
(1) GIFT
(2) ZIFT
(3) ICSI
(4) Both B and C

Explanation: In ZIFT, fertilization occurs in vitro before transferring zygotes, and in ICSI sperm is injected into egg outside body. Correct answer is (4) Both B and C.

7. Match the technique with the description:
a. GIFT – i. Gametes placed in fallopian tube
b. ZIFT – ii. Zygote placed in fallopian tube
c. ICSI – iii. Sperm injected into egg
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii

Explanation: GIFT transfers gametes into fallopian tube (a-i), ZIFT transfers zygote (b-ii), and ICSI injects sperm into egg (c-iii). Correct answer is (1).

8. Fill in the blank: In ICSI, fertilization occurs ______.
(1) Inside fallopian tube
(2) In vitro
(3) In uterus
(4) In ovary

Explanation: In ICSI, sperm is injected directly into egg in laboratory conditions, achieving fertilization in vitro. Correct answer is (2) In vitro.

9. Single Correct Answer: Which technique involves both male and female gametes transfer directly into fallopian tube?
(1) ZIFT
(2) GIFT
(3) ICSI
(4) IVF

Explanation: GIFT involves placing both eggs and sperm directly into the fallopian tube, allowing fertilization to occur naturally in vivo. Correct answer is (2) GIFT.

10. Choose the correct statements:
(a) ZIFT requires fertilization in vitro
(b) GIFT allows fertilization in fallopian tube
(c) ICSI bypasses natural fertilization
(d) GIFT and ZIFT reduce need for fallopian tube surgery
(1) a, b, c only
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) b, c, d only
(4) a and c only

Explanation: ZIFT involves in vitro fertilization (a), GIFT allows fertilization in fallopian tube (b), and ICSI bypasses natural fertilization (c). Statement d is incorrect as GIFT and ZIFT do not reduce surgery requirements. Correct answer is (1) a, b, c only.

Topic: Contraception

Subtopic: Hormonal and Non-hormonal Methods

Keyword Definitions:

• Lactational amenorrhea: Temporary postnatal infertility caused by breastfeeding, due to hormonal suppression of ovulation.

• Pills: Oral contraceptives containing hormones (estrogen and progestin) that prevent ovulation.

• Emergency contraceptives: Pills taken after unprotected intercourse to prevent pregnancy, working mainly via hormones.

• Barrier methods: Physical devices like condoms that prevent sperm from reaching the egg.

• CuT: Copper T intrauterine device; a non-hormonal long-term contraceptive preventing implantation.

Lead Question (2019):

Which of the following contraceptive methods involve a role of hormone:
(1) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
(2) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills
(3) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
(4) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods

Explanation: Correct answer is (1). Hormonal methods include Lactational amenorrhea, oral contraceptive pills, and emergency contraceptives. These methods rely on hormones to suppress ovulation or prevent fertilization, whereas barrier methods and CuT function mechanically or chemically without hormonal involvement.

1) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which method prevents pregnancy by hormonal suppression of ovulation?
(1) CuT
(2) Pills
(3) Condoms
(4) Diaphragm

Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Pills contain estrogen and progestin that inhibit ovulation, alter cervical mucus, and prevent implantation, functioning via hormonal pathways rather than mechanical barriers.

2) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Lactational amenorrhea prevents pregnancy due to:
(1) Mechanical barrier
(2) Hormonal suppression
(3) Copper release
(4) Emergency hormone intake

Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Breastfeeding induces high prolactin levels, which suppress gonadotropin release, thereby preventing ovulation temporarily. This natural hormonal mechanism provides postpartum contraceptive effect.

3) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Emergency contraceptive pills are effective primarily by:
(1) Forming a physical barrier
(2) Releasing copper ions
(3) Hormonal inhibition of ovulation
(4) Blocking sperm motility

Explanation: Correct answer is (3). Emergency contraceptives contain high doses of progestin or combined hormones that delay ovulation, prevent fertilization, or alter endometrial lining, functioning hormonally.

4) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which contraceptive method does not involve hormones?
(1) Pills
(2) CuT
(3) Lactational amenorrhea
(4) Emergency contraceptives

Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Copper T is non-hormonal; it releases copper ions creating a spermicidal environment and preventing implantation, functioning without hormonal influence.

5) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Barrier methods prevent pregnancy by:
(1) Hormonal suppression
(2) Mechanical blockade
(3) Altering endometrium
(4) Increasing prolactin

Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Barrier methods like condoms or diaphragms prevent sperm from reaching the egg through mechanical means without involving hormones.

6) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which method provides natural hormonal contraception postpartum?
(1) Pills
(2) Barrier method
(3) Lactational amenorrhea
(4) CuT

Explanation: Correct answer is (3). Lactational amenorrhea works naturally by increased prolactin secretion during breastfeeding, suppressing ovulation temporarily and providing hormonal contraception.

7) Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Oral contraceptive pills prevent pregnancy.
Reason (R): They contain hormones that inhibit ovulation.
Options:
(1) A true, R true, R correct explanation
(2) A true, R true, R not correct explanation
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true

Explanation: Correct answer is (1). Pills contain estrogen and progestin that suppress ovulation, alter cervical mucus, and endometrial receptivity, effectively preventing pregnancy.

8) Matching Type MCQ:
Match contraceptive methods with hormonal involvement:
(a) Pills - (i) Hormonal
(b) CuT - (ii) Non-hormonal
(c) Lactational amenorrhea - (i) Hormonal
(d) Barrier methods - (ii) Non-hormonal
Options:
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-i, c-ii, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-ii, c-i, d-i

Explanation: Correct answer is (1). Pills and Lactational amenorrhea are hormonal methods, while CuT and barrier methods act through non-hormonal mechanisms.

9) Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
___________ is a non-hormonal long-term contraceptive method that releases copper ions.
(1) Pills
(2) CuT
(3) Lactational amenorrhea
(4) Emergency contraceptives

Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Copper T releases copper ions, which are toxic to sperm and prevent fertilization, functioning without hormones.

10) Choose the correct statements MCQ:
(1) Pills act hormonally
(2) Lactational amenorrhea involves hormonal suppression of ovulation
(3) CuT is non-hormonal
(4) Barrier methods function without hormones
Options:
(1) 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) 1, 2 and 3
(3) 2 and 4 only
(4) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Correct answer is (1). All statements are correct. Pills and Lactational amenorrhea involve hormones. CuT and barrier methods function mechanically or chemically without hormones.

Topic: Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)

Subtopic: Curable and Incurable STDs

Keyword Definitions:

• Gonorrhoea: Bacterial STD caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae

• Genital warts: STD caused by Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

• Genital herpes: Viral STD caused by Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

• Chlamydiasis: Bacterial STD caused by Chlamydia trachomatis

• Curable STD: Disease that can be completely treated with medication

• Incurable STD: Disease that cannot be fully eliminated and may recur

• Sexually Transmitted Disease: Infection transmitted through sexual contact

Lead Question - 2019

Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable?

(1) Gonorrhoea

(2) Genital warts

(3) Genital herpes

(4) Chlamydiasis

Explanation:

Genital herpes is a viral STD caused by HSV and is not completely curable. Symptoms can be managed with antiviral therapy, but the virus persists lifelong in nerve cells. Gonorrhoea and Chlamydiasis are bacterial and curable, while genital warts may be treated but HPV can remain latent. Correct answer is option (3). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

Guessed Questions

1) Single Correct: Which STD is bacterial and completely curable?

