Reproductive Health

Topic: Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART); Subtopic: In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)

Keyword Definitions:
• IVF (In Vitro Fertilization): A process where eggs are fertilized by sperm outside the body and then implanted into the uterus.
• Embryo: Early developmental stage formed after fertilization of egg by sperm.
• Donors: Individuals providing gametes (sperms or eggs) for fertilization.
• Adoption: Legal process of taking another’s child and raising it as one’s own.
• Reagents: Substances used in laboratory reactions, including in IVF procedures.
• Fertilization: Fusion of sperm and ovum forming a zygote.

Lead Question - 2025
What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?
A. High fatality risk to mother
B. Expensive instruments and reagents
C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors
D. Less adoption of orphans
E. Not available in India
F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) B, D, F only
(2) A, C, D, F only
(3) A, B, C, D only
(4) A, B, C, E, F only

Explanation:
IVF drawbacks include its high cost due to expensive reagents and instruments, lower social adoption because it reduces orphan adoption rates, and the risk that the early embryo might not survive. However, IVF is safely available in India with minimal maternal risk. Hence, the correct answer is (1) B, D, F only.

1. Which hormone is commonly used to stimulate ovulation during IVF treatment?
(1) Progesterone
(2) Luteinizing hormone
(3) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
(4) Oxytocin
Explanation:
FSH is used in IVF to stimulate the ovaries to produce multiple mature eggs for retrieval. This enhances fertilization chances. Progesterone supports implantation, but it does not initiate ovulation. LH acts naturally but less effectively in induced cycles. Hence, (3) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is correct.

2. The fertilization in IVF occurs
(1) In uterus
(2) In fallopian tube
(3) In culture dish outside the body
(4) In cervix
Explanation:
In IVF, fertilization takes place in a culture dish under laboratory conditions. The egg and sperm are combined outside the body to form a zygote. This embryo is then transferred into the uterus for implantation. Therefore, the correct answer is (3) In culture dish outside the body.

3. Which of the following is a common success-limiting factor in IVF?
(1) Poor sperm motility
(2) High blood sugar
(3) Low calcium level
(4) Overactive thyroid
Explanation:
Poor sperm motility limits the ability of sperm to fertilize the egg during IVF. The sperm’s movement is essential for successful fertilization in vitro. Other options may affect fertility but are less direct in IVF outcomes. Hence, (1) Poor sperm motility is correct.

4. Which of the following is used to check early pregnancy success after IVF?
(1) LH test
(2) Beta-hCG test
(3) FSH test
(4) Thyroid test
Explanation:
After IVF, successful implantation is confirmed by measuring β-hCG (beta-human chorionic gonadotropin) levels in blood or urine. This hormone is secreted only after implantation, indicating pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is (2) Beta-hCG test.

5. The success of IVF largely depends on
(1) The donor’s age
(2) The fertility of both gametes
(3) The hormone level of the mother
(4) All of the above
Explanation:
IVF success depends on several factors including maternal age, quality of eggs and sperm, and hormonal balance for implantation. A decline in gamete quality with age reduces success rates. Hence, all these factors influence IVF outcomes, making (4) All of the above correct.

6. Which part of the female reproductive system receives the embryo during IVF?
(1) Vagina
(2) Uterus
(3) Fallopian tube
(4) Cervix
Explanation:
In IVF, the embryo formed outside the body is transferred into the uterus where it implants and develops. The uterine wall is designed to nourish the growing embryo. Hence, (2) Uterus is correct.

Assertion-Reason Question
7. Assertion (A): IVF is an advanced technique to help infertile couples conceive.
Reason (R): It involves fertilization within the female body.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
Explanation:
IVF helps infertile couples conceive by fertilizing the egg and sperm outside the body in a lab. The resulting embryo is transferred to the uterus. Therefore, (A) is true, but (R) is false. Correct answer is (3).

Matching Type Question
8. Match the following:
List I – Process
A. Ovulation induction
B. Fertilization
C. Embryo culture
D. Embryo transfer
List II – Location
(1) Ovary
(2) Laboratory dish
(3) Uterus
(4) Incubator
(a) A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3
(b) A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4
(c) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1
(d) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2
Explanation:
Ovulation induction occurs in the ovary, fertilization takes place in a lab dish, embryo culture is maintained in an incubator, and embryo transfer occurs into the uterus. Hence, correct matching is (a) A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3.

Fill in the Blanks Question
9. The enzyme that helps the sperm to penetrate the ovum during IVF is ________.
(1) Hyaluronidase
(2) Pepsin
(3) Trypsin
(4) Lipase
Explanation:
The enzyme hyaluronidase, present in the sperm’s acrosome, digests the hyaluronic acid surrounding the ovum, allowing sperm penetration. This facilitates fertilization both naturally and during IVF. Hence, (1) Hyaluronidase is correct.

Choose the Correct Statements Question
10. Statement I: IVF allows conception outside the body.
Statement II: IVF does not require gametes for fertilization.
(1) Both statements are true
(2) Both statements are false
(3) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
Explanation:
IVF allows conception outside the female body using collected eggs and sperm. Gametes are essential for fertilization. Therefore, Statement I is true, and Statement II is false. Correct answer: (3).

Topic: Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART); Subtopic: Techniques and Applications in Fertility Treatment

Keyword Definitions:

• ART (Assisted Reproductive Technology): Medical procedures that aid in achieving pregnancy by handling gametes outside the body.

• IVF (In Vitro Fertilization): Fertilization of egg and sperm outside the body followed by embryo transfer.

• GIFT (Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer): Transfer of gametes directly into the fallopian tubes for fertilization.

• IUI (Intrauterine Insemination): Placement of semen directly into the uterus using a catheter.

• IUD (Intrauterine Device): A contraceptive device inserted into the uterus to prevent fertilization or implantation.

Lead Question - 2024 (Jhajjhar)

Which of the following is NOT an example of assisted reproductive technology (ART)?

1. IVF

2. GIFT

3. IUI

4. IUD

Explanation:

ART includes techniques that assist infertile couples to conceive by manipulating gametes or embryos outside the body. IVF, GIFT, and IUI are examples of ART used to overcome infertility. However, an IUD is a contraceptive device used to prevent pregnancy, not to assist conception. Hence, the correct answer is 4. IUD. It works by preventing implantation or sperm fertilization.

Guessed Questions:

1. Which of the following ART techniques involves fertilization outside the body followed by embryo transfer?

1. IVF

2. GIFT

3. ICSI

4. AIH

Explanation:

In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) is a process where sperm and egg are fertilized in a laboratory dish, and the resulting zygote is cultured before being transferred into the uterus. This technique is commonly used to overcome blocked fallopian tubes or male infertility. Hence, the correct answer is 1. IVF, also known as the “test tube baby” method.

2. GIFT technique involves:

1. Transfer of zygote into fallopian tube

2. Transfer of gametes into fallopian tube

3. Transfer of embryo into uterus

4. Transfer of sperm into cervix

Explanation:

Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) involves directly placing both sperm and ovum into the fallopian tube to allow fertilization inside the female reproductive tract. This technique is useful when the fallopian tubes are functional but fertilization fails naturally. Hence, the correct answer is 2. Transfer of gametes into fallopian tube. It maintains natural fertilization inside the body.

3. Which of the following methods is used to treat low sperm count or poor sperm motility?

1. IUD

2. IUI

3. MTP

4. IVF

Explanation:

Intrauterine Insemination (IUI) helps overcome male infertility by directly placing concentrated sperm into the uterus, bypassing barriers like cervical mucus. It increases the chances of fertilization when sperm motility is low. Hence, the correct answer is 2. IUI. This simple and less invasive ART technique enhances natural conception probability.

4. Which of the following is a contraceptive method, not a fertility treatment?

1. IUI

2. GIFT

3. IUD

4. IVF

Explanation:

An Intrauterine Device (IUD) is a long-term reversible contraceptive placed inside the uterus to prevent sperm fertilization or embryo implantation. It is not a fertility-enhancing method but prevents conception. Hence, the correct answer is 3. IUD. Examples include copper-T and hormonal devices used for family planning.

5. Which hormone is primarily used for ovulation induction during IVF?

1. LH

2. FSH

3. Progesterone

4. Prolactin

Explanation:

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) is used to stimulate the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles before egg retrieval in IVF. Controlled ovarian hyperstimulation ensures multiple mature eggs for fertilization. Hence, the correct answer is 2. FSH. This hormone is vital for successful ART cycles as it increases egg availability.

6. Which ART technique involves the injection of a single sperm into an ovum?

1. IVF

2. IUI

3. ICSI

4. GIFT

Explanation:

Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) involves directly injecting one sperm into an ovum under a microscope. It is used in severe male infertility cases where sperm count or motility is extremely low. Hence, the correct answer is 3. ICSI. This advanced ART method significantly enhances fertilization success when conventional IVF fails.

7. (Assertion-Reason Type)

Assertion (A): IVF helps couples with blocked fallopian tubes conceive.

Reason (R): Fertilization occurs outside the body and the embryo is transferred into the uterus.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

3. A is true, but R is false.

4. A is false, but R is true.

Explanation:

IVF enables fertilization outside the body in a laboratory dish. It is especially useful for women with blocked or damaged fallopian tubes, as embryo transfer bypasses the natural route. Thus, both statements are true, and R correctly explains A. Hence, the correct answer is 1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

8. (Matching Type)

Match List-I with List-II:

A. IVF — i. Fertilization outside the body

B. ICSI — ii. Direct sperm injection into ovum

C. GIFT — iii. Transfer of gametes into fallopian tube

D. IUD — iv. Prevents implantation

1. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

2. A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

3. A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

4. A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

Explanation:

IVF involves external fertilization, ICSI injects sperm directly into the ovum, GIFT transfers gametes into the fallopian tube, and IUD prevents implantation. Hence, the correct answer is 1. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv. Each represents distinct reproductive or contraceptive technology for managing fertility or preventing conception.

9. (Fill in the Blanks)

The process of directly injecting a sperm into an ovum is known as __________.

1. IVF

2. ICSI

3. IUI

4. GIFT

Explanation:

Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) is a specialized ART technique used when sperm quality or quantity is poor. A single sperm is microinjected into an egg, followed by embryo transfer. This method significantly improves fertilization chances. Hence, the correct answer is 2. ICSI. It is a breakthrough advancement in treating severe male infertility.

10. (Choose the Correct Statements)

Statement I: IUD prevents fertilization or implantation.

Statement II: IUD is a form of assisted reproductive technology.

1. Both statements are true.

2. Both statements are false.

3. Statement I is true, Statement II is false.

4. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.

Explanation:

IUDs prevent fertilization or implantation by altering the uterine environment. They are used for contraception, not for aiding reproduction. Hence, Statement I is true, while Statement II is false. The correct answer is 3. Statement I is true, Statement II is false. IUDs are part of birth control, not ART procedures.

Subtopic: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)

Keyword Definitions:

• MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy): The intentional termination of pregnancy before the fetus becomes viable, performed using medication or surgical procedures.

• Oral pills: Drugs like mifepristone and misoprostol used to induce abortion in early stages of pregnancy.

• Trimester: A period of three months of pregnancy, divided into three phases for medical evaluation.

• Embryo viability: The stage when the fetus can survive outside the womb, usually after 24 weeks.

Lead Question - 2024 (Jhajjhar)
MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) with oral pills is considered relatively safe upto:
1. 7–9 weeks of pregnancy
2. 15–18 weeks of pregnancy
3. 20–24 weeks of pregnancy
4. 28–30 weeks of pregnancy
Explanation: Medical abortion using oral pills like mifepristone and misoprostol is safe and effective up to 7–9 weeks of pregnancy. These drugs block progesterone and induce uterine contractions, leading to expulsion of the embryo. Beyond this period, surgical methods like vacuum aspiration are recommended for safety and completeness. (Answer: 1)

1. Which hormone is primarily inhibited by MTP oral pills?
1. Estrogen
2. Progesterone
3. FSH
4. LH
Explanation: Oral pills like mifepristone act by blocking progesterone receptors, preventing maintenance of pregnancy. Progesterone is crucial for uterine lining support; its inhibition causes endometrial breakdown and expulsion of the embryo. Misoprostol enhances uterine contractions to complete the process safely. (Answer: 2)

2. The combination of mifepristone and misoprostol is used because:
1. Both are prostaglandins
2. Mifepristone sensitizes uterus to misoprostol
3. Misoprostol blocks estrogen receptors
4. Both suppress FSH
Explanation: Mifepristone blocks progesterone receptors, weakening the uterine lining, while misoprostol, a prostaglandin analog, induces contractions. This combination ensures complete expulsion of the embryo within early pregnancy. The dual action increases efficacy and minimizes the need for surgical intervention. (Answer: 2)

3. MTP is legally allowed in India up to which week under special conditions?
1. 12 weeks
2. 20 weeks
3. 24 weeks
4. 30 weeks
Explanation: The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021, allows abortion up to 24 weeks under specific conditions such as fetal abnormalities or rape cases. For regular cases, up to 20 weeks is permitted with medical approval. Beyond that, it requires legal and medical board consent. (Answer: 3)

4. Surgical MTP beyond 9 weeks is commonly performed using:
1. Laparoscopy
2. Vacuum aspiration
3. Hysterectomy
4. Caesarean section
Explanation: Beyond 9 weeks, surgical methods like vacuum aspiration or dilation and curettage are used for safe pregnancy termination. Vacuum aspiration is preferred up to 14 weeks, as it’s less invasive and efficient. It removes the uterine contents by gentle suction without damaging the uterine wall. (Answer: 2)

5. Excessive and unsafe MTP practices mainly cause:
1. Endometriosis
2. Infertility and infection
3. Hyperovulation
4. Multiple pregnancy
Explanation: Unsafe or repeated abortions can lead to uterine scarring, infections, and infertility. Improper hygiene and unqualified handling increase risk of pelvic inflammatory disease. Hence, MTP should always be performed under expert supervision using approved techniques and sterile conditions. (Answer: 2)

6. Which act governs MTP legality in India?
1. Population Control Act
2. Prenatal Diagnostic Act
3. Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act
4. Family Welfare Act
Explanation: The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 (amended in 2021), regulates abortion in India, ensuring safety and legality. It allows abortion under medical supervision for specific causes like unwanted pregnancy, health risk, or fetal defects. It safeguards women’s health and reproductive rights. (Answer: 3)

Assertion–Reason Question
7. Assertion (A): Medical abortion is most effective within the first trimester.
Reason (R): Oral contraceptives enhance uterine contractility.
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.
Explanation: Medical abortion is effective during the first trimester because drugs like mifepristone and misoprostol act efficiently on the small, early-stage embryo. However, oral contraceptives do not cause uterine contractions; they prevent ovulation. Thus, R is false. (Answer: 3)

Matching Type Question
8. Match the following:
A. Mifepristone — i. Progesterone antagonist
B. Misoprostol — ii. Prostaglandin analog
C. Vacuum aspiration — iii. Surgical abortion
D. Dilation and curettage — iv. Late abortion method
1. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
2. A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
3. A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
4. A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
Explanation: Mifepristone blocks progesterone (A-i), misoprostol mimics prostaglandins (B-ii), vacuum aspiration is a surgical technique (C-iii), and dilation and curettage is used for late or incomplete abortions (D-iv). This combination ensures safe termination depending on the pregnancy duration. (Answer: 1)

Fill in the Blanks / Completion Question
9. Medical abortion pills act by blocking the hormone ________, essential for pregnancy maintenance.
1. Estrogen
2. Progesterone
3. FSH
4. LH
Explanation: Medical abortion primarily depends on inhibition of progesterone by mifepristone. Progesterone maintains the uterine lining; its inhibition disrupts embryo attachment and survival. Misoprostol follows to cause contractions, completing the abortion process effectively. (Answer: 2)

Choose the Correct Statements
10. Statement I: MTP prevents maternal mortality due to unsafe abortions.
Statement II: MTP is medically unsafe during the first trimester.
1. Both statements are correct.
2. Both statements are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
Explanation: Legal MTP reduces maternal mortality by avoiding unsafe practices and ensuring safe procedures under medical supervision. It is considered safest in the first trimester as drugs work efficiently. Hence, Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. (Answer: 3)

Topic: Contraceptive Methods; Subtopic: Natural and Artificial Methods of Birth Control

Keyword Definitions:
• Contraception: Prevention of pregnancy by interfering with fertilization or implantation.
• Natural methods: Birth control methods that rely on natural physiological changes, such as periodic abstinence and coitus interruptus.
• Barrier methods: Physical devices preventing sperm entry into the uterus, e.g., condoms, diaphragms, vaults.
• Lactational amenorrhea: Temporary infertility during breastfeeding due to hormonal suppression of ovulation.
• Vaults: Vaginal barriers preventing sperm from reaching the cervix.
• Periodic abstinence: Avoiding intercourse during the fertile period of the menstrual cycle.
• Coitus interruptus: Withdrawal of the penis before ejaculation to prevent sperm deposition.
• Hormonal methods: Use of hormones to prevent ovulation or implantation.

