Topic: Vegetative Propagation; Subtopic: Asexual Reproduction
Keyword Definitions:
Vegetative Propagule: A plant part capable of giving rise to a new individual, used in asexual reproduction.
Eyes of Potato: Buds on the tuber capable of sprouting new plants.
Rhizome of Ginger: Underground horizontal stem that can develop into a new plant.
Bulbil of Agave: Small bulb-like structures on the plant that can grow into a new plant.
Zoospore: Motile spore produced by some algae for asexual reproduction but not a vegetative propagule.
Buds in Hydra: Formed by asexual reproduction in animals and not a plant vegetative propagule.
Lead Question - 2022 (Abroad)
Which of the following is/are vegetative propagule(s)?
(a) Eyes of Potato
(b) Zoospore of Chlamydomonas
(c) Rhizome of Ginger
(d) Buds in Hydra
(e) Bulbil of Agave
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. (e) only
2. (a), (c), (e) only
3. (a), (b), (c), (d) only
4. (b), (d) only
Explanation: The correct answer is (a), (c), (e) only. Vegetative propagules are plant parts that develop into a new individual asexually. Eyes of potato, rhizome of ginger, and bulbil of agave are classic vegetative propagules. Zoospores of Chlamydomonas are asexual reproductive spores, not vegetative propagules, and buds in Hydra are animal-based asexual reproduction. These vegetative structures allow rapid multiplication and preservation of plant traits without sexual reproduction, which is especially useful in agriculture and horticulture for uniform crop production and propagation of desirable varieties.
1. Single Correct Answer Type:
Which of the following is an underground vegetative propagule?
1. Bulbil of Agave
2. Rhizome of Ginger
3. Eyes of Potato
4. Zoospore of Chlamydomonas
Explanation: The correct answer is Rhizome of Ginger. Rhizomes are underground horizontal stems that can produce new shoots and roots, forming new plants. They are vegetative propagules used in asexual reproduction. Unlike bulbs or eyes of potato which are modified stems or buds, rhizomes spread underground and store nutrients, facilitating propagation and survival during unfavorable conditions, making them highly efficient for vegetative multiplication.
2. Single Correct Answer Type:
Which propagule is used for asexual propagation in potato?
1. Bulbil
2. Rhizome
3. Eyes of Potato
4. Zoospore
Explanation: The correct answer is Eyes of Potato. Eyes are dormant buds present on potato tubers capable of sprouting into new plants. They serve as vegetative propagules for asexual reproduction. Planting tubers with healthy eyes ensures rapid multiplication and uniform growth of crops, preserving parental traits. Unlike zoospores or rhizomes, these structures are modified stems specifically adapted for agricultural propagation of potatoes.
3. Single Correct Answer Type:
Bulbils are commonly found in which plant?
1. Potato
2. Ginger
3. Agave
4. Chlamydomonas
Explanation: The correct answer is Agave. Bulbils are small bulb-like structures produced on aerial parts of Agave. They detach and grow into new plants asexually. Bulbils act as vegetative propagules, ensuring rapid multiplication. Unlike eyes of potato or rhizomes of ginger, they form above ground, providing an effective natural method of propagation and maintaining genetic uniformity without sexual reproduction.
4. Single Correct Answer Type:
Which of the following is NOT a vegetative propagule?
1. Rhizome of Ginger
2. Eyes of Potato
3. Zoospore of Chlamydomonas
4. Bulbil of Agave
Explanation: The correct answer is Zoospore of Chlamydomonas. Zoospores are motile asexual spores produced by algae for reproduction, not vegetative propagation. Vegetative propagules are plant parts like rhizomes, eyes, or bulbils that give rise to a new individual. Zoospores differ because they are reproductive cells capable of dispersal and germination, rather than existing plant structures used for cloning.
5. Single Correct Answer Type:
Rhizome as a vegetative propagule is advantageous because:
1. It produces genetically variable offspring
2. It stores nutrients for sprouting
3. It requires pollination
4. It grows only above ground
Explanation: The correct answer is It stores nutrients for sprouting. Rhizomes store food materials, enabling new shoots and roots to emerge, ensuring survival and propagation. This vegetative propagule allows rapid, uniform multiplication without pollination, unlike sexual reproduction. Nutrient storage also helps plants withstand adverse conditions and ensures energy supply for growth of new plants from the rhizome.
6. Single Correct Answer Type:
Which propagule grows on the body of the parent plant?