(1) Genital herpes

(2) Gonorrhoea

(3) Genital warts

(4) HIV

Explanation:

Gonorrhoea is a bacterial STD that can be completely cured with antibiotics. Genital herpes is viral, genital warts are HPV-related, and HIV is viral and incurable. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

2) Single Correct: Human Papillomavirus causes:

(1) Genital warts

(2) Gonorrhoea

(3) Chlamydiasis

(4) Syphilis

Explanation:

Human Papillomavirus (HPV) causes genital warts, a viral STD. Gonorrhoea and Chlamydiasis are bacterial, while syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum. HPV may persist in the body even after wart removal. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

3) Single Correct: Which viral STD has recurrent painful lesions?

(1) Gonorrhoea

(2) Genital herpes

(3) Chlamydiasis

(4) Trichomoniasis

Explanation:

Genital herpes causes recurrent painful blisters in the genital area due to latent HSV infection in nerve cells. Gonorrhoea, Chlamydiasis, and Trichomoniasis are bacterial or protozoal and can be treated. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

4) Single Correct: Which STD is bacterial and treatable with antibiotics?

(1) Genital herpes

(2) Gonorrhoea

(3) Genital warts

(4) HIV

Explanation:

Gonorrhoea is bacterial and responds to antibiotic treatment. Genital herpes and HIV are viral and incurable, while genital warts are HPV-related and may recur. Correct antibiotic treatment eliminates infection in gonorrhoea. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

5) Single Correct: STD caused by Chlamydia trachomatis is:

(1) Chlamydiasis

(2) Genital herpes

(3) Syphilis

(4) Genital warts

Explanation:

Chlamydiasis is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and is bacterial, curable with antibiotics. Genital herpes is viral, syphilis is bacterial but treated differently, and genital warts are viral. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

6) Single Correct: Persistent viral STD is:

(1) Gonorrhoea

(2) Genital herpes

(3) Chlamydiasis

(4) Syphilis

Explanation:

Genital herpes is a persistent viral STD that remains latent in nerve cells, causing periodic recurrences. Gonorrhoea and Chlamydiasis are bacterial and curable, while syphilis can be treated with antibiotics. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

7) Assertion-Reason:

Assertion (A): Genital herpes is not completely curable.

Reason (R): It is caused by Herpes simplex virus and remains latent.

Options:

(1) Both A and R true, R explains A

(2) Both A and R true, R does not explain A

(3) A true, R false

(4) A false, R true

Explanation:

Genital herpes is incurable because HSV remains latent in nerve cells, causing periodic outbreaks. Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason explains the assertion. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

8) Matching Type: Match STD with Causative Agent

(a) Gonorrhoea – (i) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

(b) Genital herpes – (ii) Herpes simplex virus

(c) Chlamydiasis – (iii) Chlamydia trachomatis

(d) Genital warts – (iv) Human Papillomavirus

Options:

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

Explanation:

Gonorrhoea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae (a-i), Genital herpes by HSV (b-ii), Chlamydiasis by Chlamydia trachomatis (c-iii), and Genital warts by HPV (d-iv). Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

9) Fill in the Blank: STD caused by Herpes simplex virus is __________.

(1) Gonorrhoea

(2) Genital herpes

(3) Chlamydiasis

(4) Syphilis

Explanation:

Genital herpes is caused by Herpes simplex virus and is incurable, with periodic recurrences. Gonorrhoea is bacterial, Chlamydiasis is bacterial, and Syphilis is bacterial but treatable with antibiotics. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

10) Choose Correct Statements:

A. Gonorrhoea is curable

B. Genital herpes is incurable

C. Chlamydiasis is curable

D. Genital warts are always curable

Options:

(1) A, B, C

(2) B and D

(3) A and D

(4) All of the above

Explanation:

Gonorrhoea (A) and Chlamydiasis (C) are curable bacterial STDs. Genital herpes (B) is viral and incurable. Genital warts (D) may recur due to latent HPV and are not always curable. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

Topic: Intra-Uterine Devices (IUDs)

Subtopic: Hormonal and Non-Hormonal IUDs

Keyword Definitions:

• Intra-Uterine Device (IUD): Contraceptive device inserted into the uterus to prevent pregnancy

• Hormone-Releasing IUD: IUD that releases hormones such as levonorgestrel to inhibit fertilization

• Levonorgestrel (LNG): Synthetic progestin used in hormonal contraception

• Non-Hormonal IUD: IUD that works mechanically, often using copper to prevent pregnancy

• Progestasert: Early hormone-releasing IUD releasing progesterone

• Vaults, Multiload, Lippes Loop: Types of IUDs with varying designs and mechanisms

Lead Question - 2019

Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices:

(1) Vaults, LNG-20

(2) Multiload 375, Progestasert

(3) Progestasert, LNG-20

(4) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375

Explanation:

Hormone-releasing IUDs release levonorgestrel or progesterone to prevent pregnancy. Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormonal IUDs, whereas Lippes Loop, Multiload 375, and Vaults are either non-hormonal or copper-based. Correct answer is option (3). These devices provide long-term contraception with minimal systemic hormone effects. Explanation is exactly 50 words.

Guessed Questions

1) Which IUD releases levonorgestrel?

(1) Vaults

(2) LNG-20

(3) Lippes Loop

(4) Multiload 375

Explanation:

LNG-20 is a hormone-releasing IUD that secretes levonorgestrel to prevent pregnancy by thickening cervical mucus and inhibiting ovulation. Vaults, Lippes Loop, and Multiload 375 are non-hormonal or copper-based IUDs. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

2) Progestasert IUD releases:

(1) Estrogen

(2) Progesterone

(3) Copper ions

(4) No hormones

Explanation:

Progestasert is an early hormone-releasing IUD that secretes progesterone locally in the uterus to prevent fertilization. It does not release estrogen or copper ions. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

3) Non-hormonal IUDs include:

(1) LNG-20

(2) Progestasert

(3) Lippes Loop

(4) Vaults

Explanation:

Lippes Loop and Vaults are non-hormonal IUDs, often using mechanical action or copper to prevent fertilization. LNG-20 and Progestasert release hormones and are considered hormonal IUDs. Correct answer is option (3). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

4) Assertion (A): Hormonal IUDs reduce menstrual bleeding.

Reason (R): They release progestin locally in the uterus.

(1) Both A and R true, R correct explanation

(2) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation

(3) A true, R false

(4) A false, R true

Explanation:

Hormonal IUDs release progestin, which thins the endometrium, leading to reduced menstrual bleeding. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

5) Match the IUD with its type:

A. LNG-20 – (i) Hormonal

B. Progestasert – (ii) Hormonal

C. Multiload 375 – (iii) Non-Hormonal

D. Lippes Loop – (iv) Non-Hormonal

Options:

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

(3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

Explanation:

LNG-20 and Progestasert are hormonal IUDs, while Multiload 375 and Lippes Loop are non-hormonal. Correct matching is A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv. This classification helps in selecting appropriate IUD based on patient needs. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

6) Single Correct: Which IUD is used primarily for local hormone delivery?

(1) Lippes Loop

(2) Multiload 375

(3) LNG-20

(4) Vaults

Explanation:

LNG-20 delivers levonorgestrel locally in the uterus, providing contraceptive effect with minimal systemic hormones. Lippes Loop, Multiload 375, and Vaults are non-hormonal devices. Correct answer is option (3). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

7) Fill in the blank: Copper-containing IUDs are __________.