Lead Question (2024):
Which of the following is not a natural / traditional contraceptive method?
(1) Periodic abstinence
(2) Lactational amenorrhea
(3) Vaults
(4) Coitus interruptus

Explanation: Natural or traditional methods rely on physiological principles such as timing or hormonal suppression, including periodic abstinence, coitus interruptus, and lactational amenorrhea. Vaults, however, are barrier devices placed inside the vagina to prevent sperm entry. They are artificial, not natural methods. Hence, the correct answer is (3). Natural methods are cost-effective and free from side effects.

1. Which of the following is a hormonal contraceptive method?
(1) Condom
(2) Copper-T
(3) Oral pills
(4) Diaphragm

Explanation: Oral contraceptive pills contain synthetic estrogen and progesterone that inhibit ovulation and prevent conception. Unlike condoms or diaphragms (barrier methods), these pills act hormonally. Copper-T is an intrauterine device that affects sperm motility. Thus, the correct answer is (3). Hormonal methods are reversible and provide effective temporary contraception.

2. Lactational amenorrhea is effective up to how many months after childbirth?
(1) 3 months
(2) 6 months
(3) 9 months
(4) 12 months

Explanation: Lactational amenorrhea remains effective for up to six months after childbirth if the mother exclusively breastfeeds. Elevated prolactin levels suppress ovulation, reducing chances of conception. After six months, ovulation may resume unpredictably. Hence, the correct answer is (2). It is an effective, natural, and temporary method of contraception without side effects.

3. Which of the following is a temporary method of contraception?
(1) Tubectomy
(2) Vasectomy
(3) Condom
(4) None of these

Explanation: Condoms are temporary contraceptive methods that physically block sperm from entering the female reproductive tract. Tubectomy and vasectomy are permanent surgical methods. Condoms also help prevent sexually transmitted infections. Therefore, the correct answer is (3). Temporary methods can be reversed anytime without affecting fertility permanently.

4. What is the main function of IUDs like Copper-T?
(1) Prevent ovulation
(2) Suppress sperm motility and fertilization
(3) Destroy ova
(4) Increase implantation rate

Explanation: Intrauterine devices (IUDs) such as Copper-T release copper ions that suppress sperm motility and viability, preventing fertilization. They also alter uterine lining, reducing implantation chances. Hence, the correct answer is (2). IUDs provide long-term reversible contraception with high efficacy and minimal hormonal involvement.

5. Which of the following is a permanent method of contraception in females?
(1) Copper-T insertion
(2) Tubectomy
(3) Diaphragm
(4) Oral contraceptive pills

Explanation: Tubectomy is a surgical procedure in which the fallopian tubes are cut and tied to block the passage of ova, preventing fertilization. It is irreversible and provides permanent contraception for females. Hence, the correct answer is (2). Tubectomy is safe and performed under medical supervision after family completion.

6. Which of the following is the most reliable temporary contraceptive method?
(1) Condom
(2) Periodic abstinence
(3) IUD
(4) Coitus interruptus

Explanation: Intrauterine devices (IUDs) like Copper-T are the most reliable temporary contraceptives. They prevent sperm fertilization and implantation effectively for years. Condoms are effective but may fail if not used correctly. Natural methods have higher failure rates. Hence, the correct answer is (3). IUDs provide long-term and reversible birth control.

7. (Assertion-Reason Type)
Assertion (A): Lactational amenorrhea acts as a temporary natural contraceptive.
Reason (R): High prolactin levels during breastfeeding suppress ovulation.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A correctly.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Explanation: Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion. Elevated prolactin levels during exclusive breastfeeding suppress GnRH, leading to anovulation and temporary infertility. Hence, the correct answer is (1). The method is natural, safe, and effective for about six months post-delivery.

8. (Matching Type)
Match the contraceptive methods with their types:
A. Condom — I. Barrier method
B. Copper-T — II. Intrauterine device
C. Oral pills — III. Hormonal method
D. Coitus interruptus — IV. Natural method
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Explanation: Condoms act as barrier methods (A-I), Copper-T is an IUD (B-II), oral pills work hormonally (C-III), and coitus interruptus is a natural method (D-IV). These categories help classify contraceptives by their mechanism. Hence, the correct answer is (1). Each method differs in efficacy and reversibility.

9. (Fill in the Blank)
The contraceptive method that involves withdrawal of the penis before ejaculation is called __________.
(1) Coitus interruptus
(2) Periodic abstinence
(3) Lactational amenorrhea
(4) Tubectomy

Explanation: Coitus interruptus, or withdrawal method, prevents sperm from entering the vagina by removing the penis before ejaculation. It is a natural but unreliable method due to pre-ejaculate sperm presence. Hence, the correct answer is (1). Though simple, it carries a high failure rate compared to barrier or hormonal methods.

10. (Choose the Correct Statements)
Statement I: Natural methods are completely free from side effects.
Statement II: Natural methods are 100% effective in preventing pregnancy.
(1) Both statements are true.
(2) Both statements are false.
(3) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.

Explanation: Natural methods like coitus interruptus and periodic abstinence are safe and free from side effects, but they are not fully reliable due to timing errors or early ovulation. Hence, the correct answer is (3). Their failure rate is higher compared to barrier or hormonal contraceptives.

Topic: Birth Control Methods; Subtopic: Types and Mechanism of Intrauterine Devices (IUDs)

Keyword Definitions:

• IUD (Intrauterine Device): A small contraceptive device inserted into the uterus to prevent pregnancy.

• Non-medicated IUD: A plastic device such as the Lippes Loop that prevents implantation mechanically without hormones or metals.

• Copper releasing IUD: Contains copper, which suppresses sperm motility and fertilization (e.g., CuT 380A, Multiload 375).

• Hormone releasing IUD: Releases progesterone or levonorgestrel (e.g., LNG-20) to prevent fertilization and implantation.

• Implants: Hormone-containing rods inserted under the skin to prevent ovulation by releasing progestogens gradually.

Lead Question – 2024
Match List I with List II
List I         List II
A. Non-medicated IUD    I. Multiload 375
B. Copper releasing IUD   II. Progestogens
C. Hormone releasing IUD   III. Lippes loop
D. Implants      IV. LNG-20
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Explanation: Non-medicated IUDs like Lippes Loop prevent implantation mechanically. Copper IUDs (CuT, Multiload 375) release copper ions that inhibit sperm motility. Hormone-releasing IUDs (LNG-20) secrete levonorgestrel to thicken cervical mucus. Implants release progestogens to suppress ovulation. Hence, the correct answer is (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II, covering all types of IUD mechanisms clearly.

Guessed Questions:

1. Which of the following is a non-medicated intrauterine device?
(1) CuT 380A
(2) Lippes Loop
(3) LNG-20
(4) Multiload 375
Explanation: The Lippes Loop is a non-medicated IUD made of flexible plastic that prevents pregnancy by creating a mechanical barrier inside the uterus. It does not release hormones or metals. It was one of the earliest IUDs used for birth control. Hence, the correct answer is (2) Lippes Loop, which acts by preventing implantation naturally.

2. Copper releasing IUDs prevent pregnancy mainly by:
(1) Blocking implantation
(2) Inhibiting sperm motility and fertilization
(3) Increasing cervical mucus viscosity
(4) Preventing ovulation
Explanation: Copper ions released from copper IUDs such as CuT 380A and Multiload 375 decrease sperm motility and viability, preventing fertilization. They also alter the uterine lining, making it unfavorable for implantation. Hence, the correct answer is (2) Inhibiting sperm motility and fertilization through the effect of released copper ions.

3. LNG-20 is classified as which type of contraceptive device?
(1) Copper releasing IUD
(2) Non-medicated IUD
(3) Hormone releasing IUD
(4) Barrier method
Explanation: LNG-20 is a hormone-releasing IUD that releases the hormone levonorgestrel. It thickens cervical mucus, inhibits sperm entry, and reduces endometrial receptivity. This prevents both fertilization and implantation. Hence, the correct answer is (3) Hormone releasing IUD, which ensures long-term reversible contraception using progesterone hormones effectively.

4. Which of the following IUDs is considered most effective for long-term contraception?
(1) Lippes Loop
(2) Multiload 375
(3) Copper-T 380A
(4) LNG-20
Explanation: Copper-T 380A is among the most effective IUDs, providing protection for up to 10 years. It releases copper ions that immobilize sperm and prevent fertilization. Its high copper surface area ensures prolonged effectiveness with minimal hormonal influence. Hence, the correct answer is (3) Copper-T 380A, ensuring durable and reversible contraception.

5. Which contraceptive method involves insertion of hormone-releasing rods under the skin?
(1) IUD
(2) Implant
(3) Condom
(4) Diaphragm
Explanation: Implants are small, hormone-filled rods (e.g., Norplant, Implanon) inserted under the skin of the upper arm. They gradually release progestogens that prevent ovulation and fertilization. Implants provide long-term reversible contraception for several years. Hence, the correct answer is (2) Implant, a subdermal hormonal method preventing pregnancy effectively.

6. Which of the following is not an intrauterine contraceptive device?
(1) Multiload 375
(2) Lippes Loop
(3) LNG-20
(4) Norplant
Explanation: Norplant is a hormonal implant placed under the skin and not within the uterus. It releases progestogens to inhibit ovulation. The other options—Multiload 375, Lippes Loop, and LNG-20—are IUDs. Hence, the correct answer is (4) Norplant, which functions as a hormonal implant rather than an intrauterine device.

Assertion–Reason Type:
Assertion (A): Copper IUDs act as spermicidal devices.
Reason (R): Copper ions released from IUDs suppress sperm motility and viability.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Explanation: Copper ions released from copper IUDs such as CuT 380A reduce sperm motility and impair sperm’s fertilization ability, acting as spermicides. Thus, both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A. Hence, the correct answer is (1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Matching Type:
Match List I with List II
A. Lippes Loop  I. Non-medicated IUD
B. Multiload 375  II. Copper releasing IUD
C. LNG-20  III. Hormone releasing IUD
D. Norplant  IV. Hormonal Implant
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Explanation: Lippes Loop is a non-medicated IUD; Multiload 375 is a copper-releasing IUD; LNG-20 is a hormone-releasing IUD; and Norplant is a hormonal implant placed subdermally. Hence, the correct answer is (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, clearly representing their contraceptive classification and mechanism of action.

Fill in the Blanks:
The IUD that releases levonorgestrel hormone is called ________.
(1) Multiload 375
(2) Lippes Loop
(3) LNG-20
(4) CuT 380A
Explanation: LNG-20 is a hormone-releasing IUD that continuously releases levonorgestrel, a progesterone derivative, preventing fertilization and implantation. It also thickens cervical mucus to restrict sperm entry. Hence, the correct answer is (3) LNG-20, an intrauterine contraceptive providing effective and reversible hormonal protection against pregnancy.

Choose the Correct Statements:
Statement I: Copper IUDs increase sperm motility.
Statement II: Copper IUDs act as spermicides by releasing copper ions.
(1) Both I and II are true
(2) Both I and II are false
(3) I is false but II is true
(4) I is true but II is false
Explanation: Copper IUDs release copper ions that reduce sperm motility, viability, and fertilizing capacity, acting as spermicides. Therefore, Statement I is false, and Statement II is true. Hence, the correct answer is (3) I is false but II is true, describing the correct mechanism of action of copper-releasing intrauterine devices.

Topic: Reproductive Technologies; Subtopic: Legal and Scientific Aspects of Amniocentesis & Contraceptives

Keyword Definitions:

• Reproductive health: A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being in all matters related to reproduction.

• Amniocentesis: A prenatal diagnostic technique to assess fetal genetic disorders or chromosomal abnormalities.

• Sex determination: Identification of the fetal sex before birth.

• Saheli: An oral contraceptive pill developed for females in India to prevent pregnancy.

• ICMR: Indian Council of Medical Research, governing biomedical research in India.

• Contraceptive: Methods or devices used to prevent pregnancy.

• Genetic disorders: Diseases caused by abnormalities in genes or chromosomes.

• Foetus survivability: Likelihood of fetal survival under medical conditions.

• Legal ban: Prohibition by law on specific medical practices.

• Well-being: A state of health, comfort, and happiness.

• Prenatal diagnosis: Testing performed before birth to detect abnormalities.

Lead Question - 2023 (Manipur)

Which of the following statements are correct?

A: Reproductive health refers to total well-being in all aspects of reproduction

B: Amniocentesis is legally banned for sex determination in India

C: "Saheli" - an oral contraceptive for females was developed in collaboration with ICMR (New Delhi)

D: Amniocentesis is used to determine genetic disorders and survivability of foetus

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. (B) and (C) only

2. (D) and (C) only

3. (A), (B) and (D) only

4. (A) and (C) only

Explanation:

Reproductive health encompasses total well-being in all reproductive aspects, making statement A correct. Amniocentesis is used for detecting genetic disorders but is legally banned for fetal sex determination in India, validating statements B and D. "Saheli" is an oral contraceptive developed in collaboration with ICMR, confirming statement C. The most appropriate combination of correct statements is (A), (B), and (D). Correct answer is 3.

1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which oral contraceptive was developed in collaboration with ICMR?

1. Saheli

2. Pillsa

3. Fempil

4. Mifepristone

Explanation:

"Saheli" is an oral contraceptive developed in India in collaboration with ICMR to provide safe and effective pregnancy prevention for females. Other options are either synthetic or unrelated contraceptives. Correct answer is 1.

2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Amniocentesis in India is legally banned for:

1. Detecting genetic disorders

2. Sex determination of fetus

3. Estimating fetal age

4. Checking maternal health

Explanation:

Amniocentesis is legally banned in India for sex determination to prevent female feticide. It remains legal for detecting genetic disorders and fetal abnormalities. Correct answer is 2.

3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Reproductive health is best described as:

1. Absence of diseases

2. Complete well-being in all aspects of reproduction

3. Only physical health

4. Only fertility

Explanation:

Reproductive health involves complete physical, mental, and social well-being concerning reproduction. It is not limited to absence of disease, fertility, or physical health alone. Correct answer is 2.

4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which test determines genetic disorders in a fetus?

1. Ultrasound

2. Amniocentesis

3. X-ray

4. ECG

Explanation:

Amniocentesis involves sampling amniotic fluid to test for chromosomal abnormalities and genetic disorders in the fetus. Ultrasound or X-ray are diagnostic but not for genetic analysis. Correct answer is 2.

5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Saheli is classified as which type of contraceptive?

1. Barrier method

2. Oral hormonal contraceptive

3. Intrauterine device

4. Injectable contraceptive

Explanation:

Saheli is an oral contraceptive that uses hormones to prevent ovulation and pregnancy. It is not a barrier, intrauterine, or injectable method. Correct answer is 2.

6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

ICMR is responsible for:

1. Judicial enforcement

2. Biomedical research governance in India

3. Environmental monitoring

4. Agricultural development

Explanation:

ICMR oversees biomedical research and health-related scientific studies in India. It does not directly handle judicial, environmental, or agricultural responsibilities. Correct answer is 2.

7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:

Assertion (A): Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic procedure.

Reason (R): It can be legally used for fetal sex determination in India.

1. Both A and R are true and R explains A

2. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A

3. A is true but R is false

4. Both A and R are false

Explanation:

Amniocentesis is indeed a prenatal diagnostic test used to detect genetic disorders. However, it is legally banned in India for sex determination. Therefore, A is true but R is false. Correct answer is 3.

8. Matching Type MCQ:

Match the reproductive term with its description:

A. Reproductive health — (i) Complete well-being in all reproductive aspects

B. Saheli — (ii) Oral contraceptive developed with ICMR

C. Amniocentesis — (iii) Prenatal genetic testing

D. ICMR — (iv) Governing biomedical research in India

1. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

2. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)

3. A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)

4. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)

Explanation:

Reproductive health relates to overall reproductive well-being, Saheli is an oral contraceptive by ICMR, amniocentesis is for prenatal genetic testing, and ICMR governs biomedical research. Correct answer is 1.

9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:

The oral contraceptive developed in India with ICMR is called _______.

1. Femipill

2. Saheli

3. Pillsa

4. Ovulen

Explanation:

Saheli is the oral contraceptive developed collaboratively with ICMR to prevent pregnancy safely for females. Other options are unrelated. Correct answer is 2.

10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:

Statement I: Amniocentesis is legally banned for sex determination in India.

Statement II: Saheli is an oral contraceptive developed with ICMR.

1. Statement I only

2. Statement II only

3. Both statements are true

4. Both statements are false

Explanation:

Both statements are correct. Amniocentesis cannot be legally used for fetal sex determination in India, and Saheli was developed in collaboration with ICMR. Correct answer is 3.

Topic: Assisted Reproductive Technology; Subtopic: Artificial Insemination and ICSI

Keyword Definitions:

• Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI): A technique where a single sperm is injected directly into the cytoplasm of an egg to achieve fertilization.

• Artificial Insemination (AI): A procedure in which sperm is directly introduced into a female's reproductive tract to facilitate fertilization.