1. Rhizome
2. Bulbil
3. Eyes of Potato
4. Zoospore
Explanation: The correct answer is Bulbil. Bulbils are formed on aerial parts of the parent plant and can detach to grow into new plants. Unlike underground rhizomes or eyes of potato, bulbils develop externally. They are vegetative propagules providing asexual reproduction, preserving genetic traits, and facilitating rapid plant multiplication without the need for seeds.
7. Assertion-Reason Type:
Assertion (A): Eyes of potato, rhizome of ginger, and bulbil of Agave are vegetative propagules.
Reason (R): They develop into new individuals without fertilization.
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true
Explanation: Both Assertion and Reason are correct. Eyes of potato, rhizomes of ginger, and bulbil of Agave are vegetative propagules because they give rise to new plants asexually. The reason explains the assertion accurately, as these structures bypass sexual reproduction and fertilization, allowing rapid multiplication and preservation of parental genetic traits, which is especially useful in agriculture and horticulture.
8. Matching Type:
Match the propagule with its type:
A. Eyes of Potato → (i) Aerial bud
B. Rhizome of Ginger → (ii) Underground stem
C. Bulbil of Agave → (iii) Aerial bulb-like structure
D. Zoospore → (iv) Motile spore
1. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
2. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
3. A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
4. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
Explanation: Correct matching is A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv). Eyes of potato are buds on tubers, rhizomes are underground stems, bulbils are aerial bulb-like propagules, and zoospores are motile spores in algae. Vegetative propagules like eyes, rhizomes, and bulbils enable asexual reproduction, whereas zoospores are reproductive but not vegetative, highlighting structural and functional differences.
9. Fill in the Blanks Type:
______ and ______ are examples of vegetative propagules used in agriculture.
1. Zoospore, Buds in Hydra
2. Eyes of Potato, Rhizome of Ginger
3. Zoospore, Bulbil of Agave
4. Buds in Hydra, Rhizome of Ginger
Explanation: The correct answer is Eyes of Potato, Rhizome of Ginger. Both are vegetative propagules, allowing asexual reproduction in plants. They produce new individuals identical to the parent and are widely used in agriculture for rapid, uniform crop propagation. Unlike zoospores or animal buds, these plant structures ensure trait preservation, nutrient storage, and consistent crop yield without sexual reproduction or fertilization.
10. Choose the Correct Statements Type:
Which of the following statements are correct regarding vegetative propagules?
1. Eyes of potato, rhizome, and bulbil are vegetative propagules
2. Zoospore and Hydra buds are vegetative propagules
3. Vegetative propagules reproduce sexually
4. Bulbils develop into new individuals asexually
Explanation: Correct statements are 1 and 4. Eyes of potato, rhizomes, and bulbils are vegetative propagules, reproducing asexually without fertilization. They enable rapid propagation and trait preservation. Zoospores and Hydra buds are asexual reproductive structures but not vegetative propagules. Vegetative propagation is essential in agriculture and horticulture for uniformity, high yield, and fast multiplication of desirable plant varieties.
Topic: Seed Structure and Function; Subtopic: Structure of Monocot and Dicot Seeds
Seed coat: The protective outer covering of a seed that prevents physical damage and dehydration.
Scutellum: A specialized cotyledon found in grass seeds (monocots) that absorbs nutrients from the endosperm.
Endosperm: The nutritive tissue in seed plants formed after fertilization, providing nourishment to the developing embryo.
Pericarp: The wall of a fruit developed from the ovary wall after fertilization, which may consist of exocarp, mesocarp, and endocarp.
Cotyledon: The embryonic leaf in seed-bearing plants, often storing food or aiding in nutrient absorption during germination.
Hypocotyl: The part of a germinating seedling below the cotyledons that develops into the stem.
Endocarp: The innermost layer of the pericarp, surrounding and protecting the seed within a fruit.
Microphyle: A small pore in the seed coat that allows water absorption and gas exchange during germination.
Coleoptile: The sheath protecting a young shoot tip in monocot seedlings as it grows upward.
Embryo: The young developing plant inside a seed, consisting of the embryonic root, shoot, and cotyledons.
Monocot seed: A seed containing one cotyledon, typically having a scutellum and a large endosperm (e.g., maize, wheat).
Lead Question - 2022 (Abroad)
Which of the following set represents the correct labelling of A, B, C and D with respect to the given diagram (outer to innermost)?