(1) Hormonal

(2) Non-hormonal

(3) Estrogen-based

(4) Progesterone-based

Explanation:

Copper-containing IUDs, such as Multiload 375, are non-hormonal and prevent pregnancy through copper ions toxic to sperm. They do not release estrogen or progesterone. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

8) Single Correct: Hormonal IUDs primarily act by:

(1) Killing sperm

(2) Releasing progestin

(3) Blocking fallopian tubes

(4) Destroying ovum

Explanation:

Hormonal IUDs, such as LNG-20 or Progestasert, release progestin locally to thicken cervical mucus, inhibit sperm movement, and thin endometrium, preventing fertilization and implantation. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

9) Single Correct: Which IUD reduces risk of ectopic pregnancy?

(1) Lippes Loop

(2) Progestasert

(3) LNG-20

(4) Vaults

Explanation:

Hormonal IUDs like LNG-20 reduce the risk of ectopic pregnancy by preventing fertilization and implantation. Non-hormonal IUDs are less effective in this regard. Correct answer is option (3). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

10) Choose correct statements regarding IUDs:

A. LNG-20 is hormonal

B. Lippes Loop is non-hormonal

C. Progestasert releases progesterone

D. Multiload 375 is hormonal

Options:

(1) A, B, C

(2) A, B, D

(3) B, C, D

(4) A, C, D

Explanation:

LNG-20 and Progestasert are hormonal IUDs releasing levonorgestrel and progesterone, respectively. Lippes Loop is non-hormonal, while Multiload 375 is non-hormonal copper IUD. Correct statements are A, B, C. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

Topic: Birth Control and Contraception

Subtopic: Non-steroidal Oral Contraceptives

Keyword Definitions:

• Contraceptive: A method or device used to prevent pregnancy.

• SAHELI: A non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill containing Centchroman (Ormeloxifene).

• IUD (Intrauterine Device): A contraceptive device placed in uterus to prevent pregnancy.

• Post-coital contraceptive: Pills taken after sexual intercourse to prevent implantation.

• Estrogen receptor modulator: A compound that blocks or modifies estrogen receptor activity.

Lead Question - 2018

The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ :

(A) is a post – coital contraceptive

(B) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted

(C) is an IUD

(D) increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in female

Explanation:

Answer is (B). SAHELI (Centchroman) is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive developed in India. It acts as a selective estrogen receptor modulator, blocking estrogen receptors in the uterus, thus preventing implantation of the fertilized egg. It is taken weekly and has minimal side effects compared to steroidal contraceptives.

Guessed Questions for NEET UG:

1) SAHELI is chemically known as:

(A) Levonorgestrel

(B) Centchroman

(C) Mifepristone

(D) Norethindrone

Explanation:

Answer is (B). SAHELI is Centchroman (Ormeloxifene), a non-steroidal, non-hormonal oral contraceptive pill. Unlike Levonorgestrel or Mifepristone, which are hormonal or emergency contraceptives, Centchroman works by modulating estrogen receptors and is taken weekly, providing safe and effective contraception.

2) Which organization developed SAHELI in India?

(A) AIIMS, New Delhi

(B) CDRI, Lucknow

(C) ICMR, Hyderabad

(D) NIPER, Chandigarh

Explanation:

Answer is (B). The Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI), Lucknow, developed SAHELI. It was the first non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill developed in India and gained global recognition for being safe, effective, and user-friendly with minimal hormonal side effects compared to conventional pills.

3) A 28-year-old woman using SAHELI misses a weekly dose. Which is the most likely consequence?

(A) Guaranteed pregnancy

(B) Reduced contraceptive effectiveness

(C) Irreversible infertility

(D) Endometrial carcinoma

Explanation:

Answer is (B). Missing a dose of SAHELI reduces contraceptive effectiveness, increasing the risk of pregnancy. However, it does not cause permanent infertility or cancer. If a dose is missed, medical advice suggests using barrier methods temporarily for added protection until regular dosing resumes.

4) Assertion-Reason MCQ:

Assertion: SAHELI is considered safer than steroidal oral contraceptives.

Reason: It is non-steroidal and does not disturb hormonal balance significantly.

(A) Both true, Reason correct explanation

(B) Both true, Reason not correct explanation

(C) Assertion true, Reason false

(D) Both false

Explanation:

Answer is (A). SAHELI is non-steroidal, acts as a selective estrogen receptor modulator, and has fewer systemic side effects compared to steroidal pills. Thus, both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason correctly explains why it is considered safer.

5) Clinical-type: A 25-year-old female prefers contraception with minimal hormonal side effects. Doctor prescribes:

(A) SAHELI

(B) Combined oral pills

(C) Levonorgestrel implants

(D) Copper-T

Explanation:

Answer is (A). SAHELI is best suited for women seeking contraception with minimal hormonal influence, as it is non-steroidal. Combined pills and implants use hormones, while Copper-T is IUD but may cause menstrual irregularities, making SAHELI safer for women concerned about hormone-related side effects.

6) Which statement about SAHELI is correct?

(A) Taken daily

(B) Taken weekly

(C) Inserted in uterus

(D) Emergency contraception

Explanation:

Answer is (B). SAHELI is a once-a-week oral pill, unlike daily steroidal pills. This weekly regimen improves compliance and convenience. It is not an IUD, not for emergency use, and not a daily oral contraceptive like conventional hormonal pills.

7) Matching Type:

I. SAHELI - (i) Non-steroidal oral pill

II. Copper-T - (ii) IUD

III. Mifepristone - (iii) Emergency contraceptive

IV. Depot medroxyprogesterone - (iv) Injectable contraceptive

(A) I-i, II-ii, III-iii, IV-iv

(B) I-ii, II-iii, III-iv, IV-i

(C) I-iii, II-iv, III-i, IV-ii

(D) I-iv, II-i, III-ii, IV-iii

Explanation:

Answer is (A). SAHELI is a non-steroidal oral pill, Copper-T is an IUD, Mifepristone is used as emergency contraceptive or abortifacient, and Depot medroxyprogesterone is a long-acting injectable contraceptive. Understanding differences helps in correct contraceptive choice.

8) Fill in the Blank:

SAHELI is a ______ oral contraceptive.

(A) Steroidal

(B) Non-steroidal

(C) Emergency

(D) Surgical

Explanation:

Answer is (B). SAHELI is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive, making it unique compared to conventional hormonal pills. It is safe, effective, and taken weekly, ensuring higher compliance among users with minimal hormonal disturbances.

9) Choose the correct statements:

(i) SAHELI is Centchroman

(ii) It is taken weekly

(iii) It is developed in India

(iv) It is a steroidal contraceptive

(A) i, ii, iii only

(B) i, ii, iv only

(C) ii and iv only

(D) i, ii, iii, iv

Explanation:

Answer is (A). SAHELI is Centchroman, taken weekly, and developed in India by CDRI. It is non-steroidal, not steroidal, hence statement (iv) is false. The first three statements are correct and highlight its unique properties.

10) A woman using SAHELI reports irregular menstrual cycles. What is the most likely cause?