• In-vivo fertilization: Fertilization occurring inside the body.

• Infertility: The inability of a couple to conceive after 12 months of regular, unprotected intercourse.

• Male factor infertility: Infertility due to low sperm count, motility, or structural defects.

• Female reproductive tract: Organs involved in ovum transport and fertilization.

• Fertilization: Fusion of sperm and ovum to form a zygote.

• Sperm injection: Direct placement of sperm into an egg cytoplasm.

• Gametes: Reproductive cells (sperm and egg).

• Assisted reproductive technology (ART): Medical procedures used to treat infertility.

• Insemination: Introduction of sperm into the female reproductive tract.

Lead Question - 2023 (Manipur)

Given below are two statements:

I: Intra Cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is another specialized procedure of in-vivo fertilization.

II: Infertility cases due to the inability of the male partner to inseminate the female can be corrected by artificial insemination (AI)

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect because ICSI is an in-vitro fertilization technique, not in-vivo. In ICSI, fertilization occurs outside the body in a laboratory dish, and a single sperm is injected directly into the egg cytoplasm. Statement II is correct as artificial insemination (AI) introduces sperm directly into the female reproductive tract, correcting infertility caused by male factors such as inability to inseminate. Thus, only Statement II is correct, making option 2 the right choice. Both procedures are part of assisted reproductive technology (ART) used to treat infertility under different clinical situations.

1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

ICSI is primarily classified as:

1. In-vivo fertilization

2. In-vitro fertilization

3. Natural conception

4. Artificial insemination

Explanation:

ICSI is a form of in-vitro fertilization where fertilization occurs outside the body in a laboratory, and a single sperm is injected into an egg cytoplasm. It is not in-vivo or natural conception. Artificial insemination is a different procedure. Hence, option 2 is correct.

2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Artificial insemination is mainly used for:

1. Female factor infertility

2. Male factor infertility

3. Genetic engineering

4. Cloning

Explanation:

Artificial insemination corrects infertility due to male factors such as inability to inseminate, low sperm motility, or low sperm count. It introduces sperm directly into the female reproductive tract. Female factor infertility, cloning, or genetic engineering are unrelated. Hence, option 2 is correct.

3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

In ICSI, fertilization occurs:

1. Inside the female body

2. Outside the body in a lab dish

3. Naturally during intercourse

4. In the fallopian tube only

Explanation:

In ICSI, fertilization is in-vitro, outside the body, where a sperm is directly injected into an egg in the laboratory. It does not occur naturally or exclusively in the fallopian tube. Hence, option 2 is correct.

4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which ART procedure involves direct sperm injection into egg cytoplasm?

1. AI

2. ICSI

3. IVF without ICSI

4. Gamete intrafallopian transfer

Explanation:

ICSI specifically involves injecting a single sperm into the egg cytoplasm for fertilization. AI introduces sperm into the female tract without egg manipulation. Standard IVF does not involve direct injection, and GIFT transfers gametes into the fallopian tube. Hence, option 2 is correct.

5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which procedure can bypass male infertility due to low sperm count?

1. Natural conception

2. AI

3. ICSI

4. Adoption

Explanation:

Both AI and ICSI can overcome male infertility; however, ICSI is used in severe cases of low sperm count or poor motility. AI works when some motile sperm are available. Natural conception and adoption do not address biological infertility. Hence, option 3 is correct.

6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which is true about AI?

1. Egg is fertilized outside the body

2. Sperm is introduced into female reproductive tract

3. Sperm is injected directly into egg cytoplasm

4. Fertilization occurs in a lab only

Explanation:

In AI, sperm is introduced directly into the female reproductive tract to achieve fertilization in-vivo. Fertilization does not occur in a lab or by direct cytoplasmic injection. Hence, option 2 is correct.

7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:

Assertion (A): ICSI is an advanced method of in-vitro fertilization.

Reason (R): A single sperm is injected directly into the egg cytoplasm.

1. Both A and R are true and R explains A

2. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A

3. A is true but R is false

4. Both A and R are false

Explanation:

ICSI is an advanced IVF technique where a single sperm is directly injected into the egg cytoplasm, ensuring fertilization even with severe male infertility. Both statements are true, and R correctly explains A. Hence, option 1 is correct.

8. Matching Type MCQ:

Match the technique with its characteristic:

A. ICSI — (i) In-vitro sperm injection

B. AI — (ii) Sperm placed in female tract

C. IVF — (iii) Fertilization in lab dish

D. GIFT — (iv) Gametes placed in fallopian tube

1. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

2. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)

3. A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)

4. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)

Explanation:

ICSI involves direct sperm injection (A-i). AI introduces sperm in the female tract (B-ii). IVF achieves fertilization in a lab dish (C-iii). GIFT transfers gametes into the fallopian tube (D-iv). Hence, option 1 is correct.

9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:

In AI, sperm is placed ______ to facilitate fertilization.

1. In egg cytoplasm

2. In the female reproductive tract

3. In a petri dish

4. In the male epididymis

Explanation:

In artificial insemination, sperm is placed in the female reproductive tract to achieve in-vivo fertilization. It is not injected into the egg cytoplasm or kept in vitro. Hence, option 2 is correct.

10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:

Statement I: ICSI is used for severe male infertility.

Statement II: AI involves egg injection in lab.

1. Statement I only

2. Statement II only

3. Both statements are true

4. Both statements are false

Explanation:

Statement I is correct; ICSI helps in severe male infertility by injecting sperm into the egg. Statement II is false; AI places sperm into the female tract, not the egg. Therefore, only Statement I is correct. Hence, option 1 is correct.

Topic: Contraception Methods; Subtopic: Intrauterine Devices (IUDs) and Barrier Methods

Keyword Definitions:

• Non-medicated IUDs: Devices inserted into the uterus to prevent pregnancy without releasing hormones or copper, mainly mechanical barrier.

• Copper releasing IUDs: IUDs coated with copper that releases ions toxic to sperm, preventing fertilization.

• Hormone releasing IUDs: IUDs that release levonorgestrel or other hormones to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus.

• Vaults: Barrier contraceptives like diaphragms or cervical caps placed over the cervix.

• LNG-20: Levonorgestrel-releasing IUD with 20 mcg/day hormone dose.

• Multiload 375: Copper IUD with T-shape design for long-term contraception.

• Lippes loop: Non-medicated plastic loop-shaped IUD.

• Rubber barrier: Flexible diaphragm or cervical cap preventing sperm entry.

• Contraception: Methods used to prevent pregnancy.

• IUD: Intrauterine device inserted into the uterus for reversible contraception.

• Barrier method: Contraceptive device that physically blocks sperm from reaching the egg.

Lead Question - 2023 (Manipur)

Match List - I with List - II

List-I List-II

(A) Non-medicated IUDs (I) Multiload 375

(B) Copper releasing IUDs (II) Rubber barrier

(C) Hormone releasing IUDs (III) Lippes loop

(D) Vaults (IV) LNG-20

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:

1. (IV) (III) (I) (II)

2. (II) (IV) (III) (I)

3. (III) (I) (IV) (II)

4. (III) (IV) (II) (I)

Explanation:

Non-medicated IUDs are plastic loops like Lippes loop (A-III). Copper releasing IUDs include devices such as Multiload 375 (B-I). Hormone releasing IUDs like LNG-20 release levonorgestrel to prevent pregnancy (C-IV). Vaults refer to barrier methods like rubber diaphragm or cervical caps (D-II). Understanding the categories of IUDs and barrier methods is essential for proper contraceptive selection and family planning. Correct matching ensures clarity in mechanism, design, and usage. Hence, the correct option is 3.

1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which IUD releases copper ions to prevent fertilization?

1. Lippes loop

2. LNG-20

3. Multiload 375

4. Rubber barrier

Explanation:

Copper releasing IUDs like Multiload 375 release copper ions that are spermicidal and prevent fertilization. Lippes loop is non-medicated, LNG-20 releases hormones, and rubber barrier is a diaphragm. Hence, option 3 is correct.

2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which IUD releases levonorgestrel?

1. Lippes loop

2. LNG-20

3. Multiload 375

4. Rubber barrier

Explanation:

Hormone releasing IUDs like LNG-20 release levonorgestrel, thickening cervical mucus and preventing ovulation. Lippes loop is non-medicated, Multiload 375 releases copper, and rubber barrier is external. Hence, option 2 is correct.

3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which device is a non-medicated IUD?

1. LNG-20

2. Multiload 375

3. Lippes loop

4. Rubber barrier

Explanation:

The Lippes loop is a plastic non-medicated IUD that prevents pregnancy mechanically without releasing hormones or copper. LNG-20 is hormonal, Multiload 375 is copper, and rubber barrier is external. Hence, option 3 is correct.

4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which contraceptive method is a vault?

1. Multiload 375

2. Rubber barrier

3. LNG-20

4. Lippes loop

Explanation:

Vaults are barrier methods like diaphragms or cervical caps made of rubber that cover the cervix and prevent sperm entry. LNG-20 is hormonal IUD, Multiload 375 is copper IUD, and Lippes loop is non-medicated. Hence, option 2 is correct.

5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which IUD is T-shaped and copper coated?

1. Lippes loop

2. LNG-20

3. Multiload 375

4. Rubber barrier

Explanation:

Copper releasing IUDs like Multiload 375 are T-shaped and coated with copper for effective long-term contraception. Lippes loop is non-medicated, LNG-20 is hormonal, and rubber barrier is external. Hence, option 3 is correct.

6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which device acts mechanically without chemical release?

1. LNG-20

2. Lippes loop

3. Multiload 375

4. Rubber barrier

Explanation:

The Lippes loop is non-medicated and prevents pregnancy mechanically. LNG-20 releases hormones, Multiload 375 releases copper, and rubber barrier is external. Hence, option 2 is correct.

7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:

Assertion (A): Hormonal IUDs prevent ovulation.

Reason (R): LNG-20 releases levonorgestrel which thickens cervical mucus and inhibits sperm passage.

1. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A

3. A is true but R is false

4. Both A and R are false

Explanation:

Hormone releasing IUDs like LNG-20 release levonorgestrel which thickens cervical mucus and can inhibit ovulation, explaining the assertion. Hence, option 1 is correct.

8. Matching Type MCQ:

Match contraceptive devices with their type:

A. Lippes loop — (i) Non-medicated IUD

B. Multiload 375 — (ii) Copper IUD

C. LNG-20 — (iii) Hormonal IUD

D. Rubber diaphragm — (iv) Barrier

1. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

2. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)

3. A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)

4. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)

Explanation:

Non-medicated IUD: Lippes loop (A-i), Copper IUD: Multiload 375 (B-ii), Hormonal IUD: LNG-20 (C-iii), Barrier: rubber diaphragm (D-iv). Correct mapping ensures clear understanding. Hence, option 1 is correct.

9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:

________ releases levonorgestrel for contraceptive effect.

1. Lippes loop

2. LNG-20

3. Multiload 375

4. Rubber barrier

Explanation:

Hormone releasing IUDs like LNG-20 release levonorgestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus, providing effective contraception. Hence, option 2 is correct.

10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:

Statement I: Multiload 375 releases copper ions.

Statement II: Lippes loop is non-medicated.

1. Both statements are true

2. Statement I is true, Statement II is false

3. Statement I is false, Statement II is true

4. Both statements are false

Explanation:

Multiload 375 releases copper ions to prevent fertilization (Statement I true). Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD providing mechanical contraception (Statement II true). Hence, option 1 is correct. 

Topic: Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme; Subtopic: Prenatal Diagnostics and Female Foeticide

Keyword Definitions:
Amniocentesis: Prenatal diagnostic procedure to detect genetic abnormalities and sex of the fetus.
Sex determination: Process of identifying the sex of the fetus before birth.
Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme: Government initiative to improve maternal and child health.
Female foeticide: Deliberate abortion of a female fetus due to gender bias.
Ban: Legal prohibition of certain practices.
Prenatal diagnosis: Testing performed during pregnancy to detect abnormalities in the fetus.
Ethical guidelines: Moral standards for medical practices.
Ultrasound: Imaging technique used for prenatal examination.
PGD: Preimplantation genetic diagnosis to detect genetic diseases.
Maternal health: Health of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and postnatal period.
RCH Programme: Abbreviation of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme.

Lead Question (2023):
Given below are statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme.
Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A is true but R is false
2) A is false but R is true
3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Answer & Explanation: Option 4 is correct. Assertion A is false because amniocentesis for sex determination is illegal under the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act to prevent female foeticide, and it is not a strategy of the RCH Programme. Reason R is true, as banning sex determination prevents misuse and reduces female foeticide. The RCH Programme focuses on maternal and child health, immunization, nutrition, and safe motherhood. Understanding ethical, legal, and social aspects of prenatal diagnostics is critical for public health and combating gender-based selective practices.

1. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which government program primarily aims to improve maternal and child health in India?
A) National Health Mission
B) Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme
C) Mid-Day Meal Scheme
D) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

Answer & Explanation: Option B is correct. The Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme focuses on maternal and child health, including antenatal care, immunization, family planning, nutrition, and safe delivery. It is separate from schemes like Mid-Day Meal or employment programs. This initiative is crucial to reduce maternal and infant mortality, prevent reproductive tract infections, and promote reproductive health awareness, ensuring healthier generations and equitable access to healthcare services in India.

2. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which procedure is legally banned in India for sex determination of the fetus?
A) Amniocentesis
B) Ultrasound for congenital defects
C) Maternal blood test for chromosomal disorders
D) Non-invasive prenatal testing

Answer & Explanation: Option A is correct. Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned under the PCPNDT Act to prevent female foeticide. Ultrasound, maternal blood tests, and non-invasive prenatal testing are allowed for detecting genetic or congenital disorders only. Adhering to legal and ethical guidelines ensures responsible prenatal diagnostics, safeguards female fetuses, and upholds public health policies aimed at reducing gender discrimination and promoting maternal and child welfare in India.

3. Single Correct Answer MCQ: The main objective of banning sex determination techniques is:
A) Promote family planning
B) Reduce female foeticide
C) Increase fertility rate
D) Improve maternal nutrition

Answer & Explanation: Option B is correct. The ban on prenatal sex determination prevents selective abortion of female fetuses, tackling the social problem of female foeticide. It does not directly affect fertility or nutrition but ensures gender equity and ethical medical practice. Understanding this is vital for implementing reproductive health policies, monitoring compliance with legal frameworks, and promoting social awareness about the importance of protecting girl children.

4. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which law regulates prenatal diagnostic techniques in India?
A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act
B) PCPNDT Act
C) Indian Penal Code
D) National Rural Health Mission Act

Answer & Explanation: Option B is correct. The Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act prohibits sex determination tests and regulates prenatal diagnostic techniques to prevent female foeticide. The law specifies legal procedures, registration of clinics, and penalties for violations. Knowledge of this law is essential for healthcare professionals to ensure ethical practice, protect female fetuses, and support the objectives of reproductive and child health programs in India.

5. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which diagnostic method is ethically permitted to detect congenital abnormalities but not for sex determination?
A) Amniocentesis
B) Ultrasound
C) Termination of pregnancy
D) Infertility treatment

Answer & Explanation: Option B is correct. Ultrasound can be used to detect congenital abnormalities like heart defects, spina bifida, or Down syndrome but should not be misused for sex determination, as per PCPNDT Act. Ethical prenatal testing helps improve neonatal outcomes and maternal health while preventing misuse leading to female foeticide. Awareness of permitted procedures is key to responsible reproductive healthcare practice and legal compliance in India.

6. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Female foeticide primarily occurs due to:
A) Lack of prenatal care
B) Gender-biased societal norms
C) Maternal malnutrition
D) High fertility rates

Answer & Explanation: Option B is correct. Female foeticide arises from societal preference for male children, cultural and economic biases, and misuse of sex determination techniques. Legal bans, awareness campaigns, and reproductive health programs aim to combat these practices. Understanding underlying causes is crucial for public health interventions, ethical clinical practice, and promotion of gender equity in reproductive health and child welfare programs.

7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Amniocentesis should not be used for sex determination.
Reason (R): Misuse of prenatal diagnostics leads to female foeticide.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true

Answer & Explanation: Option A is correct. Amniocentesis is a legal prenatal diagnostic tool for genetic disorders but should never be used to determine fetal sex. Misuse of such procedures is the primary cause of female foeticide. Ethical and legal adherence is crucial to prevent gender-based selective abortions, maintain public trust in healthcare, and support programs improving maternal and child health outcomes in society.

8. Matching Type MCQ: Match the following:
List I - List II
A. Amniocentesis - I. Detects genetic disorders
B. Ultrasound - II. Imaging for fetal abnormalities
C. Sex determination - III. Banned for female foeticide
Choose correct option:
1) A-I, B-II, C-III
2) A-II, B-III, C-I
3) A-III, B-I, C-II
4) A-I, B-III, C-II

Answer & Explanation: Option 1 is correct. Amniocentesis detects genetic disorders (A-I), ultrasound is used for imaging fetal abnormalities (B-II), and sex determination is banned to prevent female foeticide (C-III). Correctly associating procedures with their purposes is crucial for ethical reproductive health practices, legal compliance, and effective implementation of maternal and child health programs in India.