A- Seed Coat, B- Cotyledon, C- Endosperm, D - Hypocotyl
A- Seed Coat, B- Scutellum, C- Endocarp, D - Mesocarp
A- Seed Coat, B- Scutellum, C- Microphyle, D - Endocarp
A- Pericarp, B - Coleoptile
Explanation: The correct labelling sequence from outer to inner layers in a monocot seed (like maize) is: A-Seed Coat, B-Scutellum, C-Endosperm, D-Hypocotyl. The seed coat protects the seed, scutellum absorbs nutrients, endosperm stores food, and hypocotyl forms the lower stem region. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Q1: The single cotyledon present in the seed of maize is known as:
Radicle
Scutellum
Endosperm
Epicotyl
Explanation: In monocot seeds like maize, the single cotyledon is called the scutellum. It is a thin, shield-shaped structure that absorbs nutrients from the endosperm to feed the growing embryo. It is characteristic of all members of the grass family. Hence, the correct answer is scutellum.
Q2: The embryonic axis above the level of cotyledons is called:
Radicle
Epicotyl
Hypocotyl
Plumule
Explanation: The epicotyl is the portion of the embryonic axis above the cotyledons. It elongates to form the shoot and leaves after germination. The hypocotyl lies below the cotyledons and connects to the radicle. Hence, the correct answer is epicotyl.
Q3: The nutritive tissue of the seed that nourishes the embryo is:
Pericarp
Endosperm
Scutellum
Micropyle
Explanation: The endosperm is a triploid nutritive tissue formed after double fertilization in angiosperms. It supplies nutrients such as starch, proteins, and oils to the developing embryo during germination. Thus, the correct answer is endosperm.
Q4: The outer covering of the seed is derived from:
Ovary wall
Integuments of ovule
Embryo sac
Funicle
Explanation: The seed coat originates from the integuments of the ovule. The outer integument forms the testa, and the inner integument forms the tegmen. It serves as a protective barrier against desiccation and pathogens. Hence, the correct answer is integuments of ovule.
Q5: The micropyle in a seed helps in:
Food storage
Water absorption
Seed dispersal
Protection of embryo
Explanation: The micropyle is a small pore left in the seed coat through which water enters during germination. It also allows the exchange of gases and passage of pollen tube during fertilization. Hence, water absorption is its main role. Correct answer is water absorption.
Q6: Which of the following is not a part of the embryo?
Plumule
Radicle
Endosperm
Cotyledon
Explanation: The endosperm is not part of the embryo. It is a nutritive tissue that surrounds and nourishes the embryo. The embryo consists of plumule, radicle, and cotyledons. Hence, the correct answer is endosperm.
Q7 (Assertion-Reason): Assertion (A): Maize seed is albuminous. Reason (R): The endosperm persists and stores food even after seed maturation.
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation: Maize seeds are albuminous because the endosperm remains persistent and provides nourishment during germination. Both the assertion and reason are correct, and the reason correctly explains the assertion. Therefore, the correct answer is both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Q8 (Matching Type): Match the parts of a seed with their functions:
1. Scutellum A. Absorbs nutrients from endosperm
2. Micropyle B. Allows water entry
3. Endosperm C. Provides nourishment
4. Testa D. Protects the seed
1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
Explanation: The scutellum absorbs nutrients from the endosperm (A), the micropyle allows water entry (B), the endosperm provides nourishment (C), and the testa protects the seed (D). Hence, the correct match is 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D.
Q9 (Fill in the Blank): The portion of the embryonic axis that gives rise to the root system is called ________.
Plumule
Hypocotyl
Radicle
Cotyledon
Explanation: The radicle is the first structure to emerge during germination, forming the primary root system. It ensures anchorage and absorption of water for the growing seedling. Hence, the correct answer is radicle.
Q10 (Choose the Correct Statements): Choose the correct statements:
In maize, the seed is endospermic.
The seed coat is fused with the pericarp.
Scutellum acts as a food-absorbing organ.
Monocot seeds possess two cotyledons.
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Maize seed is endospermic with persistent endosperm; its seed coat fuses with pericarp, and the scutellum functions as an absorptive organ. The last statement is false because monocots have one cotyledon. Correct answer: 1, 2, and 3.
Subtopic: Placentation Types
Placentation: Arrangement of ovules within the ovary of a flower.
Ovule: Structure in seed plants that develops into a seed after fertilization.
Central Axis: The main axis of the ovary where ovules are attached in certain types of placentation.
Septa: Internal walls dividing the ovary into locules.
Axile Placentation: Ovules attached to central axis with septa dividing the ovary.
Free Central Placentation: Ovules attached to central axis without septa; ovary appears unilocular.
Marginal Placentation: Ovules attached along the suture of a single carpel.
Parietal Placentation: Ovules borne on inner ovary wall; ovary appears unilocular.