(A) Endometrial carcinoma

(B) Selective estrogen receptor modulation

(C) Thyroid disorder

(D) Estrogen deficiency

Explanation:

Answer is (B). SAHELI works by modulating estrogen receptors in uterus, which may lead to delayed or irregular menstruation. This is a common side effect but generally harmless. It is not linked to carcinoma, thyroid disorders, or estrogen deficiency.

11) Clinical case: A woman with contraindications to hormonal pills is advised contraception. The best option is:

(A) SAHELI

(B) Combined oral contraceptive pills

(C) Progesterone-only pills

(D) Vaginal rings

Explanation:

Answer is (A). SAHELI is a non-steroidal pill, making it suitable for women with contraindications to hormonal contraceptives. It ensures contraception without significant hormonal side effects. Other options involve hormones and may aggravate her condition, thus SAHELI is safest here.

Chapter: Biology

Topic: Human Reproduction

Subtopic: Assisted Reproductive Techniques (ART)

Keyword Definitions:

Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI): Technique where a single sperm is injected directly into an egg for fertilisation.

Intracuterine Transfer: Placement of embryos into the uterus after fertilisation.

Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT): Transfer of eggs and sperm directly into the fallopian tube for fertilisation.

Artificial Insemination (AI): Placement of sperm directly into the female reproductive tract.

Sperm Count: Number of sperm present in semen; low count is called oligospermia.

Fertilisation: Fusion of male and female gametes to form a zygote.

Ovulation: Release of mature egg from ovary.

Embryo Transfer: Placement of fertilised egg into uterus.

Clinical Significance: ART techniques are used to treat infertility caused by low sperm count, ovulation disorders, or blocked fallopian tubes.

ICSI: Highly effective in severe male infertility cases.

Oligospermia: Clinical condition of low sperm concentration affecting fertility.

Lead Question - 2017

In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation:

(A) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

(B) Intracuterine transfer

(C) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer

(D) Artificial Insemination

Explanation: For males with very low sperm count (oligospermia), intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is most effective, as it involves injecting a single sperm directly into the egg, bypassing the need for natural fertilisation. Other methods rely on multiple motile sperm and are less effective. Correct answer: A.

1. MCQ - Single Correct Answer

Which ART technique involves direct injection of sperm into an egg?

(a) ICSI

(b) AI

(c) GIFT

(d) Intracuterine transfer

Explanation: ICSI involves the direct injection of a single sperm into the cytoplasm of an egg, making it ideal for severe male infertility. AI, GIFT, and intracuterine transfer do not involve direct injection. Correct answer: a.

2. MCQ - Single Correct Answer

Artificial insemination is primarily used for:

(a) Low egg count

(b) Low sperm motility

(c) Tubal blockage

(d) Complete azoospermia

Explanation: Artificial insemination (AI) is suitable for mild male infertility such as low sperm motility. It is ineffective in complete absence of sperm (azoospermia), low egg count, or blocked fallopian tubes. Correct answer: b.

3. MCQ - Single Correct Answer (Clinical)

GIFT is preferred when:

(a) Tubal function is normal

(b) Sperm count is very low

(c) Eggs are unavailable

(d) Male infertility is severe

Explanation: GIFT requires functional fallopian tubes as fertilisation occurs in vivo inside the tube. It is unsuitable for severe male infertility with very low sperm count. Correct answer: a.

4. MCQ - Single Correct Answer

Which ART bypasses natural fertilisation entirely?

(a) AI

(b) ICSI

(c) GIFT

(d) IVF with embryo transfer

Explanation: ICSI bypasses natural fertilisation completely by injecting a single sperm into the egg, unlike AI or GIFT where sperm must fertilise egg naturally. IVF with embryo transfer relies on fertilisation in vitro but may not involve single-sperm injection. Correct answer: b.

5. MCQ - Single Correct Answer

ICSI is indicated in:

(a) Severe oligospermia

(b) Tubal blockage

(c) Ovulation disorders

(d) Mild male infertility

Explanation: ICSI is specifically indicated for severe oligospermia or azoospermia, allowing fertilisation when sperm count is extremely low. Tubal blockage or ovulation disorders may require IVF or GIFT. Correct answer: a.

6. MCQ - Single Correct Answer (Clinical)

A patient with azoospermia wants a child. Best technique is:

(a) ICSI

(b) AI

(c) GIFT

(d) Natural conception

Explanation: ICSI allows a single sperm (even from testicular extraction) to fertilise an egg, making it ideal for azoospermic men. AI, GIFT, or natural conception require multiple motile sperm. Correct answer: a.

7. MCQ - Assertion-Reason

Assertion (A): ICSI is used in severe male infertility.

Reason (R): It allows fertilisation using a single sperm.

(a) Both A and R true, R correct explanation

(b) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation

(c) A true, R false

(d) A false, R true

Explanation: ICSI is indicated for severe male infertility because a single sperm can be injected directly into the egg, ensuring fertilisation. Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason explains the assertion. Correct answer: a.

8. MCQ - Matching Type

Match ART technique with site of fertilisation:

1. ICSI - (a) In vitro

2. AI - (b) Female reproductive tract

3. GIFT - (c) Fallopian tube

4. IVF with embryo transfer - (d) In vitro

Options:

(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

(B) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d

(C) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a

(D) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a

Explanation: Correct matching: ICSI-in vitro, AI-female tract, GIFT-fallopian tube, IVF-in vitro. Answer: A.

9. MCQ - Fill in the Blanks

For a male with very low sperm count, the suitable ART technique is __________.

(a) AI

(b) ICSI

(c) GIFT

(d) IVF

Explanation: ICSI allows fertilisation even with a single sperm by direct injection into the egg, making it suitable for very low sperm count. Other methods require multiple motile sperm. Correct answer: b.

10. MCQ - Choose Correct Statements

Select correct statements about ICSI:

1. Involves single sperm injection

2. Bypasses natural fertilisation

3. Suitable for severe male infertility

4. Fertilisation occurs in fallopian tube

Options:

(A) 1, 2, 3

(B) 2 and 4

(C) 1 and 4

(D) All 1,2,3,4

Explanation: ICSI involves single sperm injection, bypasses natural fertilisation, and is suitable for severe male infertility. Fertilisation occurs in vitro, not in the fallopian tube. Correct answer: A. 

Topic: Contraception

Subtopic: Intrauterine Devices (IUDs)

Keyword Definitions:

• IUD – Intrauterine device, a small device inserted into uterus for birth control.

• Copper IUD – IUD releasing copper ions to prevent pregnancy.

• Ovulation – Release of egg from ovary.

• Sperm motility – Ability of sperm to move efficiently.

• Fertilising capacity – Ability of sperm to fertilize an ovum.

• Gametogenesis – Formation of gametes (sperm or egg).

• Implantation – Embedding of fertilized egg into uterine lining.

• Contraception – Methods to prevent pregnancy.

• Uterus – Female reproductive organ where embryo implants.

• Copper ions – Positively charged copper atoms involved in contraceptive effect.

Lead Question – 2017:

The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUDs is:

(A) They inhibit ovulation

(B) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms

(C) They inhibit gametogenesis

(D) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation

Explanation:

Copper ions released from a copper IUD do not prevent ovulation or gametogenesis. They primarily suppress sperm motility and fertilizing ability, creating a hostile environment for sperm in the uterus and fallopian tubes. Secondary effects may hinder implantation, but the main action is anti-sperm. (Answer: B)

1) Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which is the primary action of copper IUD in contraception?