9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ: The _______ Act regulates prenatal diagnostic techniques to prevent misuse for sex determination.
A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy
B) PCPNDT
C) Infant Mortality Reduction
D) National Rural Health Mission

Answer & Explanation: Option B is correct. The Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act prohibits prenatal sex determination and ensures ethical use of diagnostics. Knowledge of this Act is essential for medical professionals to prevent female foeticide, ensure maternal and child health, and maintain compliance with legal and ethical standards in reproductive healthcare.

10. Choose the Correct Statements MCQ:
Statement I: RCH Programme aims to improve maternal and child health.
Statement II: Amniocentesis for sex determination is a legal strategy under RCH.
A) Both statements are correct
B) Both statements are incorrect
C) Only Statement I is correct
D) Only Statement II is correct

Answer & Explanation: Option C is correct. The RCH Programme focuses on maternal and child health, including immunization, nutrition, and safe pregnancy practices. Amniocentesis for sex determination is illegal under PCPNDT Act, and its misuse leads to female foeticide. Understanding the scope of RCH, legal restrictions, and ethical guidelines is vital for health professionals to ensure safe, equitable, and ethical reproductive healthcare services.

Topic: Sexually Transmitted Diseases; Subtopic: Curable and Incurable STDs

Lead Question - 2023

Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when detected early and treated properly?
(1) Hepatitis-B
(2) HIV Infection
(3) Genital herpes
(4) Gonorrhoea

Answer: (4) Gonorrhoea. Gonorrhoea, caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, is a bacterial sexually transmitted infection that can be completely cured with appropriate antibiotics if diagnosed early. Early detection prevents complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, and systemic infections. Unlike viral STDs like HIV, Hepatitis-B, and Genital herpes, which require lifelong management, bacterial infections respond effectively to treatment, highlighting the importance of timely screening, partner notification, and adherence to prescribed antibiotic regimens to ensure complete recovery and prevent transmission to sexual partners.

Keyword Definitions:

• Gonorrhoea: A bacterial sexually transmitted disease caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, curable with antibiotics if detected early.

• Hepatitis-B: A viral infection affecting the liver, preventable by vaccination, but not completely curable once chronic.

• HIV Infection: Human Immunodeficiency Virus infection; chronic viral disease requiring lifelong antiretroviral therapy.

• Genital herpes: A viral infection caused by herpes simplex virus, incurable but manageable with antiviral medications.

• Curable: A disease that can be completely eradicated with proper treatment.

• Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs): Infections transmitted through sexual contact.

• Early detection: Identification of disease at an initial stage to ensure effective treatment.

1. Single Correct Answer:

Which bacterial STD can cause infertility if untreated?
(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) HIV Infection
(3) Genital herpes
(4) Hepatitis-B

Answer: (1) Gonorrhoea. Untreated gonorrhoea can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease in females and epididymitis in males, causing infertility and chronic complications.

2. Single Correct Answer:

Which viral STD is manageable but not curable?
(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) Genital herpes
(3) Syphilis
(4) Chlamydia

Answer: (2) Genital herpes. Caused by herpes simplex virus, it persists lifelong but symptoms can be controlled with antiviral therapy to reduce severity and frequency of outbreaks.

3. Single Correct Answer:

Which STD is preventable by vaccination?
(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) HIV Infection
(3) Hepatitis-B
(4) Genital herpes

Answer: (3) Hepatitis-B. Hepatitis-B vaccine provides long-term immunity, preventing infection, chronic liver disease, and reducing transmission risk.

4. Single Correct Answer:

Which bacterial STD responds completely to antibiotic therapy if detected early?
(1) Genital herpes
(2) Gonorrhoea
(3) HIV Infection
(4) Hepatitis-B

Answer: (2) Gonorrhoea. Early antibiotic treatment eradicates the infection, prevents complications, and halts transmission to sexual partners.

5. Single Correct Answer:

Which STD can cause chronic lifelong infection if untreated?
(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) HIV Infection
(3) Syphilis in primary stage
(4) Chlamydia

Answer: (2) HIV Infection. Without antiretroviral therapy, HIV persists, progressively weakening immunity and leading to AIDS.

6. Single Correct Answer:

Which STD is asymptomatic in many individuals but curable if tested?
(1) HIV Infection
(2) Gonorrhoea
(3) Genital herpes
(4) Hepatitis-B

Answer: (2) Gonorrhoea. Many carriers are asymptomatic, so routine screening is critical to ensure timely treatment and prevent complications.

7. Assertion-Reason:

Assertion A: Gonorrhoea is completely curable when detected early.
Reason R: Gonorrhoea is caused by bacteria susceptible to antibiotics.
Options:
(1) A true, R false
(2) A false, R true
(3) Both true, R explains A
(4) Both true, R does not explain A

Answer: (3) Both true, R explains A. Since gonorrhoea is bacterial, timely antibiotic therapy eradicates infection and prevents complications, making early detection crucial.

8. Matching Type:

Match STD with type:
List I | List II
A. Gonorrhoea | I. Bacterial
B. Genital herpes | II. Viral
C. HIV Infection | III. Viral
D. Hepatitis-B | IV. Viral
Options:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Answer: (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV. Gonorrhoea is bacterial; herpes, HIV, and Hepatitis-B are viral, determining treatment and curability.

9. Fill in the Blanks:

The sexually transmitted disease that is completely curable with early antibiotic therapy is ________.
Options: (1) HIV Infection (2) Gonorrhoea (3) Genital herpes (4) Hepatitis-B

Answer: (2) Gonorrhoea. Timely diagnosis allows effective treatment, preventing long-term complications and halting transmission to partners.

10. Choose the correct statements:

Statement I: Gonorrhoea can be cured completely with antibiotics.
Statement II: HIV infection can be eradicated with antiviral drugs.
Options:
(1) Only I is correct
(2) Only II is correct
(3) Both I and II are correct
(4) Both I and II are incorrect

Answer: (1) Only I is correct. Gonorrhoea is bacterial and fully treatable with antibiotics. HIV is viral, requires lifelong management, and cannot be eradicated completely, emphasizing the difference between bacterial and viral STDs in terms of curability.

Topic: Contraception Methods; Subtopic: Types and Matching of Contraceptive Methods

Lead Question - 2023

Match List I with List II.
List I | List II
A. Vasectomy | I. Oral method
B. Coitus interruptus | II. Barrier method
C. Cervical caps | III. Surgical method
D. Saheli | IV. Natural method
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Answer: (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I. Vasectomy is a permanent surgical contraceptive method, Coitus interruptus is a natural method involving withdrawal before ejaculation, Cervical caps are barrier devices placed over cervix to block sperm, and Saheli is an oral contraceptive pill taken to prevent ovulation. Each method functions differently in preventing pregnancy, and correct matching helps understand their classification and practical applications in reproductive health.

Keyword Definitions:

• Vasectomy: Surgical procedure for male sterilization that cuts or seals the vas deferens to prevent sperm from entering semen.

• Coitus interruptus: Natural contraceptive method where male withdraws before ejaculation to avoid sperm deposition in vagina.

• Cervical caps: Small silicone or rubber barrier device placed over cervix to prevent sperm entry into uterus.

• Saheli: Oral contraceptive pill containing hormones to prevent ovulation and pregnancy.

• Barrier method: Contraceptive technique preventing sperm from reaching the egg physically.

• Surgical method: Permanent method of contraception requiring surgery, e.g., vasectomy or tubectomy.

• Natural method: Methods based on timing or withdrawal to prevent fertilization without devices or drugs.

• Oral method: Contraception achieved by taking pills orally to regulate hormones and prevent ovulation.

1. Single Correct Answer:

Which contraceptive method is permanent and surgical?
(1) Vasectomy
(2) Coitus interruptus
(3) Cervical caps
(4) Saheli

Answer: (1) Vasectomy. It is a permanent male sterilization procedure that blocks sperm transport by cutting or sealing the vas deferens, effectively preventing pregnancy permanently without affecting sexual function.

2. Single Correct Answer:

Which method involves withdrawal of penis before ejaculation?
(1) Vasectomy
(2) Coitus interruptus
(3) Cervical caps
(4) Saheli

Answer: (2) Coitus interruptus. It is a natural contraceptive method where the male withdraws penis before ejaculation to prevent sperm entering the female reproductive tract. Its effectiveness is lower compared to other methods.

3. Single Correct Answer:

Which is a barrier contraceptive device placed over the cervix?
(1) Saheli
(2) Vasectomy
(3) Cervical caps
(4) Coitus interruptus

Answer: (3) Cervical caps. These are small silicone or rubber devices covering the cervix to block sperm entry into the uterus. They must be used with spermicide for effective pregnancy prevention.

4. Single Correct Answer:

Which oral contraceptive pill prevents ovulation?
(1) Vasectomy
(2) Coitus interruptus
(3) Cervical caps
(4) Saheli

Answer: (4) Saheli. It is an oral pill containing synthetic hormones that inhibit ovulation, thicken cervical mucus, and alter endometrium to prevent pregnancy. It is taken daily for effective contraception.

5. Single Correct Answer:

Which method relies on physical prevention of sperm entry?
(1) Barrier method
(2) Oral method
(3) Natural method
(4) Surgical method

Answer: (1) Barrier method. Devices like cervical caps, condoms, and diaphragms prevent sperm from reaching the egg, providing temporary and reversible contraception without affecting hormonal balance.

6. Single Correct Answer:

Which contraceptive is based on withdrawal or timing?
(1) Barrier method
(2) Natural method
(3) Oral method
(4) Surgical method

Answer: (2) Natural method. Methods like coitus interruptus or rhythm method depend on timing intercourse or withdrawal before ejaculation to prevent fertilization. They require awareness of fertility cycle and are less effective than other methods.

7. Assertion-Reason:

Assertion A: Saheli is an oral contraceptive.
Reason R: Saheli prevents ovulation and thickens cervical mucus.
Options:
(1) A true, R false
(2) A false, R true
(3) Both true, R explains A
(4) Both true, R does not explain A

Answer: (3) Both true, R explains A. Saheli contains synthetic hormones that inhibit ovulation and alter cervical mucus, effectively preventing pregnancy.

8. Matching Type:

Match contraceptive method with type:
List I | List II
A. Condom | I. Barrier
B. Oral pill | II. Oral
C. Tubectomy | III. Surgical
D. Rhythm method | IV. Natural
Options:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Answer: (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV. Condoms are barrier, oral pills taken by mouth, tubectomy is surgical sterilization, and rhythm method is natural.

9. Fill in the Blanks:

_________ is a permanent surgical method of male contraception.
Options: (1) Coitus interruptus (2) Vasectomy (3) Saheli (4) Cervical caps

Answer: (2) Vasectomy. It permanently prevents sperm from entering semen by cutting or sealing vas deferens.

10. Choose the correct statements:

Statement I: Cervical caps are temporary barrier methods.
Statement II: Coitus interruptus requires no devices.
Options:
(1) I true, II false
(2) I false, II true
(3) Both true
(4) Both false

Answer: (3) Both true. Cervical caps physically block sperm entry temporarily, while coitus interruptus relies on withdrawal before ejaculation without any devices.

Chapter: Reproductive Health; Topic: Birth Control and Contraception; Subtopic: Intrauterine Devices (IUDs)

Keyword Definitions:

• IUD (Intrauterine Device): A small contraceptive device made of plastic or copper, inserted into the uterus to prevent pregnancy.

• Copper IUD: A type of IUD that releases copper ions, which impair sperm motility and fertilization capacity.

• Phagocytosis: The process by which white blood cells engulf and destroy sperm or pathogens within the uterus.

• Cervix: The lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina and regulates sperm entry.

• Fertilization: The union of a male sperm and a female ovum forming a zygote.

Lead Question – 2022 (Ganganagar)

IUDs are small objects made up of plastic or copper that are inserted in the uterine cavity. Which of the following statements are correct about IUDs?
(a) IUDs decrease phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus.
(b) The released copper ions suppress the sperm motility.
(c) IUDs do not make the cervix hostile to the sperm.
(d) IUDs suppress the fertilization capacity of sperm.
(e) The IUDs require surgical intervention for their insertion in the uterine cavity.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. (a), (d) and (e) only
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (b) and (d) only
4. (d) only

Explanation: IUDs are effective contraceptive devices that work mainly by preventing sperm from fertilizing the egg. Copper ions released from copper-T suppress sperm motility and reduce fertilizing ability. They also enhance phagocytosis of sperm rather than decreasing it. IUD insertion is non-surgical. Hence, correct statements are (b) and (d). The correct answer is (3).

1. Single Correct Answer Type
Which of the following is a hormonal IUD?
1. Lippes Loop
2. CuT 380A
3. LNG-20
4. Multiload 375
Explanation: LNG-20 (Levonorgestrel-releasing IUD) is a hormonal intrauterine device that releases progesterone slowly into the uterus, thickening cervical mucus and preventing implantation. Copper-based IUDs like CuT 380A and Multiload 375 release copper ions, not hormones. Therefore, the correct answer is (3) LNG-20.

2. Single Correct Answer Type
The contraceptive effect of copper IUDs is mainly due to:
1. Destruction of ovum
2. Stimulation of ovulation
3. Suppression of sperm motility and fertilization capacity
4. Inhibition of implantation
Explanation: Copper ions released by IUDs act as spermicides, reducing sperm motility and viability, thus preventing fertilization. They do not directly affect ovulation or implantation. This makes copper IUDs highly effective and reversible methods of contraception. Hence, the correct answer is (3).

3. Single Correct Answer Type
Which of the following IUDs belongs to the second generation?
1. CuT 200
2. Lippes Loop
3. LNG-20
4. Multiload 375
Explanation: Second-generation IUDs are copper-releasing devices such as CuT 200, CuT 380A, and Multiload 375. They are more efficient and have longer life spans compared to the first-generation inert plastic loops like Lippes Loop. The third generation includes hormonal IUDs like LNG-20. The correct answer is (4) Multiload 375.

4. Single Correct Answer Type
Insertion of an IUD should ideally be done by:
1. The woman herself
2. A trained nurse or doctor
3. A pharmacist
4. Any adult female
Explanation: IUD insertion must be carried out by a trained medical professional such as a doctor or nurse under sterile conditions. Improper insertion can lead to uterine injury or infection. Thus, self-insertion or untrained handling is unsafe. The correct answer is (2) A trained nurse or doctor.

5. Single Correct Answer Type
Which of the following is an inert IUD?
1. CuT 380A
2. Lippes Loop
3. LNG-20
4. Multiload 375
Explanation: The first-generation IUDs, such as Lippes Loop, are inert and made of plastic. They act by inducing mild irritation in the uterine lining that prevents implantation. Copper and hormonal IUDs are more effective but not inert. Therefore, the correct answer is (2) Lippes Loop.

6. Single Correct Answer Type
Which of the following is a disadvantage of IUDs?
1. Long-term reversible protection
2. Possibility of pelvic infection
3. High failure rate
4. Enhances fertilization
Explanation: IUDs are generally safe but may occasionally cause pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) if aseptic precautions are not maintained during insertion. They provide long-term reversible protection and have a very low failure rate. Thus, the main disadvantage is possible pelvic infection. The correct answer is (2).

7. Assertion-Reason Type
Assertion (A): Copper IUDs act as effective contraceptives.
Reason (R): Copper ions released from IUDs enhance sperm motility and fertilizing ability.
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. Both A and R are false.
Explanation: Copper ions from IUDs actually reduce sperm motility and fertilizing capacity, thus preventing conception. The statement that copper enhances sperm motility is false. Hence, Assertion is true but Reason is false. The correct answer is (3).

8. Matching Type
Match the type of IUDs with their examples:
A. First generation — (i) CuT 380A
B. Second generation — (ii) Multiload 375
C. Third generation — (iii) LNG-20
1. A-i, B-ii, C-iii
2. A-ii, B-i, C-iii
3. A-Lippes Loop, B-CuT 380A, C-LNG-20
4. A-CuT 380A, B-Lippes Loop, C-LNG-20
Explanation: First-generation IUDs include inert devices like Lippes Loop. Second-generation devices include copper-based IUDs such as CuT 380A and Multiload 375. Third-generation IUDs are hormone-releasing ones like LNG-20. Hence, the correct match is (3).

9. Fill in the Blanks / Completion Type
Copper ions released by IUDs suppress ________ of sperm.
1. Formation
2. Motility and fertilizing capacity
3. Number
4. Metabolism
Explanation: Copper ions act locally in the uterine cavity, suppressing the motility and fertilizing ability of sperm. This prevents them from reaching and fertilizing the ovum. The ions also stimulate leukocytic response enhancing sperm destruction. Hence, the correct answer is (2) Motility and fertilizing capacity.