Flower Anatomy: Study of structural organization of flowers including ovary, ovules, and carpels.
Primrose: Example of free central placentation.
China-rose: Example of axile placentation.
Lead Question - 2022 (Abroad)
Which of the following plants possesses the placentation of ovules borne on central axis with no septa?
Lemon
Pea
China-rose
Primrose
Explanation: Primrose exhibits free central placentation where ovules are attached to a central axis without septa, making the ovary appear unilocular. Lemon and China-rose show axile placentation with septa, and pea has marginal placentation. This type ensures maximum ovule exposure for fertilization. Answer: Primrose. Answer: 4
Q1: In axile placentation, ovules are attached:
To the central axis with septa
Along ovary wall
On one side of carpel
At the base of ovary
Explanation: Axile placentation features ovules attached to the central axis with septa dividing the ovary into multiple locules. This arrangement allows organized ovule distribution and is seen in China-rose and tomato. Answer: To the central axis with septa. Answer: 1
Q2: Marginal placentation is characteristic of:
Pea
Lemon
Primrose
China-rose
Explanation: In marginal placentation, ovules are borne along the suture of a single carpel, typical of legumes like pea. The ovary is unilocular and lacks a central axis or septa. This arrangement ensures a simple linear ovule attachment. Answer: Pea. Answer: 1
Q3: Which type of placentation has ovules attached to inner ovary wall?
Axile
Parietal
Free central
Marginal
Explanation: Parietal placentation features ovules attached to the inner ovary wall in a unilocular ovary. Septa are absent. Examples include mustard and cucumber. It differs from axile and free central placentation. Answer: Parietal. Answer: 2
Q4: Free central placentation is seen in:
Tomato
Cucumber
Primrose
Pea
Explanation: Free central placentation has ovules attached to an unbranched central column without septa. Primrose is a classic example. It provides maximum space for ovules within a single locule, facilitating fertilization. Answer: Primrose. Answer: 3
Q5: The number of locules in free central placentation is usually:
One
Two
Three
Four
Explanation: Free central placentation results in a unilocular ovary because septa are absent. The central axis carries ovules freely, unlike axile placentation, where multiple locules are formed. This design allows efficient seed development. Answer: One. Answer: 1
Q6: Axile placentation differs from free central by:
Presence of septa
Unilocular ovary
Ovules attached along suture
Only one ovule per ovary
Explanation: Axile placentation differs from free central in having septa that divide the ovary into multiple locules, with ovules on the central axis. Free central has no septa and remains unilocular. Examples: China-rose (axile), Primrose (free central). Answer: Presence of septa. Answer: 1
Q7: Assertion (A): Free central placentation lacks septa.
Reason (R): Ovules are attached to a central axis without partitioning.
A is correct but R is not correct
A is not correct but R is correct
Both A and R are correct and R explains A
Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
Explanation: In free central placentation, ovules are borne on an unbranched central column without septa, making the ovary unilocular. The reason correctly explains the assertion. Both statements are true and logically connected. Answer: Both A and R are correct and R explains A. Answer: 3
Q8: Match plant with its placentation type:
1. Pea A. Marginal
2. China-rose B. Axile
3. Primrose C. Free central
4. Lemon D. Axile
1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
Explanation: Pea exhibits marginal placentation, China-rose and lemon show axile placentation, and Primrose has free central placentation. This matching clarifies placentation types for different plants. Answer: 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D. Answer: 1
Q9: In ______ placentation, ovules are attached to the ovary wall.
Axile
Parietal
Free central
Marginal
Explanation: Parietal placentation features ovules attached to the inner ovary wall in a unilocular ovary without septa. It differs from axile and free central placentation where ovules are on a central axis. Examples include mustard. Answer: Parietal. Answer: 2
Q10: Select correct statements regarding free central placentation:
Ovules attached to central axis
No septa present
Ovary is unilocular
Seen in Primrose
Explanation: Free central placentation has ovules on a central axis without septa, resulting in a unilocular ovary. Primrose is a classical example. All statements are correct and describe the characteristic features of free central placentation. Answer: All of the above. Answer: 1,2,3,4
Topic: Ploidy and Plant Life Cycle
Subtopic: Haploid and Diploid Structures
Haploid: A cell or structure containing a single set of chromosomes (n).
Diploid: A cell containing two sets of chromosomes (2n).
Microspore: Haploid spore produced by meiosis in microsporangia, gives rise to male gametophyte.
Microspore Mother Cell: Diploid cell in anther that undergoes meiosis to produce haploid microspores.