(A) Ovulation inhibition

(B) Anti-sperm effect

(C) Hormone suppression

(D) Endometrial thickening

Explanation:

Copper IUDs primarily exert an anti-sperm effect by releasing copper ions that reduce sperm motility and fertilizing capacity. They do not prevent ovulation or significantly alter hormones. (Answer: B)

2) Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Copper IUDs are classified under:

(A) Hormonal contraceptives

(B) Barrier contraceptives

(C) Non-hormonal intrauterine devices

(D) Natural family planning methods

Explanation:

Copper IUDs are non-hormonal intrauterine devices. They work via copper ions affecting sperm, without using hormones, differentiating them from hormonal IUDs like levonorgestrel devices. (Answer: C)

3) Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which effect of copper IUD is secondary but contributes to contraceptive efficacy?

(A) Suppressing ovulation

(B) Preventing implantation

(C) Increasing gametogenesis

(D) Enhancing sperm motility

Explanation:

Secondary effects of copper IUD include making the uterus less suitable for implantation by altering endometrial environment. The primary effect remains the anti-sperm action of copper ions. (Answer: B)

4) Single Correct Answer MCQ:

How does copper affect sperm in the female reproductive tract?

(A) Enhances motility

(B) Immobilizes and reduces fertilization capacity

(C) Stimulates acrosome reaction

(D) Promotes gametogenesis

Explanation:

Copper ions immobilize sperm and reduce fertilizing ability in the uterus and fallopian tubes, ensuring sperm cannot efficiently reach or fertilize the ovum. (Answer: B)

5) Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of copper IUDs?

(A) Anti-sperm effect

(B) Ovulation suppression

(C) Local inflammatory response

(D) Hindrance to implantation

Explanation:

Copper IUDs do not inhibit ovulation; their contraceptive mechanisms include anti-sperm effect, local uterine inflammatory response, and possible hindrance to implantation. (Answer: B)

6) Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Copper IUDs can prevent pregnancy for approximately:

(A) 1 month

(B) 6 months

(C) 5–10 years

(D) 20 years

Explanation:

Copper IUDs provide long-term contraception, lasting typically 5–10 years, depending on type and copper content. Their efficacy is maintained by continuous copper ion release. (Answer: C)

7) Assertion-Reason MCQ:

Assertion (A): Copper IUDs suppress sperm motility.

Reason (R): Copper ions are toxic to sperm cells.

(A) Both A and R true, R explains A

(B) Both A and R true, R does not explain A

(C) A true, R false

(D) A false, R true

Explanation:

Both assertion and reason are correct. Copper ions are toxic to sperm cells, causing reduced motility and fertilizing ability. This explains the anti-sperm action of copper IUDs. (Answer: A)

8) Matching Type MCQ:

Match contraceptive device with primary mechanism:

1. Copper IUD – (i) Hormone release

2. Levonorgestrel IUD – (ii) Anti-sperm effect

3. Condom – (iii) Barrier

4. Diaphragm – (iv) Barrier

Options:

(A) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv

(B) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-iii

(C) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii

(D) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii

Explanation:

Correct matching: Copper IUD – anti-sperm effect; Levonorgestrel IUD – hormone release; Condom – barrier; Diaphragm – barrier. (Answer: A)

9) Fill in the Blanks MCQ:

Copper IUDs primarily prevent pregnancy by _________ sperms in the uterus.

(A) Enhancing

(B) Suppressing motility of

(C) Stimulating

(D) Ignoring

Explanation:

Copper ions in IUDs suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity, reducing chances of fertilization. This is the primary contraceptive action. (Answer: B)

10) Choose the correct statements MCQ:

1. Copper IUDs inhibit ovulation.

2. Copper ions reduce sperm motility.

3. Copper IUDs may hinder implantation.

4. Copper IUDs release hormones.

Options:

(A) 1, 2

(B) 2, 3

(C) 1, 3, 4

(D) 2, 4

Explanation:

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Copper IUDs reduce sperm motility and create an environment that may hinder implantation. They do not inhibit ovulation or release hormones. (Answer: B)

Topic: Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)
Subtopic: In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)

• Embryo: Early stage of development after fertilization consisting of multiple cells called blastomeres.

• Blastomeres: Individual cells resulting from cleavage of zygote during early embryonic development.

• In Vitro Fertilization (IVF): Fertilization of an ovum by sperm outside the body in a laboratory.

• Uterus: Female reproductive organ where embryo implantation occurs.

• Fallopian Tube: Tube connecting ovary to uterus, site of natural fertilization.

• Cervix: Lower part of uterus opening into vagina.

• Fimbriae: Finger-like projections at the end of fallopian tubes guiding ovum.

• Clinical Relevance: Correct embryo transfer site is critical for IVF success and implantation.

Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 2): Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilization is transferred into :

1. cervix

2. uterus

3. fallopian tube

4. fimbriae

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Embryos with more than 16 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus to allow implantation. Clinical practice involves careful placement to maximize pregnancy success, avoiding fallopian tube or cervical transfer. IVF success depends on embryo quality, uterine receptivity, and proper embryo handling.

Chapter: Human Reproduction
Topic: Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)
Subtopic: In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)

• IVF: Fertilization of ovum by sperm outside body.

• Embryo Transfer: Placement of embryo into uterus or fallopian tube.

• Blastomere: Cell resulting from cleavage of zygote.

• Uterus: Site for embryo implantation.

• Fallopian Tube: Natural site for fertilization.

• Clinical Relevance: Correct site of embryo transfer increases IVF success rates.

1. Day-3 embryo with 8 blastomeres is usually transferred to:

1. Fallopian tube

2. Uterus

3. Cervix

4. Fimbriae

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Day-3 embryos with 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus. Uterine transfer allows proper implantation and development. Clinically, this site provides optimal endometrial receptivity and avoids ectopic implantation in fallopian tubes or cervix.

2. Cryopreserved embryos are stored in:

1. Liquid nitrogen

2. Incubator at 37°C

3. Formalin solution

4. Saline at room temperature

Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Cryopreserved embryos are stored in liquid nitrogen at -196°C to maintain viability. Clinically, proper cryostorage ensures embryo survival for future IVF cycles without compromising implantation potential.

3. Assisted hatching in IVF is performed to:

1. Increase sperm motility

2. Facilitate embryo implantation

3. Preserve embryo in liquid nitrogen

4. Reduce blastomere number

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Assisted hatching thins the zona pellucida to help embryo implant into uterine lining. Clinically, it improves pregnancy rates in older women or embryos with thick zona pellucida.

4. Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT) differs from standard IVF in that:

1. Fertilization occurs in vitro

2. Embryo is transferred to fallopian tube

3. Embryo transfer occurs to cervix

4. Hormonal stimulation is not used

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). In ZIFT, the fertilized zygote is transferred to the fallopian tube, unlike standard IVF where the embryo is transferred into the uterus. Clinically, ZIFT may benefit patients with tubal issues but is more technically demanding.

5. Blastocyst-stage embryo transfer usually occurs on:

1. Day 2

2. Day 3

3. Day 5

4. Day 7

Explanation: The correct answer is (3). Blastocyst transfer occurs on day 5 after fertilization when the embryo has differentiated into about 100 cells. Clinically, blastocyst transfer increases implantation rates and reduces risk of multiple pregnancies.