10. Choose the Correct Statements Type
Statement I: IUDs can be inserted by trained professionals without surgery.
Statement II: IUDs increase sperm motility and fertilization rate.
1. Both statements are true.
2. Both statements are false.
3. Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
4. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
Explanation: IUDs are non-surgical devices inserted by trained professionals and are one of the most effective reversible contraceptives. They release copper ions that suppress sperm motility rather than increasing it. Thus, Statement I is true and Statement II is false. The correct answer is (3).

Chapter: Reproductive Health; Topic: Contraception; Subtopic: Intrauterine Devices and Hormonal Contraceptives

Keyword Definitions:

• Intrauterine Device (IUD): A small T-shaped or loop device inserted into the uterus to prevent pregnancy.

• Progestogens: Hormonal contraceptives that include synthetic progesterone, usually administered orally, by injection, or implant.

• Multiload 375: A copper-releasing IUD used for long-term contraception.

• Lippes Loop: Plastic IUD designed to prevent pregnancy by creating an inhospitable uterine environment.

• Progestasert: Hormonal IUD releasing progesterone to prevent implantation.

• Contraception: Methods used to prevent pregnancy.

• Uterus: Female reproductive organ where fetal development occurs.

• Copper IUD: IUD type that releases copper ions to prevent fertilization.

• Hormonal IUD: IUD that releases progestin to thicken cervical mucus and prevent ovulation.

• Implant: Small rod inserted under the skin to release hormones.

• Pregnancy Prevention: Strategies or devices that inhibit conception or implantation.

Lead Question - 2022 (Ganganagar)

Which of the following is not an Intra Uterine Device?

1. Progestogens

2. Multiload 375

3. Lippes loop

4. Progestasert

Explanation: Intrauterine devices (IUDs) are small devices inserted into the uterus to prevent pregnancy, either by releasing copper ions or hormones. Multiload 375, Lippes loop, and Progestasert are all types of IUDs. Progestogens, however, are systemic hormonal contraceptives administered orally, via injection, or as implants, and are not inserted into the uterus. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, Progestogens. Understanding the distinction between intrauterine devices and systemic hormonal methods is important for effective contraceptive counseling and reproductive health management.

1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which IUD releases copper to prevent fertilization?

a) Progestasert

b) Lippes loop

c) Multiload 375

d) Progestogens

Explanation: Multiload 375 is a copper-releasing IUD. Copper ions create a toxic environment for sperm, preventing fertilization. Correct answer is c.

2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Progestogens as contraceptives are administered by:

a) Intrauterine insertion

b) Oral, injection, or implant

c) Vaginal ring only

d) Copper coils

Explanation: Progestogens are systemic hormonal contraceptives given orally, by injection, or via subdermal implant. They are not IUDs. Correct answer is b.

3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which of the following IUDs is hormonal?

a) Lippes loop

b) Multiload 375

c) Progestasert

d) Copper T 380A

Explanation: Progestasert releases progesterone hormone to prevent implantation and is classified as a hormonal IUD. Correct answer is c.

4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Lippes loop prevents pregnancy primarily by:

a) Releasing hormones

b) Inducing local uterine inflammation

c) Blocking fallopian tubes

d) Systemic hormonal suppression

Explanation: Lippes loop is a plastic IUD that prevents implantation by creating local uterine inflammation. Correct answer is b.

5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which contraceptive method is not placed inside the uterus?

a) Multiload 375

b) Progestasert

c) Progestogen implant

d) Lippes loop

Explanation: Progestogen implants are placed under the skin and release hormones systemically. They are not intrauterine devices. Correct answer is c.

6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:

Which IUD type thickens cervical mucus and releases hormone?

a) Copper IUD

b) Lippes loop

c) Progestasert

d) Multiload 375

Explanation: Progestasert is a hormonal IUD that releases progesterone and thickens cervical mucus, inhibiting sperm penetration. Correct answer is c.

7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:

Assertion (A): Copper IUDs prevent pregnancy without hormones.

Reason (R): Copper ions create a toxic environment for sperm and ova.

a) Both A and R true, R explains A

b) Both A and R true, R does not explain A

c) A true, R false

d) Both false

Explanation: Copper IUDs act by releasing copper ions toxic to sperm. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the mechanism. Correct answer is a.

8. Matching Type MCQ:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I | List-II

(a) Multiload 375 | (i) Hormonal IUD

(b) Progestogen | (ii) Systemic hormone

(c) Lippes loop | (iii) Plastic non-hormonal IUD

(d) Progestasert | (iv) Hormonal IUD

Options:

1. a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

2. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

3. a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

4. a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv

Explanation: Multiload 375 is a copper IUD (iv), Progestogens are systemic (ii), Lippes loop is plastic non-hormonal (iii), Progestasert is hormonal (i). Correct answer is 1.

9. Fill in the Blanks / Completion MCQ:

__________ is a systemic contraceptive and not an IUD.

a) Lippes loop

b) Progestogens

c) Multiload 375

d) Progestasert

Explanation: Progestogens are hormonal contraceptives administered orally, by injection, or implant. They are not intrauterine devices. Correct answer is b.

10. Choose the correct statements MCQ (Statement I & II):

Statement I: Lippes loop is a plastic IUD.

Statement II: Progestogen implants are placed inside the uterus.

a) Both I and II correct

b) Only I correct

c) Only II correct

d) Both incorrect

Explanation: Statement I is correct; Lippes loop is a plastic IUD. Statement II is false because progestogen implants are subdermal, not intrauterine. Correct answer is b. 

Topic: Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART); Subtopic: Methods and Procedures Used in ART

Keyword Definitions:

• ART (Assisted Reproductive Technology): Techniques that help infertile couples conceive, such as IVF, ZIFT, and IUT.

• IVF (In Vitro Fertilization): Fusion of gametes outside the body followed by embryo transfer into the uterus.

• ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer): Transfer of a fertilized egg (zygote) into the fallopian tube.

• IUT (Intrauterine Transfer): Transfer of an embryo directly into the uterus.

• IUD (Intrauterine Device): A contraceptive device placed inside the uterus to prevent pregnancy.

Lead Question – 2022 (Abroad)
Which one of the following is not an Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) used by childless couples to have children?
1. ZIFT
2. IUD
3. IVF
4. IUT

Explanation: IUD (Intrauterine Device) is a contraceptive used to prevent pregnancy, not to assist conception. ART methods like IVF, ZIFT, and IUT are designed to help infertile couples conceive by manipulating gametes or embryos. Hence, IUD is not an ART method. Correct answer: 2. IUD

1. Which ART technique involves transferring embryos with more than 8 blastomeres into the fallopian tube?
1. ZIFT
2. GIFT
3. IUT
4. ICSI

Explanation: ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer) involves transferring zygotes or early-stage embryos into the fallopian tube. It is done after in vitro fertilization when the embryo has 8 or more blastomeres. It allows natural implantation in the uterus after fertilization. Correct answer: 1. ZIFT

2. Which of the following ART procedures involves the injection of a single sperm directly into an ovum?
1. GIFT
2. ICSI
3. ZIFT
4. IVF

Explanation: ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection) is a specialized ART technique where a single sperm is injected directly into the cytoplasm of an ovum. It is particularly useful for severe male infertility where sperm count or motility is low. Correct answer: 2. ICSI

3. Which of the following is not an example of in vitro fertilization?
1. ZIFT
2. IUT
3. GIFT
4. Test Tube Baby

Explanation: GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer) involves transferring gametes directly into the fallopian tube, where fertilization occurs naturally inside the body. It is not an in vitro process, unlike ZIFT, IUT, and Test Tube Baby techniques. Correct answer: 3. GIFT

4. Which ART procedure involves transfer of ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another woman?
1. IUT
2. ZIFT
3. GIFT
4. Surrogacy

Explanation: GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer) involves transferring gametes (sperm and ovum) into the fallopian tube for in vivo fertilization. If ovum is donated, it still falls under GIFT when transferred to another woman’s tube for conception. Correct answer: 3. GIFT

5. In IVF, fertilization occurs:
1. Inside the uterus
2. Inside the fallopian tube
3. In a laboratory dish
4. In the vagina

Explanation: IVF (In Vitro Fertilization) literally means fertilization outside the body, in a laboratory dish. The zygote or early embryo is later transferred into the uterus or fallopian tube for implantation and development. Correct answer: 3. In a laboratory dish

6. Which ART procedure helps overcome blockage in the oviducts?
1. GIFT
2. ZIFT
3. ICSI
4. IVF

Explanation: IVF is most suitable when fallopian tubes are blocked or damaged, preventing natural fertilization. By performing fertilization outside the body and transferring the embryo, IVF bypasses the need for oviductal transport. Correct answer: 4. IVF

Assertion-Reason Question
7. Assertion (A): Surrogacy involves a woman carrying an embryo for another couple.
Reason (R): Surrogacy is illegal in all countries.
1. (A) is true but (R) is false
2. (A) is false but (R) is true
3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
4. Both (A) and (R) are false

Explanation: Surrogacy involves a woman carrying a baby for another couple, often when the biological mother cannot carry pregnancy. It is legal in some countries under regulation, not banned globally. Hence, (A) is true, (R) is false. Correct answer: 1. (A) is true but (R) is false

Matching Type Question
8. Match the following:
A. IVF — (i) Fertilization outside body
B. ZIFT — (ii) Transfer of zygote
C. IUT — (iii) Transfer of embryo
D. GIFT — (iv) Transfer of gametes
1. A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
2. A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i
3. A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–i
4. A–iv, B–i, C–ii, D–iii

Explanation: IVF involves fertilization outside the body (i). ZIFT transfers zygotes (ii). IUT involves embryo transfer (iii). GIFT transfers gametes (iv) into the fallopian tube for in vivo fertilization. The correct matching is A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv. Correct answer: 1. A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv

Fill in the Blanks Question
9. The technique of transferring embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus is known as ________.
1. GIFT
2. ZIFT
3. IUT
4. ICSI

Explanation: IUT (Intrauterine Transfer) involves transferring embryos with more than 8 blastomeres directly into the uterus for implantation. It ensures proper embryonic growth and implantation in the endometrial lining. Correct answer: 3. IUT

Choose the Correct Statements Question
10. Statement I: GIFT involves transfer of zygote into the fallopian tube.
Statement II: ZIFT involves transfer of gametes into the fallopian tube.
1. Only Statement I is correct
2. Only Statement II is correct
3. Both Statements are correct
4. Both Statements are incorrect

Explanation: In GIFT, gametes (not zygote) are transferred into the fallopian tube for natural fertilization. In ZIFT, a zygote is transferred. Thus, both statements are incorrect. Correct answer: 4. Both Statements are incorrect

Topic: Contraception Methods; Subtopic: Intrauterine Devices (IUDs)

Keyword Definitions:

• Hormone-releasing IUD: Intrauterine device that releases progestin to prevent pregnancy by thickening cervical mucus and altering endometrial lining.

• Multiload 375: Copper IUD that may also be available in hormone-releasing versions in some formulations.

• LNG-20: Levonorgestrel-releasing IUD, a hormonal device effective for several years.

• Progestasert: Early hormone-releasing IUD releasing progesterone to prevent implantation.

• Lippe's loop: Copper IUD without hormonal release, prevents pregnancy mechanically.

• Vaults: Rare form of hormone-releasing IUD.

Lead Question - 2022 (Abroad)
The hormone releasing IUDs among the following are:
(a) Multiload 375 (b) LNG - 20
(c) Progestasert (d) Lippe's loop
(e) Vaults
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. (a) and (d) only
2. (c) and (e) only
3. (a) and (b) only
4. (b) and (c) only
Explanation: Hormone-releasing IUDs release progestin to prevent pregnancy. Among the listed options, LNG-20 and Progestasert are classic hormone-releasing devices, whereas Lippe's loop and Multiload 375 primarily rely on copper and mechanical action, not hormone release. Vaults are also hormone-based but less commonly used. Hence, the correct combination representing hormone-releasing IUDs is b and c. These devices act by thickening cervical mucus, inhibiting sperm motility, and altering endometrial lining, providing effective contraception for several years depending on the device type.

1. Single Correct Answer Type:
Which of the following is a purely copper IUD without hormonal release?
1. LNG-20
2. Progestasert
3. Lippe's loop
4. Vaults
Explanation: Lippe's loop is a copper-based IUD that does not release hormones. It prevents pregnancy mechanically by interfering with sperm movement and implantation. Unlike LNG-20 or Progestasert, which release progestin to alter cervical mucus and endometrial lining, Lippe's loop relies solely on the contraceptive effect of copper ions, which are spermicidal and inhibit fertilization.

2. Single Correct Answer Type:
Which IUD releases levonorgestrel for long-term contraception?
1. Multiload 375
2. LNG-20
3. Progestasert
4. Lippe's loop
Explanation: LNG-20 is a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device that provides effective long-term contraception, typically for 3–5 years. Levonorgestrel thickens cervical mucus, reduces sperm motility, and alters the endometrial lining to prevent implantation. This hormonal mechanism distinguishes LNG-20 from copper-only devices like Lippe's loop, which act mechanically and chemically without hormone release.

3. Single Correct Answer Type:
Progestasert IUD primarily works by:
1. Copper ion release
2. Progesterone release
3. Mechanical barrier only
4. Estrogen release
Explanation: Progestasert releases progesterone locally into the uterine cavity. Progesterone thickens cervical mucus, reduces sperm penetration, and alters endometrium to prevent implantation. Unlike copper IUDs, it does not rely on mechanical action or ion toxicity. Its efficacy lasts approximately one year, and it represents an early form of hormone-releasing IUDs designed to provide controlled contraceptive effects through hormonal rather than purely mechanical mechanisms.

4. Single Correct Answer Type:
Which mechanism is common to all hormonal IUDs?
1. Inhibit ovulation completely
2. Thicken cervical mucus
3. Increase endometrial receptivity
4. Release copper ions
Explanation: All hormonal IUDs, such as LNG-20 and Progestasert, thicken cervical mucus, preventing sperm from reaching the egg. They may also alter the endometrial lining, reducing implantation potential. They do not rely on copper ions and do not always inhibit ovulation entirely. The primary contraceptive effect is local and hormone-mediated rather than systemic or mechanical.

5. Single Correct Answer Type:
Which IUD type is replaced annually due to limited hormonal duration?
1. LNG-20
2. Progestasert
3. Multiload 375
4. Lippe's loop
Explanation: Progestasert

6. Single Correct Answer Type:
Vaults IUD is characterized by:
1. Copper release
2. Hormonal release
3. Mechanical only
4. Non-contraceptive use
Explanation: Vaults is a hormone-releasing IUD. It provides contraceptive effects primarily by releasing progesterone, which thickens cervical mucus and alters endometrial lining. Unlike copper IUDs, Vaults does not rely on ion toxicity. Although less commonly used, it is part of the hormone-releasing IUD category and demonstrates the efficacy of localized hormonal contraception in preventing pregnancy over the device’s lifespan.

7. Assertion-Reason Type:
Assertion (A): LNG-20 and Progestasert are hormonal IUDs.
Reason (R): They release progesterone or levonorgestrel to prevent pregnancy.
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true
Explanation: Both Assertion and Reason are correct. LNG-20 releases levonorgestrel, and Progestasert releases progesterone. These hormones prevent pregnancy by thickening cervical mucus, reducing sperm motility, and altering the endometrium. This local hormonal action distinguishes them from copper or mechanical IUDs, and the reason explains why these devices are classified as hormonal IUDs.

8. Matching Type:
Match the IUD with its type:
A. LNG-20 → (i) Hormonal
B. Lippe's loop → (ii) Copper
C. Progestasert → (iii) Hormonal
D. Multiload 375 → (iv) Copper
1. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
2. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
3. A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
4. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
Explanation: Correct matching is A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv). LNG-20 and Progestasert release hormones, making them hormonal IUDs. Lippe's loop and Multiload 375 are copper-based, non-hormonal devices. This distinction is essential for selecting IUDs based on patient needs, duration of action, and hormonal versus non-hormonal contraception preferences.

9. Fill in the Blanks Type:
The hormone released by LNG-20 IUD is _______, while that released by Progestasert is _______.

1. Estrogen, Progesterone

2. Levonorgestrel, Progesterone

3. Progesterone, Levonorgestrel

4. Copper ions, Progesterone
   
   

Explanation: LNG-20 releases levonorgestrel, a synthetic progestin, providing contraception for 3–5 years by thickening cervical mucus and suppressing endometrial growth. Progestasert releases natural progesterone, effective for about one year. Both act locally within the uterus without systemic hormonal overload, distinguishing them from copper-based mechanical IUDs.

10. Choose the Correct Statements Type:
Identify the correct statements regarding hormonal IUDs:

A. They release progesterone or its analogues locally.
B. They act mainly by inhibiting ovulation.
C. They thicken cervical mucus, preventing sperm penetration.
D. They alter the endometrial lining, reducing implantation chances.

Options:

1. A and C only

2. A, C and D only

3. B and D only

4. A and B only
   
   

Explanation: Correct answer → 2. A, C and D only.
Hormonal IUDs (e.g., LNG-20, Progestasert) release progesterone or its analogues directly into the uterus. Their contraceptive effect depends on thickening cervical mucus, reducing sperm motility, and modifying the endometrium to prevent implantation. They do not consistently inhibit ovulation, unlike systemic hormonal contraceptives.