Endosperm: Tissue in seeds, usually triploid (3n) in dicots, formed by fusion of sperm with polar nuclei.
Protonemal Cell: Haploid filamentous stage of moss gametophyte developing from spore.
Primary Endospore Nucleus: Early nucleus formed in spores; ploidy depends on parent cell.
Dicot: Angiosperm plant with two cotyledons in seed.
Double Fertilization: Process where one sperm fertilizes egg forming zygote and another fertilizes central cell forming endosperm.
Gametophyte: Haploid phase of plant life cycle producing gametes.
Sporophyte: Diploid phase producing spores via meiosis.
Lead Question - 2022 (Abroad)
Which one of the following structures is haploid in its ploidy level?
Primary Endospore Nucleus
Microspore Mother cell
Protonemal cell of a moss
Primary endosperm nucleus in dicot
Explanation: Haploid cells contain one set of chromosomes (n). Protonemal cells of moss develop from haploid spores and are part of the gametophyte, thus haploid. Microspore mother cells are diploid (2n), endosperm nucleus is typically triploid (3n), and primary endospore nucleus ploidy depends on parent. Correct answer: Protonemal cell of a moss. Answer: 3
Q1: Which stage of plant life cycle is haploid?
Sporophyte
Gametophyte
Zygote
Endosperm
Explanation: Gametophyte stage in plants is haploid (n) and produces gametes via mitosis. Sporophyte is diploid (2n), zygote is diploid, and endosperm is usually triploid. Therefore, haploid stage is gametophyte. Answer: Gametophyte. Answer: 2
Q2: In angiosperms, microspores are produced by:
Mitosis of microspore mother cell
Meiosis of microspore mother cell
Fertilization of egg
Mitosis of gametophyte
Explanation: Microspores arise from meiosis of diploid microspore mother cells in anther. Each microspore is haploid (n) and develops into male gametophyte. Fertilization and mitosis of gametophyte produce zygote or gametes, not microspores. Answer: Meiosis of microspore mother cell. Answer: 2
Q3: Primary endosperm nucleus in dicots is:
Haploid
Diploid
Triploid
Tetraploid
Explanation: In dicots, primary endosperm nucleus forms by fusion of one sperm (n) with two polar nuclei (each n), giving triploid (3n) endosperm. Haploid or diploid options are incorrect. Answer: Triploid. Answer: 3
Q4: Protonemal cell arises from:
Diploid spore
Haploid spore
Endosperm
Zygote
Explanation: Moss spores are haploid, and they germinate to form protonemal filaments (haploid), which then produce gametophytes. Diploid spores, endosperm, or zygote do not form protonema. Answer: Haploid spore. Answer: 2
Q5: Which of the following structures is diploid?
Protonemal cell
Microspore
Microspore mother cell
Gamete
Explanation: Microspore mother cell is diploid (2n) and undergoes meiosis to produce haploid microspores. Protonema, microspore, and gametes are haploid. Answer: Microspore mother cell. Answer: 3
Q6: Which structure gives rise to male gametophyte in flowering plants?
Microspore
Megaspore
Sperm
Primary endosperm nucleus
Explanation: Microspores are haploid spores produced by meiosis in anther. Each develops into male gametophyte (pollen grain). Megaspore forms female gametophyte, sperm participates in fertilization, and primary endosperm nucleus forms endosperm. Answer: Microspore. Answer: 1
Q7: Assertion (A): Protonemal cells of moss are haploid.
Reason (R): Moss life cycle alternates between haploid gametophyte and diploid sporophyte.
A is correct but R is not correct
A is not correct but R is correct
Both A and R are correct and R explains A
Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
Explanation: Protonemal cells arise from haploid spores and form gametophyte. Moss exhibits alternation of generations: haploid gametophyte and diploid sporophyte. Both assertion and reason are correct, and reason explains why protonemal cells are haploid. Answer: Both A and R are correct and R explains A. Answer: 3
Q8: Match plant structures with ploidy:
A. Zygote 1. n
B. Gamete 2. 2n
C. Endosperm (dicot) 3. 3n
A-2, B-1, C-3
A-1, B-2, C-3
A-2, B-2, C-1
A-3, B-1, C-2
Explanation: Zygote is diploid (2n), gamete is haploid (n), and dicot endosperm is triploid (3n). Correct matching: A-2, B-1, C-3. Answer: 1
Q9: The haploid filamentous stage in moss is called ______.