6. Controlled ovarian hyperstimulation in IVF aims to:

1. Induce single ovulation

2. Produce multiple mature oocytes

3. Prevent embryo cleavage

4. Enhance sperm motility

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Controlled ovarian hyperstimulation generates multiple mature oocytes for retrieval and fertilization. Clinically, it increases chances of obtaining high-quality embryos for transfer.

7. Assertion (A): Embryos with more than 16 blastomeres are transferred to uterus.
Reason (R): Larger embryos cannot travel through fallopian tubes and require uterine environment for implantation.

1. A is true, R is true, R explains A

2. A is true, R is true, R does not explain A

3. A is true, R is false

4. A is false, R is true

Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Larger embryos with >16 blastomeres are placed in uterus to ensure proper implantation, as they cannot traverse fallopian tubes. Clinically, proper site selection is critical for IVF success and avoiding ectopic pregnancy.

8. Match the IVF stage with its day:

1. Zygote

2. Cleavage-stage embryo

3. Blastocyst

4. Morula

A. Day 5
B. Day 1
C. Day 3
D. Day 4

Explanation: Correct matching: 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D. Zygote forms on day 1, cleavage-stage embryo on day 3, morula on day 4, blastocyst on day 5. Clinically, correct developmental stage ensures proper timing for embryo transfer and implantation success.

9. Fill in the blank: In standard IVF, embryos are transferred into ______ for implantation.

1. Fallopian tube

2. Fimbriae

3. Uterus

4. Cervix

Topic: Male Contraception
Subtopic: Vasectomy

• Vasectomy: Surgical procedure involving cutting and ligating the vasa deferentia to prevent sperm transport.

• Vasa Deferentia: Tubes that carry sperm from epididymis to ejaculatory ducts.

• Sperm Count: Number of sperm present in semen; used to assess fertility.

• Epididymis: Coiled tube storing and maturing sperm before ejaculation.

• Seminal Fluid: Fluid ejaculated during intercourse containing sperm and secretions from accessory glands.

• Irreversible Sterility: Permanent inability to produce offspring after surgery.

• Clinical Relevance: Vasectomy is a reliable male contraceptive; reversal is sometimes possible but not guaranteed.

Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 2): Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy :

1. Irreversible sterility

2. No sperm occurs in seminal fluid

3. No sperm occurs in epididymis

4. Vasa deferentia is cut and tied

Explanation: The correct answer is (3). Sperm still remain in the epididymis after vasectomy; the procedure blocks sperm transport into ejaculate. Semen contains no sperm post-procedure, leading to sterility. Clinically, vasectomy is considered permanent, but residual sperm may persist temporarily, requiring follow-up semen analysis.

Chapter: Reproductive Health
Topic: Male Contraception
Subtopic: Vasectomy

• Vasectomy: Surgical sterilization procedure in males.

• Vasa Deferentia: Transport sperm from epididymis to urethra.

• Epididymis: Sperm maturation and storage site.

• Semen: Ejaculate containing sperm and accessory gland secretions.

• Sperm Count: Evaluates male fertility status.

• Irreversible Sterility: Permanent contraceptive effect post-surgery.

1. Vasectomy primarily blocks:

1. Epididymal sperm production

2. Transport of sperm through vasa deferentia

3. Testicular hormone secretion

4. Accessory gland secretions

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Vasectomy blocks the vasa deferentia, preventing sperm transport to the urethra. Sperm are still produced in the testes and stored in epididymis. Clinically, this ensures effective male contraception without affecting hormone levels.

2. Time required for complete azoospermia after vasectomy is:

1. Immediately

2. 1-3 months

3. 6 months

4. 1 year

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Residual sperm remain in epididymis post-vasectomy; complete azoospermia usually occurs after 1-3 months. Clinically, semen analysis is performed before considering contraception fully effective.

3. Vasectomy affects which of the following:

1. Testosterone production

2. Sperm transport only

3. Accessory gland secretions

4. Sexual desire

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Vasectomy blocks sperm transport without affecting testosterone production, accessory gland function, or libido. Clinically, patients maintain normal sexual function while achieving permanent contraception.

4. Most common method to confirm sterility after vasectomy is:

1. Testicular biopsy

2. Semen analysis

3. Ultrasound of epididymis

4. Hormone assay

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Semen analysis detects absence of sperm post-vasectomy, confirming sterility. Clinically, two consecutive azoospermic semen samples are recommended before discontinuing alternative contraception.

5. Vasectomy reversal may involve:

1. Reconnection of vasa deferentia

2. Hormone therapy

3. Removal of epididymis

4. Testicular transplant

Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Vasovasostomy reconnects cut vasa deferentia to restore sperm transport. Clinically, reversal success depends on duration since vasectomy and presence of epididymal blockage.

6. A possible early complication of vasectomy is:

1. Testicular failure

2. Semen infection

3. Hematoma or scrotal swelling

4. Impotence

Explanation: The correct answer is (3). Hematoma or scrotal swelling can occur shortly after vasectomy. Clinically, proper surgical technique and post-operative care minimize complications and ensure patient comfort and safety.

7. Assertion (A): Vasectomy leads to permanent male sterility.
Reason (R): Vasa deferentia are cut and ligated, preventing sperm transport.

1. A is true, R is true, R explains A

2. A is true, R is true, R does not explain A

3. A is true, R is false

4. A is false, R is true

Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Vasectomy causes permanent sterility by cutting and tying vasa deferentia, preventing sperm from entering semen. Clinically, residual sperm may persist temporarily, but long-term effect is permanent contraception.

8. Match the procedure with its effect:

1. Vasectomy

2. Castration

3. Orchiectomy

4. Vasovasostomy

A. Restores sperm transport
B. Removal of testes
C. Permanent contraception without affecting hormones
D. Removes testosterone production source

Explanation: Correct matching: 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A. Vasectomy prevents sperm transport but preserves testosterone, castration removes testes reducing hormone, orchiectomy removes testes, vasovasostomy reconnects vasa deferentia to restore fertility. Clinically, understanding effects helps counsel patients.

9. Fill in the blank: Sperm produced in testes after vasectomy are stored in ______.

1. Seminal vesicles

2. Epididymis

3. Prostate

4. Vasa deferentia

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Sperm continue to be produced and stored in epididymis after vasectomy but cannot enter semen. Clinically, repeated ejaculations help clear residual sperm to achieve effective azoospermia.

10. Choose correct statements about vasectomy:

1. Vasa deferentia is cut and tied

2. Seminal fluid contains no sperm after complete recovery

3. Sperm are absent in epididymis immediately

4. Testosterone production continues normally

Topic: Contraception
Subtopic: Intrauterine Contraceptive Devices (IUCDs)

• IUCD (Intrauterine Contraceptive Device): A small device inserted into uterus to prevent pregnancy.

• Hormone-Releasing IUCD: IUCD that releases levonorgestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus.

• Cu7: Copper-containing IUCD providing contraception by toxic effect on sperm.

• LNG-20: Levonorgestrel-releasing IUCD, also called hormone-releasing IUCD.

• Multiload 375: Copper IUCD with multiload design.

• Lippes Loop: Non-hormonal plastic IUCD.

• Clinical Relevance: Choice of IUCD depends on patient needs, side effects, and hormone sensitivity.

Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 2): Which of the following is hormone releasing IUCD :

1. Cu7

2. LNG-20

3. Multiload 375

4. Lippes loop

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). LNG-20 is a hormone-releasing IUCD that continuously releases levonorgestrel, thickening cervical mucus, inhibiting sperm motility, and partially suppressing ovulation. Clinically, LNG-20 is preferred for patients requiring hormonal contraception with reduced menstrual bleeding and minimal systemic hormone exposure.