Topic: Contraception
Subtopic: Methods and Mechanisms of Action

Keyword Definitions:
- Contraception: Methods used to prevent pregnancy.
- Diaphragm: Barrier device covering the cervix to block sperm entry.
- Contraceptive Pills: Hormonal drugs that inhibit ovulation and implantation.
- Intrauterine Device (IUD): Device placed in uterus to prevent fertilization and increase phagocytosis of sperm.
- Lactational Amenorrhea: Temporary infertility due to breastfeeding after childbirth.
- Ovulation: Release of an egg from the ovary.
- Implantation: Attachment of fertilized egg to uterine wall.
- Sperm phagocytosis: Destruction of sperm by immune cells.
- Barrier methods: Contraceptive methods that prevent sperm from reaching the egg.
- Hormonal methods: Methods using synthetic hormones to prevent pregnancy.
- Fertility control: Techniques or devices used to regulate reproduction.

Lead Question - 2022:
Match List - I with List - II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions:
List - I List - II
(a) Diaphragms (i) Inhibit ovulation and implantation
(b) Contraceptive Pills (ii) Increase phagocytosis of sperm within uterus
(c) Intra Uterine Devices (iii) Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation following parturition
(d) Lactational Amenorrhea (iv) They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)- (ii), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)- (i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)- (i), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)- (iii), (d)-(ii)

Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Diaphragms act as a barrier by covering the cervix to block sperm entry. Contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation and implantation. Intrauterine devices increase phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus. Lactational amenorrhea results in temporary absence of menstrual cycles and ovulation following childbirth, preventing pregnancy.

1. Single Correct Answer:
Which contraceptive method primarily prevents ovulation?
(a) Diaphragm
(b) Contraceptive pills
(c) Intrauterine device
(d) Condom
Explanation: Contraceptive pills prevent pregnancy mainly by inhibiting ovulation through synthetic hormones. Diaphragms and condoms act as barriers, and IUDs interfere with sperm or implantation rather than stopping ovulation.

2. Single Correct Answer:
Which method increases sperm phagocytosis in the uterus?
(a) Diaphragm
(b) Contraceptive pills
(c) Intrauterine device
(d) Lactational amenorrhea
Explanation: Intrauterine devices (IUDs) increase phagocytosis of sperm in the uterus, reducing the chance of fertilization. Other methods act by hormonal inhibition, physical barriers, or temporary infertility.

3. Single Correct Answer:
Which is a temporary postnatal contraceptive method?
(a) Diaphragm
(b) Contraceptive pills
(c) Lactational amenorrhea
(d) IUD
Explanation: Lactational amenorrhea temporarily prevents ovulation due to breastfeeding after childbirth. It is effective only during the period of exclusive breastfeeding, whereas other methods provide continuous contraception independent of postpartum state.

4. Single Correct Answer:
Which contraceptive method acts as a barrier at the cervix?
(a) Condom
(b) Diaphragm
(c) Pills
(d) IUD
Explanation: The diaphragm covers the cervix, preventing sperm from entering the uterus. Condoms prevent sperm deposition, pills act hormonally, and IUDs work inside the uterine cavity to disrupt fertilization and implantation.

5. Single Correct Answer:
Which method inhibits both ovulation and implantation?
(a) Condom
(b) IUD
(c) Contraceptive pills
(d) Diaphragm
Explanation: Contraceptive pills act hormonally to inhibit ovulation and prevent implantation of fertilized eggs. Barrier methods and IUDs prevent fertilization but do not primarily affect ovulation.

6. Single Correct Answer:
Which method provides a physical barrier only?
(a) Diaphragm
(b) Pills
(c) IUD
(d) Lactational amenorrhea
Explanation: The diaphragm is a purely physical barrier that blocks sperm from entering the uterus. Pills and IUDs have hormonal or biochemical actions, and lactational amenorrhea acts through physiological suppression of ovulation.

7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Contraceptive pills prevent pregnancy by hormonal action.
Reason (R): They inhibit ovulation and alter uterine lining for implantation.
(a) Both A and R are true, R explains A
(b) Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
(c) A is true, R is false
(d) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Option (a) is correct. Contraceptive pills act hormonally, preventing ovulation and modifying the uterine lining to prevent implantation. Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason explains the mechanism of action.

8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match contraceptive methods with their primary actions:
List - I List - II
(a) Diaphragm (i) Hormonal inhibition of ovulation
(b) Contraceptive Pills (ii) Covers cervix to block sperm
(c) IUD (iii) Increases sperm phagocytosis
(d) Lactational amenorrhea (iv) Absence of menstruation and ovulation
Options:
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Explanation: Option (1) is correct. Diaphragm covers cervix, contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation, IUD increases sperm phagocytosis, and lactational amenorrhea prevents menstruation and ovulation postpartum. This matches methods with their main mechanisms accurately.

9. Fill in the Blanks:
________ prevents sperm from entering the uterus by covering the cervix.
(a) Contraceptive pills
(b) Diaphragm
(c) IUD
(d) Lactational amenorrhea
Explanation: The diaphragm physically covers the cervix, preventing sperm entry into the uterus. Pills act hormonally, IUD interferes with fertilization, and lactational amenorrhea suppresses ovulation post childbirth.

10. Choose the Correct Statements:
Identify correct statements:
1. IUD increases sperm phagocytosis.
2. Contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation.
3. Lactational amenorrhea provides permanent contraception.
4. Diaphragm acts as a barrier method.
Options:
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 2, 3, 4
(d) 1, 3, 4
Explanation: Option (b) is correct. IUD increases sperm phagocytosis, contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation, and the diaphragm blocks sperm physically. Lactational amenorrhea provides temporary, not permanent, contraception. Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

Topic: Contraception
Subtopic: Intrauterine Devices (IUDs)

Keyword Definitions:
• Lippe’s loop: A type of intrauterine device (IUD) used for contraception.
• Contraceptive: A device, drug, or method used to prevent pregnancy.
• IUD: Intrauterine device, a small T-shaped or looped device inserted into the uterus for birth control.
• Non-medicated IUD: IUD that prevents pregnancy without releasing hormones or copper.
• Copper IUD: IUD that releases copper ions to prevent fertilization.
• Vault barrier: A contraceptive device placed in the vagina to block sperm.
• Cervical barrier: Device like diaphragm or cervical cap preventing sperm entry.
• Hormonal contraceptives: Pills or implants releasing hormones to inhibit ovulation.
• Menstrual cycle: Monthly hormonal cycle in females that regulates ovulation.
• Fertilization: Union of sperm and ovum to form a zygote.

Lead Question (2022):
Lippe’s loop is a type contraceptive used as:
(1) Vault barrier
(2) Non-Medicated IUD
(3) Copper releasing IUD
(4) Cervical barrier

Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Lippe’s loop is a non-medicated intrauterine device (IUD) used for long-term contraception. It is inserted into the uterus to prevent fertilization by creating a mechanical barrier without releasing hormones or copper, providing a reversible and safe method for birth control.

Guessed MCQs:

1. Single Correct Answer:
Which IUD releases copper ions to prevent pregnancy?
(a) Lippe’s loop
(b) Copper IUD
(c) Hormonal IUD
(d) Cervical cap
Explanation: The correct answer is (b). Copper IUDs release copper ions that are toxic to sperm, preventing fertilization effectively and providing long-term contraception.

2. Single Correct Answer:
Which contraceptive device is placed in the vagina to block sperm entry?
(a) Vault barrier
(b) Copper IUD
(c) Hormonal IUD
(d) Lippe’s loop
Explanation: The correct answer is (a). Vault barriers, like diaphragms, are inserted into the vagina to cover the cervix and block sperm from reaching the uterus, providing a barrier contraceptive method.

3. Single Correct Answer:
Which type of IUD works without releasing any medication?
(a) Copper IUD
(b) Hormonal IUD
(c) Non-medicated IUD
(d) Vault barrier
Explanation: The correct answer is (c). Non-medicated IUDs, like Lippe’s loop, act as mechanical devices inserted into the uterus to prevent fertilization without releasing hormones or copper.

4. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Copper IUDs prevent pregnancy by releasing copper ions.
Reason (R): Copper ions are toxic to sperm and prevent fertilization.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
(c) A is correct, R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect, R is correct
Explanation: The correct answer is (a). Copper IUDs release copper ions which are spermicidal, preventing sperm from fertilizing the ovum and providing effective contraception.

5. Single Correct Answer:
Which contraceptive device is reversible and long-term without hormones?
(a) Hormonal IUD
(b) Lippe’s loop
(c) Oral pills
(d) Condoms
Explanation: The correct answer is (b). Lippe’s loop provides long-term, reversible contraception without the use of hormones, by acting as a mechanical barrier inside the uterus.

6. Single Correct Answer:
Which method of contraception uses a physical barrier over the cervix?
(a) Vault barrier
(b) Lippe’s loop
(c) Copper IUD
(d) Hormonal injection
Explanation: The correct answer is (a). Cervical barriers, such as diaphragms or vault barriers, prevent sperm from entering the uterus by covering the cervical opening.

7. Matching Type:
Match the contraceptive device with its category:
Column A
1. Lippe’s loop
2. Copper IUD
3. Diaphragm
Column B
A. Non-medicated IUD
B. Copper releasing IUD
C. Cervical barrier
Options:
(a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
(b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
(c) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
(d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B
Explanation: The correct answer is (a). Lippe’s loop is a non-medicated IUD, copper IUD releases copper ions, and diaphragm is a cervical barrier.

8. Fill in the Blanks:
Lippe’s loop is a type of ______ used for long-term contraception.
(a) Hormonal implant
(b) Non-medicated IUD
(c) Copper IUD
(d) Vault barrier
Explanation: The correct answer is (b). Lippe’s loop is a non-medicated intrauterine device providing long-term reversible contraception without releasing hormones or copper.

9. Single Correct Answer:
Which contraceptive method provides mechanical blockage inside the uterus?
(a) Copper IUD
(b) Lippe’s loop
(c) Oral pills
(d) Condom
Explanation: The correct answer is (b). Lippe’s loop acts as a mechanical barrier within the uterus, preventing fertilization without chemical or hormonal action.

10. Choose the correct statements:
(a) Lippe’s loop is a non-medicated IUD
(b) Copper IUD releases copper ions
(c) Vault barrier is placed inside uterus
(d) Cervical barrier prevents sperm entry
Explanation: The correct answer is (a), (b), and (d). Vault barrier is inserted in the vagina, not uterus.

Subtopic: Intrauterine Devices (IUDs)

• IUD: Intrauterine device, a contraceptive device inserted into the uterus to prevent pregnancy.

• Hormone-releasing IUD: Releases hormones like levonorgestrel to prevent fertilization or implantation.

• LNG 20: A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device.

• CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375: Copper-containing IUDs that prevent pregnancy by spermicidal action.

• Levonorgestrel: Synthetic progestin used in hormonal contraception.

• Contraception: Methods used to prevent pregnancy.

• Uterus: Female reproductive organ where IUD is placed.

• Fertilization: Fusion of sperm and egg to form zygote.

• Implantation: Attachment of fertilized egg to uterine wall.

• Spermicidal effect: Action that kills or immobilizes sperm.

• Reproductive health: Overall health related to reproductive system function and contraception.

Lead Question - 2021

Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?

(1) LNG 20
(2) Cu7
(3) Multiload 375
(4) CuT

Explanation: LNG 20 is a hormone-releasing IUD containing levonorgestrel that prevents fertilization by thickening cervical mucus and inhibiting sperm movement. Copper IUDs like Cu7, Multiload 375, and CuT prevent pregnancy mechanically or via spermicidal action, not by hormone release. Answer: LNG 20.

1. Single Correct Answer MCQ: The hormone released by LNG 20 primarily is:
Options:
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone (Levonorgestrel)
C. Testosterone
D. Oxytocin

Explanation: LNG 20 releases levonorgestrel, a synthetic form of progesterone, which thickens cervical mucus, inhibits sperm motility, and prevents fertilization. Estrogen, testosterone, and oxytocin are not involved in LNG IUD contraception. Answer: Progesterone (Levonorgestrel).

2. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Copper-containing IUDs prevent pregnancy by:
Options:
A. Hormone release
B. Spermicidal effect
C. Ovulation inhibition
D. Uterine contraction

Explanation: Copper IUDs like CuT release copper ions, which are toxic to sperm, producing a spermicidal effect. They do not release hormones or inhibit ovulation. Answer: Spermicidal effect.

3. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Multiload 375 is a type of:
Options:
A. Hormonal IUD
B. Copper IUD
C. Injectable contraceptive
D. Oral contraceptive

Explanation: Multiload 375 is a copper-containing IUD providing long-term contraception by spermicidal effect. It does not release hormones. Answer: Copper IUD.

4. Single Correct Answer MCQ: One advantage of hormone-releasing IUDs over copper IUDs is:
Options:
A. Increased menstrual bleeding
B. Reduced menstrual cramps
C. Higher risk of pregnancy
D. Mechanical blockage only

Explanation: Hormonal IUDs like LNG 20 reduce menstrual bleeding and cramps in addition to preventing pregnancy. Copper IUDs may increase bleeding and cramps. Answer: Reduced menstrual cramps.

5. Single Correct Answer MCQ: LNG 20 IUD is effective for approximately:
Options:
A. 1 year
B. 3-5 years
C. 10 years
D. Lifelong

Explanation: LNG 20 provides effective contraception for 3 to 5 years after insertion, releasing levonorgestrel gradually. Answer: 3-5 years.

6. Single Correct Answer MCQ: A primary mechanism by which LNG 20 prevents pregnancy is:
Options:
A. Ovulation inhibition
B. Thickening cervical mucus
C. Increasing uterine contractions
D. Destroying oocytes

Explanation: LNG 20 thickens cervical mucus, hindering sperm movement and preventing fertilization. Ovulation may also be partially inhibited. Answer: Thickening cervical mucus.

7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): LNG 20 is a hormone-releasing IUD.
Reason (R): It releases levonorgestrel into the uterine cavity.
Options:
A. Both A and R true, R correct explanation
B. Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
C. A true, R false
D. A false, R true

Explanation: LNG 20 releases levonorgestrel locally into the uterus, functioning as a hormone-releasing IUD. Both assertion and reason are true, and R correctly explains A. Answer: Both A and R true, R correct explanation.

8. Matching Type MCQ:
List I: 1. Hormonal IUD 2. Copper IUD 3. Mechanism of LNG 20 4. Mechanism of CuT
List II: A. Spermicidal effect B. Levonorgestrel release C. Thickening cervical mucus D. Mechanical presence
Options:
A. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
B. 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
C. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
D. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

Explanation: Hormonal IUD (LNG 20) releases levonorgestrel, thickens cervical mucus; Copper IUD (CuT) acts spermicidally and prevents implantation mechanically. Answer: 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D.

9. Fill in the Blank MCQ: LNG 20 primarily prevents pregnancy by ______.
Options:
A. Destroying sperm
B. Thickening cervical mucus
C. Removing ovum
D. Blocking fallopian tube

Explanation: LNG 20 releases levonorgestrel that thickens cervical mucus, blocking sperm entry into uterus and fertilization. Answer: Thickening cervical mucus.

10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
Options:
A. LNG 20 releases levonorgestrel
B. CuT prevents pregnancy by hormone release
C. Multiload 375 is copper-based
D. LNG 20 increases menstrual bleeding

Explanation: LNG 20 releases levonorgestrel and reduces bleeding, CuT does not release hormones, Multiload 375 is copper-based. Correct statements: A and C. Answer: A and C.

Subtopic: Methods of Birth Control

• Vasectomy: Surgical removal or blockage of the vas deferens to prevent sperm transport.

• Tubectomy: Surgical removal or ligation of fallopian tubes to prevent fertilization.

• IUD (Intrauterine Device): Device inserted into the uterus to prevent implantation or cause phagocytosis of sperm.

• Vaults: Barrier contraceptive method blocking entry of sperm through the cervix.

• Contraception: Methods used to prevent pregnancy.

• Sperm Phagocytosis: Destruction of sperm by immune cells in the uterus or fallopian tubes.

• Fallopian Tube: Tube connecting ovary to uterus where fertilization may occur.

• Vas Deferens: Duct carrying sperm from testes to urethra.

• Cervix: Lower part of uterus connecting to vagina.

• Barrier Method: Contraceptive method physically preventing sperm from reaching the egg.

• Surgical Sterilization: Permanent contraception achieved through surgery on reproductive organs.

Lead Question - 2021

Match List - I with List - II

List - I: (a) Vaults (b) IUDs (c) Vasectomy (d) Tubectomy
List - II: (i) Entry of sperm through Cervix is blocked (ii) Removal of Vas deferens (iii) Phagocytosis of sperms within the Uterus (iv) Removal of fallopian tube

Options:
1. (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)
2. (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i)
3. (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
4. (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)

Explanation: Correct matching: Vaults block sperm at the cervix (i), IUDs induce phagocytosis of sperm (iii), Vasectomy removes or blocks vas deferens (ii), and Tubectomy removes fallopian tubes (iv). Answer: (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv).