Protonema
Sporophyte
Gametophyte
Endosperm
Explanation: Protonema is the haploid filamentous stage of moss developing from spore. It forms gametophyte which produces gametes. Sporophyte is diploid, gametophyte is mature haploid plant, endosperm is triploid. Answer: Protonema. Answer: 1
Q10: Choose correct statements about haploid structures:
Protonemal cell is haploid
Microspore is haploid
Microspore mother cell is haploid
Gametophyte is haploid
Explanation: Protonemal cells, microspores, and gametophytes are haploid. Microspore mother cells are diploid. Correct statements: 1, 2, 4. Answer: 1, 2, 4
Topic: Ploidy and Endosperm Formation
Subtopic: Endosperm Ploidy
Ploidy: Number of sets of chromosomes in a cell or nucleus.
Endosperm: Tissue in seeds formed after fertilization, nourishing the embryo.
Tetraploid: Organism or cell having four sets of chromosomes (4n).
Fertilization: Fusion of male and female gametes forming zygote.
Triploid: Cell or organism with three sets of chromosomes (3n).
Pentaploid: Cell or organism with five sets of chromosomes (5n).
Hexaploid: Cell or organism with six sets of chromosomes (6n).
Double fertilization: Unique process in angiosperms where one sperm fertilizes egg and another sperm fertilizes central cell to form endosperm.
Central cell: Cell in female gametophyte containing two polar nuclei, fuses with sperm to form endosperm.
Embryo: Young sporophyte formed after fertilization of egg cell.
Seed: Mature ovule containing embryo, endosperm, and seed coat.
Lead Question - 2022 (Abroad)
What will be the ploidy of endosperm of a seed produced after crossing tetraploid female plant with tetraploid male plant?
Pentaploid
Hexaploid
Diploid
Triploid
Explanation: In angiosperms, endosperm is formed by double fertilization: one sperm fuses with two polar nuclei. Female tetraploid provides 2n + 2n = 4n polar nuclei, male tetraploid sperm contributes 4n. Endosperm ploidy = 4n (polar nuclei) + 4n (sperm) = 8n. Therefore, none of the given options matches; conceptually, hexaploid is often assumed in tetraploid × tetraploid cases if central cell is 2n, but strictly, ploidy is 6n. Answer: Hexaploid. Answer: 2
Q1: In double fertilization, one sperm fertilizes the egg to form zygote and the other fertilizes:
Egg cell
Central cell
Synergid
Antipodal cell
Explanation: In angiosperms, double fertilization involves one sperm fusing with egg to form zygote, while the second sperm fuses with central cell containing two polar nuclei to form endosperm. Synergids and antipodals assist but do not fuse with sperm. Answer: Central cell. Answer: 2
Q2: Ploidy of embryo formed after fertilization of tetraploid female and male plants will be:
Diploid
Triploid
Tetraploid
Hexaploid
Explanation: Embryo forms by fusion of egg and sperm. Tetraploid female egg (4n) fertilized by tetraploid male sperm (4n) results in embryo ploidy 4n + 4n = 8n. However, in most texts, the female egg is considered 2n (reduced gamete), resulting in tetraploid embryo. Answer: Tetraploid. Answer: 3
Q3: Which type of tissue nourishes developing embryo in seeds?
Endosperm
Embryo sac
Seed coat
Perisperm
Explanation: Endosperm is triploid or higher ploidy tissue formed by fusion of sperm with polar nuclei, serving as nutrient reserve for embryo. Embryo sac houses gametes, seed coat protects, and perisperm is maternal tissue in some seeds. Answer: Endosperm. Answer: 1
Q4: Central cell of angiosperm embryo sac typically contains how many polar nuclei?
One
Two
Three
Four
Explanation: The central cell contains two haploid polar nuclei, which fuse with a sperm to form endosperm. This is crucial for determining endosperm ploidy. Answer: Two. Answer: 2
Q5: Crossing tetraploid female with diploid male, endosperm ploidy becomes:
Triploid
Pentaploid
Hexaploid
Octaploid
Explanation: Female tetraploid central cell contributes 4n polar nuclei, male diploid sperm contributes 2n. Endosperm ploidy = 4n + 2n = 6n (hexaploid). Answer: Hexaploid. Answer: 3
Q6: Fusion of sperm with egg in double fertilization forms:
Endosperm
Zygote
Polar nuclei
Seed coat
Explanation: Sperm fusing with egg produces zygote, which develops into the embryo. Sperm with polar nuclei forms endosperm. Polar nuclei and seed coat are not products of fertilization fusion. Answer: Zygote. Answer: 2
Q7: Assertion (A): Endosperm ploidy depends on female and male gamete ploidy.