Chapter: Reproductive Health
Topic: Contraception
Subtopic: Intrauterine Contraceptive Devices (IUCDs)

• IUCD: Device placed in uterus for birth control.

• Hormone-Releasing IUCD: Releases levonorgestrel to prevent pregnancy.

• Copper IUCD: Uses copper ions to inhibit sperm.

• LNG-20: Hormonal IUCD releasing levonorgestrel.

• Multiload 375: Copper IUCD with T-shaped design.

• Lippes Loop: Plastic non-hormonal IUCD.

1. Primary mechanism of Cu7 IUCD is:

1. Releases hormones

2. Prevents ovulation

3. Exerts spermicidal effect via copper ions

4. Thickens cervical mucus

Explanation: The correct answer is (3). Cu7 is a copper IUCD, acting by releasing copper ions that are toxic to sperm, preventing fertilization. Clinically, it is suitable for women who prefer non-hormonal contraception and is effective for up to 10 years.

2. Hormone released by LNG-20 is:

1. Estrogen

2. Levonorgestrel

3. Progesterone only

4. Testosterone

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). LNG-20 releases levonorgestrel, a synthetic progestin that thickens cervical mucus, suppresses sperm function, and partially inhibits ovulation. Clinically, it reduces menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhea, offering both contraceptive and therapeutic benefits.

3. Multiload 375 IUCD primarily acts via:

1. Hormonal suppression of ovulation

2. Copper ion release

3. Mechanical blockage only

4. Altering endometrial hormones

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Multiload 375 is a copper IUCD releasing copper ions, which inhibit sperm motility and viability. Clinically, it is preferred in non-hormonal contraception and suitable for women avoiding systemic hormones.

4. Lippes Loop IUCD is:

1. Hormone-releasing

2. Plastic non-hormonal

3. Copper-based

4. Not used for contraception

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Lippes Loop is a plastic non-hormonal IUCD providing mechanical prevention of fertilization. Clinically, it is less commonly used today due to modern T-shaped copper or hormonal IUCDs with better efficacy and fewer complications.

5. Main advantage of hormone-releasing IUCD over copper IUCD is:

1. Reduced menstrual bleeding

2. Longer duration of action

3. No side effects

4. Immediate fertility return

Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Hormone-releasing IUCD like LNG-20 reduces menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhea due to local progestin effect. Clinically, it is suitable for women with heavy periods and offers reversible contraception with minimal systemic hormonal exposure.

6. Duration of efficacy of LNG-20 IUCD is approximately:

1. 1 year

2. 3-5 years

3. 10 years

4. Lifetime

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). LNG-20 provides effective contraception for 3-5 years. Clinically, regular follow-up is recommended to ensure placement, monitor bleeding patterns, and prevent expulsion or infection.

7. Assertion (A): LNG-20 IUCD is preferred for heavy menstrual bleeding.
Reason (R): Levonorgestrel thickens cervical mucus and suppresses endometrial growth.

1. A is true, R is true, R explains A

2. A is true, R is true, R does not explain A

3. A is true, R is false

4. A is false, R is true

Explanation: The correct answer is (1). LNG-20 reduces menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhea by local endometrial suppression and cervical mucus thickening. Clinically, it is suitable for women with menorrhagia requiring reversible contraception, demonstrating both contraceptive and therapeutic benefits.

8. Match IUCD types with their mechanism:

1. LNG-20

2. Cu7

3. Multiload 375

4. Lippes Loop

A. Mechanical and copper ion toxicity
B. Hormone release (levonorgestrel)
C. Copper-based spermicidal action
D. Plastic mechanical prevention

Explanation: Correct matching: 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D. LNG-20 releases levonorgestrel, Cu7 has copper ion spermicidal effect, Multiload 375 is copper IUCD, Lippes Loop provides mechanical contraception. Clinically, choosing the IUCD depends on patient preference, bleeding patterns, and hormone tolerance.

9. Fill in the blank: The hormone released by LNG-20 IU

Keywords:

• Contraception: Methods to prevent pregnancy.

• Barrier methods: Prevent sperm from reaching ovum (e.g., condoms, diaphragms).

• Intrauterine devices (IUDs): T-shaped devices placed in uterus to prevent fertilization or implantation.

• Hormonal contraceptives: Pills, injections, or implants that prevent ovulation or fertilization.

• Vasectomy: Surgical procedure in males that blocks sperm transport.

• Spermatogenesis: Production of sperm in testes.

• Ovulation: Release of ovum from ovary.

• Phagocytosis of sperms: Destruction of sperm cells by immune cells.

• Fertilization: Fusion of sperm and ovum to form zygote.

• Preventive action: Mechanism through which contraceptive method works.

• Implantation: Attachment of fertilized ovum to uterine wall.

Chapter: Reproductive Health

Topic: Contraceptive Methods

Subtopic: Mechanism of Action

Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 1): Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?

(1) Barrier methods - Prevent fertilization
(2) Intra uterine devices - Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms
(3) Hormonal contraceptives - Prevent/retard entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilization
(4) Vasectomy - Prevents spermatogenesis

Answer: 4

Explanation: Vasectomy prevents transport of sperm by cutting the vas deferens, but spermatogenesis continues. The other methods act as described: barrier methods block sperm, IUDs affect sperm motility and survival, hormonal contraceptives prevent ovulation and fertilization.

1. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which contraceptive method primarily prevents sperm from entering the uterus?

(A) Barrier methods
(B) Hormonal contraceptives
(C) IUDs
(D) Vasectomy

Answer: A

Explanation: Barrier methods like condoms and diaphragms physically block sperm from reaching the ovum, providing immediate contraceptive protection without affecting ovulation or sperm production.

2. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Hormonal contraceptives prevent pregnancy by:

(A) Blocking sperm transport
(B) Suppressing ovulation
(C) Increasing sperm phagocytosis
(D) Blocking implantation only

Answer: B

Explanation: Hormonal contraceptives, such as combined oral pills, suppress ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins. They may also thicken cervical mucus, but their primary mechanism is to prevent release of the ovum.

3. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which contraceptive does not interfere with spermatogenesis?

(A) Vasectomy
(B) Hormonal contraceptives
(C) IUD
(D) Barrier methods

Answer: A

Explanation: Vasectomy blocks sperm transport but does not affect spermatogenesis. Sperms are still produced in testes but cannot reach ejaculate, making the method effective without altering sperm formation.

4. Single Correct Answer MCQ: IUD prevents fertilization by:

(A) Suppressing ovulation
(B) Blocking sperm physically
(C) Affecting sperm motility and survival
(D) Cutting vas deferens

Answer: C

Explanation: Intrauterine devices create a localized uterine environment that reduces sperm motility and survival. They may also increase phagocytosis of sperm, preventing fertilization effectively.

5. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which method is considered permanent contraception in males?

(A) Vasectomy
(B) Condom
(C) IUD
(D) Hormonal injection

Answer: A

Explanation: Vasectomy is a surgical, permanent method where the vas deferens is cut or sealed to prevent sperm from entering ejaculate. Other methods are temporary.

6. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Barrier methods work by:

(A) Suppressing ovulation
(B) Physically preventing sperm entry
(C) Increasing phagocytosis of sperms
(D) Altering spermatogenesis

Answer: B

Explanation: Barrier methods like condoms create a physical barrier between sperm and ovum, preventing fertilization without affecting hormone levels or gamete formation.

7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Hormonal contraceptives prevent ovulation.
Reason (R): They inhibit gonadotropin release from pituitary gland.

(A) Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, R is NOT correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, R is false
(D) A is false, R is true

Answer: A

Explanation: Hormonal contraceptives release estrogen and progesterone analogs, which inhibit the pituitary release of FSH and LH, preventing follicle development and ovulation.

8. Matching Type MCQ: Match method with mechanism:

1. Barrier methods   A. Suppress ovulation
2. IUD   B. Physical blockage
3. Hormonal contraceptives   C. Block sperm motility/survival
4. Vasectomy   D. Prevents sperm transport

(A) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
(B) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
(C) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
(D) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C

Answer: A

Explanation: Barrier methods block sperm, IUDs affect sperm motility and survival, hormonal contraceptives suppress ovulation, and vasectomy prevents sperm transport.

9. Fill in the Blanks: ________ prevents ovulation, while ________ prevents sperm from entering female reproductive tract.

(A) Hormonal contraceptives; Barrier methods
(B) IUD; Vasectomy
(C) Vasectomy; Hormonal contraceptives
(D) IUD; Hormonal contraceptives

Answer: A

Explanation: Hormonal contraceptives prevent ovulation by inhibiting FSH and LH, whereas barrier methods physically prevent sperm from entering the female reproductive tract, stopping fertilization.

10. Choose the Correct Statements:
(A) Vasectomy stops sperm production
(B) IUD affects sperm motility
(C) Hormonal contraceptives prevent ovulation
(D) Barrier methods physically block sperm

(1) B, C, D
(2) A, B, C
(3) A, C, D
(4) All are correct

Answer: 1

Explanation: Vasectomy blocks sperm transport, not production. IUDs reduce sperm motility and survival, hormonal contraceptives prevent ovulation, and barrier methods prevent sperm entry physically.

Chapter: Human Reproduction
Topic: Reproductive Health
Subtopic: Amniocentesis and Prenatal Diagnosis

Keywords:

• Amniocentesis – Medical technique in which a small sample of amniotic fluid is withdrawn to study fetal cells.

• Down Syndrome – Genetic disorder caused by trisomy of chromosome 21, leading to developmental delay.

• Cleft Palate – Structural birth defect involving incomplete fusion of the palate, not detected by amniocentesis.

• Prenatal Diagnosis – Testing done before birth to detect genetic or chromosomal abnormalities.

• Chromosomal Abnormalities – Disorders caused by changes in number or structure of chromosomes.

• Karyotyping – Laboratory technique to visualize chromosomes for diagnosing abnormalities.

• Genetic Counselling – Medical advice to families about risks of inherited disorders.

• Fetal Cells – Cells collected from amniotic fluid used for genetic studies.

• Trisomy – Condition where an extra chromosome is present, e.g., Down syndrome.

• Ethical Issues – Concerns regarding misuse of medical techniques like sex determination.

Lead Question – 2016 (Phase 1)

In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect:

(1) It is usually done when a woman is between 14 -16 weeks pregnant.
(2) It is used for prenatal sex determination
(3) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome.
(4) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate.

Explanation: Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic tool used between 14–16 weeks for detecting chromosomal abnormalities like Down syndrome. It cannot diagnose structural anomalies like cleft palate. Using it for sex determination is illegal in India. Answer: (4) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate.

Question 2. Amniocentesis is most useful for detecting:

(1) Genetic disorders
(2) Infectious diseases
(3) Nutritional deficiencies
(4) Hormonal imbalance

Explanation: Amniocentesis helps in detecting chromosomal and genetic disorders by analyzing fetal cells present in amniotic fluid. It does not detect nutritional, infectious, or hormonal issues. Answer: (1) Genetic disorders.

Question 3. A 35-year-old pregnant woman is at increased risk of having a child with:

(1) Turner syndrome
(2) Down syndrome
(3) Klinefelter syndrome
(4) Edward syndrome

Explanation: Advanced maternal age increases the risk of nondisjunction during meiosis, leading to trisomy 21, or Down syndrome. This risk increases significantly after 35 years of age. Answer: (2) Down syndrome.

Question 4. Assertion (A): Amniocentesis can detect chromosomal abnormalities.
Reason (R): Fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid are analyzed for karyotyping.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

Explanation: Amniocentesis relies on fetal cells collected from amniotic fluid. Karyotyping reveals chromosomal abnormalities like trisomy. Thus, R correctly explains A. Answer: (1).

Question 5. Match the following:

A. Amniocentesis → (i) Fetal cells in fluid
B. Chorionic villus sampling → (ii) Placental tissue
C. Ultrasound → (iii) Detects structural defects
D. Genetic counselling → (iv) Risk assessment

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

Explanation: Amniocentesis uses amniotic fluid, CVS uses placental tissue, ultrasound detects structural anomalies, and genetic counselling provides risk analysis. Answer: (1).

Question 6. Which of the following is a limitation of amniocentesis?

(1) Risk of miscarriage
(2) Cannot detect genetic disorders
(3) Detects only nutritional disorders
(4) It is performed during delivery

Explanation: Amniocentesis is generally safe but carries a small risk of miscarriage. It is reliable for genetic diagnosis but cannot detect conditions like cleft palate. Answer: (1) Risk of miscarriage.

Question 7. Fill in the blank: The chromosomal abnormality in Down syndrome is ________.

(1) Monosomy 21
(2) Trisomy 21
(3) Trisomy 18
(4) Monosomy X

Explanation: Down syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 21, where an extra chromosome leads to developmental and intellectual disability. Answer: (2) Trisomy 21.

Question 8. A pregnant woman with an amniocentesis report showing 47 chromosomes, including three copies of chromosome 21, is most likely advised:

(1) No further action
(2) Genetic counselling about Down syndrome
(3) Supplementing diet with vitamins
(4) Surgery to repair cleft palate

Explanation: If amniocentesis reveals trisomy 21, the woman is counselled about the risks, prognosis, and options. No dietary or surgical intervention can correct the chromosomal defect prenatally. Answer: (2) Genetic counselling about Down syndrome.

Question 9. Passage-based MCQ:
"Amniocentesis is a prenatal test where amniotic fluid is analyzed for fetal cells. It helps detect genetic disorders like Down syndrome, Turner syndrome, and Klinefelter syndrome. However, it cannot detect external structural defects like cleft palate."

Which of the following is correct?

(1) Amniocentesis detects cleft palate
(2) Amniocentesis helps in diagnosing chromosomal disorders
(3) Amniocentesis is used only at birth
(4) Amniocentesis cannot detect Down syndrome

Explanation: Amniocentesis is mainly used to detect chromosomal abnormalities and genetic conditions before birth. It is not used for structural defects like cleft palate. Answer: (2) Amniocentesis helps in diagnosing chromosomal disorders.

Question 10. Who is legally restricted from requesting prenatal sex determination via amniocentesis in India?

(1) Doctors
(2) Parents
(3) Genetic counsellors
(4) All of the above

Explanation: The PCPNDT Act prohibits the use of amniocentesis for sex determination. Neither doctors, parents, nor counsellors are legally allowed to request this purpose. It is only allowed for detecting abnormalities. Answer: (4) All of the above.