1. Which method physically blocks sperm entry into the uterus?
Options:
A. Vasectomy
B. IUD
C. Vaults
D. Tubectomy

Explanation: Vaults act as a barrier to prevent sperm from entering the cervix and uterus. Other methods function via surgical or cellular mechanisms. Answer: Vaults.

2. Which contraceptive method involves removal of vas deferens?
Options:
A. Tubectomy
B. Vasectomy
C. IUD
D. Vaults

Explanation: Vasectomy involves surgically removing or blocking the vas deferens, preventing sperm from reaching ejaculate, resulting in permanent male sterilization. Answer: Vasectomy.

3. Which contraceptive device causes sperm phagocytosis?
Options:
A. Vaults
B. IUD
C. Vasectomy
D. Tubectomy

Explanation: IUDs prevent pregnancy by inducing local immune responses in the uterus, leading to phagocytosis of sperm, and preventing fertilization. Vaults and surgical methods do not involve cellular destruction. Answer: IUD.

4. Tubectomy is a method for:
Options:
A. Male sterilization
B. Female sterilization
C. Temporary contraception
D. Barrier method

Explanation: Tubectomy involves surgical removal or ligation of fallopian tubes in females, providing permanent sterilization. It is not temporary or male contraception. Answer: Female sterilization.

5. Which contraceptive is permanent for males?
Options:
A. IUD
B. Vaults
C. Vasectomy
D. Tubectomy

Explanation: Vasectomy permanently prevents sperm transport by cutting or blocking the vas deferens. IUDs and vaults are temporary, and tubectomy is female-specific. Answer: Vasectomy.

6. Barrier contraceptives work by:
Options:
A. Destroying sperm
B. Blocking sperm entry
C. Removing reproductive organs
D. Inducing immune phagocytosis

Explanation: Barrier methods like vaults physically prevent sperm from reaching the egg, without destroying them or performing surgical removal. IUDs may induce immune response, but vaults act as barriers. Answer: Blocking sperm entry.

7. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): IUDs prevent fertilization.
Reason (R): IUDs induce phagocytosis of sperm in the uterus.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation
B. Both A and R are true, R is not correct explanation
C. A is true, R is false
D. A is false, R is true

Explanation: IUDs prevent fertilization by triggering local immune reactions that cause phagocytosis of sperm in the uterus. The reason accurately explains the mechanism. Answer: Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation.

8. Match the following:
Column I: 1. Vaults 2. Vasectomy 3. Tubectomy 4. IUD
Column II: A. Blocks sperm at cervix B. Removes vas deferens C. Removes fallopian tube D. Phagocytosis of sperm
Options:
A. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
B. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
C. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
D. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

Explanation: Correct matching: Vaults block sperm at cervix (A), Vasectomy removes vas deferens (B), Tubectomy removes fallopian tubes (C), IUD induces sperm phagocytosis (D). Answer: 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D.

9. Fill in the blank: Permanent sterilization in females is achieved by _______.
Options:
A. Vasectomy
B. Tubectomy
C. IUD
D. Vaults

Explanation: Tubectomy provides permanent female sterilization by removing or ligating the fallopian tubes, preventing egg transport and fertilization. Other methods are temporary or male-specific. Answer: Tubectomy.

10. Choose the correct statements:
1. Vasectomy is male sterilization.
2. IUD causes phagocytosis of sperm.
3. Vaults block sperm entry.
4. Tubectomy is female sterilization.
Options:
A. 1, 2, 3 only
B. 2, 3, 4 only
C. 1, 3, 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation: All statements are correct. Vasectomy and tubectomy are permanent sterilizations for males and females, IUDs induce sperm phagocytosis, and vaults block sperm entry into the cervix. Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4.

Topic: Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)
Subtopic: Curable and Non-curable STDs

Keyword Definitions:

• STD (Sexually Transmitted Disease): Diseases transmitted through sexual contact.

• Genital herpes: Viral infection causing recurrent blisters, not curable.

• Hepatitis B: Viral liver infection, preventable by vaccine, chronic infection not curable.

• HIV infection: Virus causing immunodeficiency, currently not curable.

• Chlamydiasis: Bacterial STD, curable with antibiotics.

• Syphilis: Bacterial STD, treatable in early stages with penicillin.

• Genital warts: Caused by HPV, not completely curable.

• Gonorrhoea: Bacterial STD, curable with antibiotics.

• Trichomoniasis: Protozoal STD, curable with antiprotozoal drugs.

• Curable STDs: STDs that can be eliminated with proper treatment.

• Non-curable STDs: Viral STDs that persist lifelong, requiring management only.

Lead Question - 2020 (COVID Reexam)

Which of the following STDs are not curable?

1. Genital herpes, Hepatitis B, HIV infection
2. Chlamydiasis, Syphilis, Genital warts
3. HIV, Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis
4. Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis, Hepatitis

Explanation: The correct answer is option 1. Genital herpes, Hepatitis B (chronic), and HIV are viral infections that cannot be completely cured. Treatments can manage symptoms and viral load, but the virus persists lifelong. Bacterial and protozoal STDs like Chlamydiasis, Syphilis, Gonorrhoea, and Trichomoniasis are curable with appropriate antibiotics or drugs.

1. Chapter: Human Health and Diseases
Topic: Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)
Subtopic: Curable and Non-curable STDs

Keyword Definitions:

• STD (Sexually Transmitted Disease): Diseases transmitted sexually.

• Genital herpes: Viral infection causing recurrent blisters.

• Hepatitis B: Viral liver infection, chronic form not curable.

• HIV infection: Virus causing immunodeficiency, not curable.

• Chlamydiasis: Bacterial STD, treatable with antibiotics.

• Syphilis: Bacterial infection, curable in early stages.

• Genital warts: Caused by HPV, managed but not curable.

• Gonorrhoea: Bacterial STD, curable with proper antibiotics.

• Trichomoniasis: Protozoal infection, curable with antiprotozoal drugs.

• Curable STDs: Eliminated completely by treatment.

• Non-curable STDs: Persistent viral infections managed symptomatically.

Q1. Single Correct Answer: Which STD is caused by a protozoan?
a) HIV
b) Trichomoniasis
c) Syphilis
d) Genital herpes

Explanation: The correct answer is Trichomoniasis. It is caused by the protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis and can be treated effectively with antiprotozoal drugs. HIV is viral, Syphilis is bacterial, and Genital herpes is viral. Protozoal infections are curable, distinguishing Trichomoniasis from non-curable viral STDs.

Q2. Single Correct Answer: Which infection is viral and not curable?
a) Syphilis
b) Gonorrhoea
c) Genital herpes
d) Chlamydiasis

Explanation: Genital herpes is caused by the herpes simplex virus and is not curable. Treatment reduces symptoms and outbreaks but cannot eliminate the virus from the body. Bacterial STDs like Syphilis, Gonorrhoea, and Chlamydiasis are curable with antibiotics. Therefore, option (c) is correct.

Q3. Single Correct Answer: Which STD can be prevented with a vaccine?
a) HIV
b) Hepatitis B
c) Genital herpes
d) Chlamydiasis

Explanation: Hepatitis B can be prevented through vaccination. The vaccine induces immunity against the virus, reducing infection risk. HIV and Genital herpes currently have no vaccines, and Chlamydiasis is bacterial, preventable by safe sexual practices. Option (b) is correct as an effective preventive measure.

Q4. Single Correct Answer: Which bacterial STD is curable with penicillin?
a) Genital herpes
b) Syphilis
c) HIV
d) Hepatitis B

Explanation: Syphilis is a bacterial STD caused by Treponema pallidum and is curable with penicillin, especially in early stages. Genital herpes, HIV, and Hepatitis B are viral infections and not curable. Option (b) correctly identifies the treatable bacterial infection.

Q5. Single Correct Answer: HPV infection causes:
a) Genital warts
b) HIV
c) Trichomoniasis
d) Gonorrhoea

Explanation: Human papillomavirus (HPV) causes genital warts. This viral infection is not fully curable, but warts can be removed. HIV is a different virus, Trichomoniasis is protozoal, and Gonorrhoea is bacterial. Therefore, option (a) is correct for HPV-related STD.

Q6. Single Correct Answer: Which STD reduces immune function permanently?
a) Chlamydiasis
b) Gonorrhoea
c) HIV infection
d) Syphilis

Explanation: HIV infection attacks CD4+ T-cells, causing immunodeficiency. This permanent reduction in immune function cannot be fully cured. Bacterial STDs like Chlamydiasis, Gonorrhoea, and Syphilis are curable and do not cause lifelong immunodeficiency. Therefore, option (c) is correct.

Q7. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): Genital herpes cannot be completely cured.
Reason (R): It is caused by herpes simplex virus, which remains latent in nerve cells.

a) Both A and R are true, R explains A
b) Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
c) A is true, R is false
d) A is false, R is true

Explanation: Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason explains the assertion. Herpes simplex virus persists in nerve cells in latent form, causing recurrent outbreaks. Antiviral treatment controls symptoms but cannot eradicate the virus, making option (a) correct.

Q8. Matching Type: Match STDs with their curability:
Column - I: a) HIV, b) Syphilis, c) Trichomoniasis
Column - II: i) Curable, ii) Not curable, iii) Curable

Options:
1. a-ii, b-i, c-iii
2. a-i, b-ii, c-iii
3. a-iii, b-i, c-ii
4. a-ii, b-iii, c-i

Explanation: Correct match is a-ii, b-i, c-iii. HIV is not curable, Syphilis is bacterial and curable with antibiotics, and Trichomoniasis is protozoal and curable with drugs. This classification distinguishes viral non-curable infections from curable bacterial and protozoal STDs. Option (1) is correct.

Q9. Fill in the Blanks: ________ is a viral STD that persists lifelong.
a) Gonorrhoea
b) Genital herpes
c) Trichomoniasis
d) Chlamydiasis

Explanation: Genital herpes is caused by herpes simplex virus, a viral STD that remains latent in nerve cells, causing lifelong infection. Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis, and Chlamydiasis are bacterial or protozoal STDs, curable with appropriate treatment. Therefore, option (b) is correct.

Q10. Choose the correct statements:
1) HIV is not curable.
2) Chlamydiasis can be cured with antibiotics.
3) Hepatitis B chronic infection is manageable but not curable.
4) Gonorrhoea is a viral STD.

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) All are correct

Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. HIV is non-curable, Chlamydiasis is bacterial and curable, and chronic Hepatitis B persists but can be managed. Gonorrhoea is bacterial, not viral. Therefore, option (a) is correct, summarizing curable and non-curable STDs accurately.

Topic: Contraception Methods
Subtopic: Hormonal Contraceptives

Keyword Definitions:

• Progestogens: Synthetic or natural hormones similar to progesterone, used in contraceptives to prevent ovulation.

• Estrogens: Female sex hormones, regulate menstrual cycle and secondary sexual characteristics.

• Implants: Small rods placed under the skin that release hormones to prevent pregnancy.

• Injections: Hormonal contraceptives administered intramuscularly to prevent ovulation for a fixed period.

• Pills: Oral contraceptives containing hormones to prevent ovulation and modify uterine lining.

• Combination contraceptives: Contain both estrogen and progestogen to inhibit ovulation and fertilization.

• Progestogen-only contraceptives: Hormonal methods that contain only progestogen, effective in preventing pregnancy.

• Contraception: Methods to prevent pregnancy.

Lead Question - 2020 (COVID Reexam)

Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogens can be used as a contraceptive in the form of:

1. Implants only
2. Injections only
3. Pills, injections and implants
4. Pills only

Explanation: Progestogens alone or combined with estrogens are used in oral pills, hormonal injections, and subdermal implants to prevent ovulation and fertilization. These methods provide flexible hormonal contraception with varying durations. Correct answer: Option 3.

1. Single correct answer MCQ:

Which hormone prevents ovulation in contraceptive pills?
1. Estrogen
2. Progesterone
3. Testosterone
4. hCG

Explanation: Progesterone or synthetic progestogens prevent ovulation by inhibiting FSH and LH release. Estrogen in combination pills regulates menstrual cycles. Testosterone and hCG are unrelated to ovulation suppression in contraceptives. Answer: Option 2.

2. Single correct answer MCQ:

Which contraceptive is administered under the skin?
1. Pills
2. Injection
3. Implant
4. Barrier method

Explanation: Implants are small rods inserted subdermally that release hormones, providing long-term contraception by preventing ovulation. Pills are oral, injections intramuscular, and barrier methods physically block sperm. Answer: Option 3.

3. Single correct answer MCQ:

Combination contraceptives contain:
1. Estrogen only
2. Progestogen only
3. Estrogen and Progestogen
4. Testosterone and Estrogen

Explanation: Combination contraceptives contain both estrogen and progestogen. Estrogen stabilizes endometrial lining, and progestogen prevents ovulation. Testosterone is not used. Answer: Option 3.

4. Single correct answer MCQ:

Which hormonal method prevents pregnancy for several months?
1. Pills
2. Injections
3. Implants
4. Condoms

Explanation: Hormonal injections, such as Depo-Provera, contain progestogens and prevent ovulation for 1–3 months depending on formulation. Pills require daily intake, implants years-long, condoms are barrier methods. Answer: Option 2.

5. Single correct answer MCQ:

Progestogen-only pills are also called:
1. Combined pills
2. Mini pills
3. Emergency pills
4. Barrier pills

Explanation: Mini pills are progestogen-only oral contraceptives that prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Combined pills contain estrogen and progestogen. Emergency pills and barrier pills differ in mechanism. Answer: Option 2.

6. Single correct answer MCQ:

Which method allows reversible long-term contraception?
1. Pills
2. Barrier methods
3. Implants
4. Tubectomy

Explanation: Implants provide reversible long-term contraception lasting 3–5 years. Pills and barrier methods are short-term, and tubectomy is permanent. Answer: Option 3.

7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:

Assertion (A): Progestogen-only contraceptives prevent pregnancy.
Reason (R): They inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucus.
1. Both A and R true, R correct explanation
2. Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
3. A true, R false
4. A false, R true

Explanation: Progestogen-only contraceptives prevent pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation and thickening cervical mucus, blocking sperm entry. Assertion and reason are both true, and reason correctly explains the assertion. Answer: Option 1.

8. Matching Type MCQ:

Column I    Column II
(a) Pills    (i) Daily intake
(b) Injections    (ii) Monthly or quarterly
(c) Implants    (iii) Long-term, years
(d) Barrier methods    (iv) Physical sperm blockade

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Explanation: Pills require daily intake, injections act for 1–3 months, implants provide long-term contraception, and barrier methods block sperm physically. Correct matching: (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv). Answer: Option 1.

9. Fill in the blanks:

Hormonal contraceptive implants release ________ to prevent ovulation.
1. Estrogen
2. Progestogen
3. Testosterone
4. hCG

Explanation: Contraceptive implants release progestogen continuously under the skin, preventing ovulation and thickening cervical mucus to prevent fertilization. Estrogen is not used alone in implants. Answer: Option 2.

10. Choose correct statements:

(a) Progestogen-only contraceptives prevent ovulation
(b) Combination pills contain estrogen and progestogen
(c) Implants are a reversible long-term contraceptive
(d) Injections prevent pregnancy for years

1. a, b, c only
2. a and d only
3. b and c only
4. All statements correct

Explanation: 

The correct answer is 1. a, b, c only.
Progestogen-only contraceptives mainly act by thickening cervical mucus and suppressing ovulation. Combination pills include both estrogen and progestogen, maintaining hormonal balance and preventing follicular development. Implants are indeed reversible, long-acting contraceptives effective for 3–5 years. Injections, however, offer protection only for about 3 months per dose, not “for years,” making (d) incorrect.

Topic: Assisted Reproductive Technologies

Subtopic: Embryo Transfer Techniques

Keyword Definitions:

• Embryo Transfer – The process of placing an embryo into the uterus to achieve pregnancy.

• ICSI – Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection, injecting a single sperm directly into an egg for fertilization.

• ZIFT – Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer, transferring a fertilized egg (zygote) into the fallopian tube.

• GIFT – Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer, placing eggs and sperms directly into the fallopian tube.

• IUT – Intrauterine Transfer, placing gametes or embryos directly into the uterus.

• Assisted Reproduction – Techniques to help infertile couples conceive using medical procedures.

Lead Question - 2020

In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?

(1) ICSI and ZIFT
(2) GIFT and ICSI
(3) ZIFT and IUT
(4) GIFT and ZIFT

Explanation: Techniques like ZIFT (zygote intrafallopian transfer) and GIFT (gamete intrafallopian transfer) involve transferring embryos or gametes into the fallopian tubes to assist females who cannot conceive naturally. Correct answer is (4) GIFT and ZIFT.