Reason (R): Endosperm is formed by fusion of one sperm with two polar nuclei.
A is correct but R is not correct
A is not correct but R is correct
Both A and R are correct and R explains A
Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
Explanation: Endosperm ploidy results from fusion of sperm (male) with two polar nuclei (female). Therefore, the assertion is correct and reason correctly explains why endosperm ploidy depends on both gametes. Answer: Both A and R are correct and R explains A. Answer: 3
Q8: Match gametes with their ploidy in tetraploid plant:
A. Egg 1. 2n
B. Sperm 2. 2n
C. Polar nuclei 3. 2n
A-1, B-2, C-3
A-2, B-1, C-3
A-1, B-3, C-2
A-2, B-2, C-2
Explanation: In tetraploid plants, gametes are reduced to 2n. Egg is 2n, sperm is 2n, and each polar nucleus is 2n (combined 4n for endosperm). Correct match is A-2, B-2, C-2. Answer: A-2, B-2, C-2. Answer: 4
Q9: Tissue that provides nutrients to embryo is ______.
Endosperm
Embryo
Seed coat
Perisperm
Explanation: Endosperm provides food reserves for developing embryo, formed by double fertilization. Seed coat protects, perisperm is maternal tissue, and embryo develops into new plant. Answer: Endosperm. Answer: 1
Q10: Which of the following statements about endosperm are correct?
Formed by fusion of sperm with polar nuclei
Nourishes embryo
Ploidy depends on parent ploidy
Forms seed coat
Explanation: Endosperm forms by fertilization of polar nuclei by sperm, nourishes embryo, and its ploidy depends on parental gamete ploidy. Seed coat is maternal tissue, not endosperm. Correct statements are 1, 2, 3. Answer: 1, 2, 3
Topic: Floral Whorls
Subtopic: Androecium and its Variations
Keyword Definitions:
- Androecium: The male reproductive whorl of a flower consisting of stamens.
- Stamen: The male reproductive organ comprising anther and filament.
- Staminode: A sterile stamen that does not produce pollen.
- Epipetalous: Stamens attached to petals, common in Solanaceae and Asteraceae.
- Monadelphous: Stamens united by filaments into one bundle, as in China rose.
- Polyadelphous: Stamens united by filaments into many bundles, as in citrus.
- Diadelphous: Stamens united into two bundles, as in pea family (Fabaceae).
- Didynamous: Two pairs of stamens, one long and one short, as in mustard.
- Tetradynamous: Four long and two short stamens, typical of Brassicaceae (mustard).
- Filament: The slender stalk of the stamen supporting the anther.
Lead Question - 2022 (Abroad):
Identify the correct statements related to the androecium in the flower.
(a) The sterile stamens are called staminodes
(b) When stamens are attached to petals they are called epipetalous
(c) Monadelphy is seen in China-rose
(d) Polyadelphy is seen in Pea
(e) Variation in the length of anther filaments is seen in Mustard
1. (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
2. (a), (b), (c) and (e) only
3. (a), (b) and (c) only
4. (b), (c) and (d) only
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Staminodes are sterile stamens, epipetalous stamens attach to petals, monadelphous stamens are found in China rose, and mustard shows didynamous condition with unequal stamens. Polyadelphy occurs in citrus, not pea, which has diadelphous stamens.
1. Which of the following plants shows monadelphous stamens?
(a) Pea
(b) Citrus
(c) Hibiscus
(d) Mustard
Explanation: The correct answer is (c). In Hibiscus (China rose), stamens are united by filaments into a single bundle forming a staminal tube around the style. This is called monadelphous condition and is characteristic of the Malvaceae family.
2. Polyadelphous stamens are found in:
(a) Citrus
(b) Pea
(c) Mustard
(d) Solanum
Explanation: The correct answer is (a). In Citrus, stamens are united into many groups by filaments, forming the polyadelphous condition. This structure provides support and enhances pollen release efficiency during pollination.
3. Didynamous condition of stamens is a feature of:
(a) Mustard
(b) Ocimum
(c) Pea
(d) Citrus
Explanation: The correct answer is (b). In Ocimum (Lamiaceae family), four stamens are arranged in two pairs of unequal length, known as didynamous condition, which aids in effective pollination through specialized flower structure.
4. Tetradynamous condition is seen in which family?
(a) Solanaceae
(b) Malvaceae
(c) Fabaceae
(d) Brassicaceae
Explanation: The correct answer is (d). In Brassicaceae (mustard family), six stamens are present, four long and two short, forming the tetradynamous condition, helping in pollen transfer through balanced arrangement.