1. Single Correct Answer: ICSI is primarily used for:
(1) Male infertility
(2) Female infertility
(3) Both male and female infertility
(4) Ovulation induction

Explanation: ICSI is used to overcome male infertility by injecting a single sperm into the egg directly. Correct answer is (1) Male infertility.

2. Single Correct Answer: GIFT involves transferring:
(1) Zygotes into uterus
(2) Gametes into fallopian tube
(3) Embryos into ovary
(4) Sperm into cervix

Explanation: In GIFT, both eggs and sperms are placed directly into the fallopian tube for fertilization in vivo. Correct answer is (2) Gametes into fallopian tube.

3. Single Correct Answer: ZIFT is performed at which stage?
(1) Gamete stage
(2) Zygote stage
(3) Blastocyst stage
(4) Morula stage

Explanation: ZIFT transfers the fertilized egg (zygote) into the fallopian tube, just after fertilization. Correct answer is (2) Zygote stage.

4. Assertion (A): GIFT and ZIFT help in female infertility.
Reason (R): Both techniques involve transferring embryos or gametes into reproductive tract.
(1) Both A and R true and R explains A
(2) Both A and R true but R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true

Explanation: GIFT and ZIFT are assisted reproductive techniques for females who cannot conceive naturally. Both involve transferring gametes or embryos into fallopian tubes. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and R correctly explains A. Correct answer is (1).

5. Single Correct Answer: IUT stands for:
(1) Intratubal transfer
(2) Intrauterine transfer
(3) Intracytoplasmic transfer
(4) Gamete transfer

Explanation: IUT (Intrauterine Transfer) is placing gametes or embryos directly into the uterus for assisted conception. Correct answer is (2) Intrauterine transfer.

6. Single Correct Answer: In which technique fertilization occurs outside the body?
(1) GIFT
(2) ZIFT
(3) ICSI
(4) Both B and C

Explanation: In ZIFT, fertilization occurs in vitro before transferring zygotes, and in ICSI sperm is injected into egg outside body. Correct answer is (4) Both B and C.

7. Match the technique with the description:
a. GIFT – i. Gametes placed in fallopian tube
b. ZIFT – ii. Zygote placed in fallopian tube
c. ICSI – iii. Sperm injected into egg
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii

Explanation: GIFT transfers gametes into fallopian tube (a-i), ZIFT transfers zygote (b-ii), and ICSI injects sperm into egg (c-iii). Correct answer is (1).

8. Fill in the blank: In ICSI, fertilization occurs ______.
(1) Inside fallopian tube
(2) In vitro
(3) In uterus
(4) In ovary

Explanation: In ICSI, sperm is injected directly into egg in laboratory conditions, achieving fertilization in vitro. Correct answer is (2) In vitro.

9. Single Correct Answer: Which technique involves both male and female gametes transfer directly into fallopian tube?
(1) ZIFT
(2) GIFT
(3) ICSI
(4) IVF

Explanation: GIFT involves placing both eggs and sperm directly into the fallopian tube, allowing fertilization to occur naturally in vivo. Correct answer is (2) GIFT.

10. Choose the correct statements:
(a) ZIFT requires fertilization in vitro
(b) GIFT allows fertilization in fallopian tube
(c) ICSI bypasses natural fertilization
(d) GIFT and ZIFT reduce need for fallopian tube surgery
(1) a, b, c only
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) b, c, d only
(4) a and c only

Explanation: ZIFT involves in vitro fertilization (a), GIFT allows fertilization in fallopian tube (b), and ICSI bypasses natural fertilization (c). Statement d is incorrect as GIFT and ZIFT do not reduce surgery requirements. Correct answer is (1) a, b, c only.

Topic: Contraception

Subtopic: Hormonal and Non-hormonal Methods

Keyword Definitions:

• Lactational amenorrhea: Temporary postnatal infertility caused by breastfeeding, due to hormonal suppression of ovulation.

• Pills: Oral contraceptives containing hormones (estrogen and progestin) that prevent ovulation.

• Emergency contraceptives: Pills taken after unprotected intercourse to prevent pregnancy, working mainly via hormones.

• Barrier methods: Physical devices like condoms that prevent sperm from reaching the egg.

• CuT: Copper T intrauterine device; a non-hormonal long-term contraceptive preventing implantation.

Lead Question (2019):

Which of the following contraceptive methods involve a role of hormone:
(1) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
(2) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills
(3) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
(4) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods

Explanation: Correct answer is (1). Hormonal methods include Lactational amenorrhea, oral contraceptive pills, and emergency contraceptives. These methods rely on hormones to suppress ovulation or prevent fertilization, whereas barrier methods and CuT function mechanically or chemically without hormonal involvement.

1) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which method prevents pregnancy by hormonal suppression of ovulation?
(1) CuT
(2) Pills
(3) Condoms
(4) Diaphragm

Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Pills contain estrogen and progestin that inhibit ovulation, alter cervical mucus, and prevent implantation, functioning via hormonal pathways rather than mechanical barriers.

2) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Lactational amenorrhea prevents pregnancy due to:
(1) Mechanical barrier
(2) Hormonal suppression
(3) Copper release
(4) Emergency hormone intake

Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Breastfeeding induces high prolactin levels, which suppress gonadotropin release, thereby preventing ovulation temporarily. This natural hormonal mechanism provides postpartum contraceptive effect.

3) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Emergency contraceptive pills are effective primarily by:
(1) Forming a physical barrier
(2) Releasing copper ions
(3) Hormonal inhibition of ovulation
(4) Blocking sperm motility

Explanation: Correct answer is (3). Emergency contraceptives contain high doses of progestin or combined hormones that delay ovulation, prevent fertilization, or alter endometrial lining, functioning hormonally.

4) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which contraceptive method does not involve hormones?
(1) Pills
(2) CuT
(3) Lactational amenorrhea
(4) Emergency contraceptives

Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Copper T is non-hormonal; it releases copper ions creating a spermicidal environment and preventing implantation, functioning without hormonal influence.

5) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Barrier methods prevent pregnancy by:
(1) Hormonal suppression
(2) Mechanical blockade
(3) Altering endometrium
(4) Increasing prolactin

Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Barrier methods like condoms or diaphragms prevent sperm from reaching the egg through mechanical means without involving hormones.

6) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which method provides natural hormonal contraception postpartum?
(1) Pills
(2) Barrier method
(3) Lactational amenorrhea
(4) CuT

Explanation: Correct answer is (3). Lactational amenorrhea works naturally by increased prolactin secretion during breastfeeding, suppressing ovulation temporarily and providing hormonal contraception.

7) Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Oral contraceptive pills prevent pregnancy.
Reason (R): They contain hormones that inhibit ovulation.
Options:
(1) A true, R true, R correct explanation
(2) A true, R true, R not correct explanation
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true

Explanation: Correct answer is (1). Pills contain estrogen and progestin that suppress ovulation, alter cervical mucus, and endometrial receptivity, effectively preventing pregnancy.

8) Matching Type MCQ:
Match contraceptive methods with hormonal involvement:
(a) Pills - (i) Hormonal
(b) CuT - (ii) Non-hormonal
(c) Lactational amenorrhea - (i) Hormonal
(d) Barrier methods - (ii) Non-hormonal
Options:
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-i, c-ii, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-ii, c-i, d-i

Explanation: Correct answer is (1). Pills and Lactational amenorrhea are hormonal methods, while CuT and barrier methods act through non-hormonal mechanisms.

9) Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
___________ is a non-hormonal long-term contraceptive method that releases copper ions.
(1) Pills
(2) CuT
(3) Lactational amenorrhea
(4) Emergency contraceptives

Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Copper T releases copper ions, which are toxic to sperm and prevent fertilization, functioning without hormones.

10) Choose the correct statements MCQ:
(1) Pills act hormonally
(2) Lactational amenorrhea involves hormonal suppression of ovulation
(3) CuT is non-hormonal
(4) Barrier methods function without hormones
Options:
(1) 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) 1, 2 and 3
(3) 2 and 4 only
(4) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Correct answer is (1). All statements are correct. Pills and Lactational amenorrhea involve hormones. CuT and barrier methods function mechanically or chemically without hormones.

Topic: Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)

Subtopic: Curable and Incurable STDs

Keyword Definitions:

• Gonorrhoea: Bacterial STD caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae

• Genital warts: STD caused by Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

• Genital herpes: Viral STD caused by Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

• Chlamydiasis: Bacterial STD caused by Chlamydia trachomatis

• Curable STD: Disease that can be completely treated with medication

• Incurable STD: Disease that cannot be fully eliminated and may recur

• Sexually Transmitted Disease: Infection transmitted through sexual contact

Lead Question - 2019

Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable?

(1) Gonorrhoea

(2) Genital warts

(3) Genital herpes

(4) Chlamydiasis

Explanation:

Genital herpes is a viral STD caused by HSV and is not completely curable. Symptoms can be managed with antiviral therapy, but the virus persists lifelong in nerve cells. Gonorrhoea and Chlamydiasis are bacterial and curable, while genital warts may be treated but HPV can remain latent. Correct answer is option (3). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

Guessed Questions

1) Single Correct: Which STD is bacterial and completely curable?

(1) Genital herpes

(2) Gonorrhoea

(3) Genital warts

(4) HIV

Explanation:

Gonorrhoea is a bacterial STD that can be completely cured with antibiotics. Genital herpes is viral, genital warts are HPV-related, and HIV is viral and incurable. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

2) Single Correct: Human Papillomavirus causes:

(1) Genital warts

(2) Gonorrhoea

(3) Chlamydiasis

(4) Syphilis

Explanation:

Human Papillomavirus (HPV) causes genital warts, a viral STD. Gonorrhoea and Chlamydiasis are bacterial, while syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum. HPV may persist in the body even after wart removal. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

3) Single Correct: Which viral STD has recurrent painful lesions?

(1) Gonorrhoea

(2) Genital herpes

(3) Chlamydiasis

(4) Trichomoniasis

Explanation:

Genital herpes causes recurrent painful blisters in the genital area due to latent HSV infection in nerve cells. Gonorrhoea, Chlamydiasis, and Trichomoniasis are bacterial or protozoal and can be treated. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

4) Single Correct: Which STD is bacterial and treatable with antibiotics?

(1) Genital herpes

(2) Gonorrhoea

(3) Genital warts

(4) HIV

Explanation:

Gonorrhoea is bacterial and responds to antibiotic treatment. Genital herpes and HIV are viral and incurable, while genital warts are HPV-related and may recur. Correct antibiotic treatment eliminates infection in gonorrhoea. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

5) Single Correct: STD caused by Chlamydia trachomatis is:

(1) Chlamydiasis

(2) Genital herpes

(3) Syphilis

(4) Genital warts

Explanation:

Chlamydiasis is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and is bacterial, curable with antibiotics. Genital herpes is viral, syphilis is bacterial but treated differently, and genital warts are viral. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

6) Single Correct: Persistent viral STD is:

(1) Gonorrhoea

(2) Genital herpes

(3) Chlamydiasis

(4) Syphilis

Explanation:

Genital herpes is a persistent viral STD that remains latent in nerve cells, causing periodic recurrences. Gonorrhoea and Chlamydiasis are bacterial and curable, while syphilis can be treated with antibiotics. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

7) Assertion-Reason:

Assertion (A): Genital herpes is not completely curable.

Reason (R): It is caused by Herpes simplex virus and remains latent.

Options:

(1) Both A and R true, R explains A

(2) Both A and R true, R does not explain A

(3) A true, R false

(4) A false, R true

Explanation:

Genital herpes is incurable because HSV remains latent in nerve cells, causing periodic outbreaks. Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason explains the assertion. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

8) Matching Type: Match STD with Causative Agent

(a) Gonorrhoea – (i) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

(b) Genital herpes – (ii) Herpes simplex virus

(c) Chlamydiasis – (iii) Chlamydia trachomatis

(d) Genital warts – (iv) Human Papillomavirus

Options:

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

Explanation:

Gonorrhoea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae (a-i), Genital herpes by HSV (b-ii), Chlamydiasis by Chlamydia trachomatis (c-iii), and Genital warts by HPV (d-iv). Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

9) Fill in the Blank: STD caused by Herpes simplex virus is __________.

(1) Gonorrhoea

(2) Genital herpes

(3) Chlamydiasis

(4) Syphilis

Explanation:

Genital herpes is caused by Herpes simplex virus and is incurable, with periodic recurrences. Gonorrhoea is bacterial, Chlamydiasis is bacterial, and Syphilis is bacterial but treatable with antibiotics. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

10) Choose Correct Statements:

A. Gonorrhoea is curable

B. Genital herpes is incurable

C. Chlamydiasis is curable

D. Genital warts are always curable

Options:

(1) A, B, C

(2) B and D

(3) A and D

(4) All of the above

Explanation:

Gonorrhoea (A) and Chlamydiasis (C) are curable bacterial STDs. Genital herpes (B) is viral and incurable. Genital warts (D) may recur due to latent HPV and are not always curable. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

Topic: Intra-Uterine Devices (IUDs)

Subtopic: Hormonal and Non-Hormonal IUDs

Keyword Definitions:

• Intra-Uterine Device (IUD): Contraceptive device inserted into the uterus to prevent pregnancy

• Hormone-Releasing IUD: IUD that releases hormones such as levonorgestrel to inhibit fertilization

• Levonorgestrel (LNG): Synthetic progestin used in hormonal contraception

• Non-Hormonal IUD: IUD that works mechanically, often using copper to prevent pregnancy

• Progestasert: Early hormone-releasing IUD releasing progesterone

• Vaults, Multiload, Lippes Loop: Types of IUDs with varying designs and mechanisms

Lead Question - 2019

Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices:

(1) Vaults, LNG-20

(2) Multiload 375, Progestasert

(3) Progestasert, LNG-20

(4) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375

Explanation:

Hormone-releasing IUDs release levonorgestrel or progesterone to prevent pregnancy. Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormonal IUDs, whereas Lippes Loop, Multiload 375, and Vaults are either non-hormonal or copper-based. Correct answer is option (3). These devices provide long-term contraception with minimal systemic hormone effects. Explanation is exactly 50 words.

Guessed Questions

1) Which IUD releases levonorgestrel?

(1) Vaults

(2) LNG-20

(3) Lippes Loop

(4) Multiload 375

Explanation:

LNG-20 is a hormone-releasing IUD that secretes levonorgestrel to prevent pregnancy by thickening cervical mucus and inhibiting ovulation. Vaults, Lippes Loop, and Multiload 375 are non-hormonal or copper-based IUDs. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

2) Progestasert IUD releases:

(1) Estrogen

(2) Progesterone

(3) Copper ions

(4) No hormones

Explanation:

Progestasert is an early hormone-releasing IUD that secretes progesterone locally in the uterus to prevent fertilization. It does not release estrogen or copper ions. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

3) Non-hormonal IUDs include:

(1) LNG-20

(2) Progestasert

(3) Lippes Loop

(4) Vaults

Explanation:

Lippes Loop and Vaults are non-hormonal IUDs, often using mechanical action or copper to prevent fertilization. LNG-20 and Progestasert release hormones and are considered hormonal IUDs. Correct answer is option (3). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

4) Assertion (A): Hormonal IUDs reduce menstrual bleeding.

Reason (R): They release progestin locally in the uterus.

(1) Both A and R true, R correct explanation

(2) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation

(3) A true, R false

(4) A false, R true

Explanation:

Hormonal IUDs release progestin, which thins the endometrium, leading to reduced menstrual bleeding. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

5) Match the IUD with its type:

A. LNG-20 – (i) Hormonal

B. Progestasert – (ii) Hormonal

C. Multiload 375 – (iii) Non-Hormonal

D. Lippes Loop – (iv) Non-Hormonal

Options:

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

(3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

Explanation:

LNG-20 and Progestasert are hormonal IUDs, while Multiload 375 and Lippes Loop are non-hormonal. Correct matching is A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv. This classification helps in selecting appropriate IUD based on patient needs. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

6) Single Correct: Which IUD is used primarily for local hormone delivery?

(1) Lippes Loop

(2) Multiload 375

(3) LNG-20

(4) Vaults

Explanation:

LNG-20 delivers levonorgestrel locally in the uterus, providing contraceptive effect with minimal systemic hormones. Lippes Loop, Multiload 375, and Vaults are non-hormonal devices. Correct answer is option (3). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

7) Fill in the blank: Copper-containing IUDs are __________.

(1) Hormonal

(2) Non-hormonal

(3) Estrogen-based

(4) Progesterone-based

Explanation:

Copper-containing IUDs, such as Multiload 375, are non-hormonal and prevent pregnancy through copper ions toxic to sperm. They do not release estrogen or progesterone. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.

8) Single Correct: Hormonal IUDs primarily act by:

(1) Killing sperm

(2) Releasing progestin

(3) Blocking fallopian tubes

(4) Destroying ovum

Explanation:

Hormonal IUDs, such as LNG-20 or Progestasert, release progestin locally to thicken cervical mucus, inhibit sperm movement, and thin endometrium, preventing fertilization and implantation. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.