5. Diadelphous stamens are a characteristic feature of:
(a) Fabaceae
(b) Malvaceae
(c) Asteraceae
(d) Brassicaceae
Explanation: The correct answer is (a). In Fabaceae, stamens are united into two bundles by their filaments forming the diadelphous condition, typically seen in pea, which aids in effective pollination by insects.
6. Stamens attached to petals are called:
(a) Epipetalous
(b) Epiphyllous
(c) Epiphyte
(d) Monadelphous
Explanation: The correct answer is (a). When stamens are fused with petals, they are termed epipetalous, a common feature in Solanaceae and Asteraceae families, ensuring proximity between anthers and pollinators for effective pollination.
7. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): Stamens in pea are diadelphous.
Reason (R): All filaments are united into a single bundle.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
Explanation: The correct answer is (c). Stamens in pea are diadelphous where 9 stamens are united and 1 remains free. The reason is false since all filaments are not united into one bundle but into two.
8. Matching Type:
Match the plant with its stamen condition:
(a) Hibiscus - (i) Monadelphous
(b) Citrus - (ii) Polyadelphous
(c) Pea - (iii) Diadelphous
(d) Mustard - (iv) Tetradynamous
Options:
1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Hibiscus is monadelphous, Citrus polyadelphous, Pea diadelphous, and Mustard tetradynamous. These stamen arrangements assist in diverse pollination mechanisms among angiosperms.
9. Fill in the Blank:
Stamens fused with the corolla are called ________.
(a) Epipetalous
(b) Epiphyllous
(c) Monadelphous
(d) Polyadelphous
Explanation: The correct answer is (a). Epipetalous stamens are fused with the corolla, ensuring better positioning of anthers for pollination, commonly seen in flowers of the Solanaceae family.
10. Choose the Correct Statements:
1. Epipetalous stamens attach to petals.
2. Monadelphous condition occurs in China rose.
3. Diadelphous stamens occur in Pea.
4. Polyadelphous stamens occur in Pea.
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation: The correct answer is (a). Epipetalous stamens are attached to petals, China rose shows monadelphous stamens, and Pea shows diadelphous condition. Polyadelphous condition is seen in Citrus, not in Pea.
Topic: Flower Symmetry
Subtopic: Zygomorphic and Actinomorphic Flowers
Keyword Definitions:
Zygomorphic: Flowers that can be divided into equal halves in only one plane, showing bilateral symmetry.
Actinomorphic: Flowers that can be divided into equal halves along multiple planes, showing radial symmetry.
Mustard: A plant with actinomorphic flowers, family Brassicaceae.
Glumohar: Also called Delonix regia, tree with zygomorphic flowers.
Cassia: A genus of leguminous plants with zygomorphic flowers.
Datura: Genus with actinomorphic flowers, family Solanaceae.
Chilly: Capsicum species, flowers are actinomorphic.
Flower symmetry: The arrangement of floral parts and their ability to be divided into equal halves.
Bilateral symmetry: Same as zygomorphic symmetry, only one plane of division.
Radial symmetry: Same as actinomorphic symmetry, multiple planes of division.
Lead Question (2022)
The flowers are Zygomorphic in
(a) Mustard
(b) Glumohar
(c) Cassia
(d) Datura
(e) Chilly
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (b), (c) only
(2) (d), (e) only
(3) (c), (d), (e) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) only
Explanation:
Zygomorphic flowers have bilateral symmetry, meaning they can be divided into equal halves in only one plane. Glumohar (b) and Cassia (c) exhibit this symmetry, whereas Mustard, Datura, and Chilly have actinomorphic flowers with radial symmetry. Therefore, the correct answer is (1).
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which flower exhibits radial symmetry?
(1) Glumohar
(2) Cassia
(3) Mustard
(4) None of these
Explanation:
Radial symmetry is shown by flowers that can be divided into equal halves along multiple planes. Mustard flowers are actinomorphic, exhibiting radial symmetry, while Glumohar and Cassia are zygomorphic. Correct answer is (3).
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Bilateral symmetry in flowers is also called:
(1) Actinomorphic
(2) Zygomorphic
(3) Radial
(4) Asymmetrical
Explanation:
Bilateral symmetry means the flower can be divided into two equal halves along only one plane, called zygomorphic symmetry. Actinomorphic refers to radial symmetry. Correct answer is (2).
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which family is known for zygomorphic flowers?
(1) Fabaceae
(2) Brassicaceae
(3) Solanaceae
(4) Solanaceae and Brassicaceae
Explanation:
Fabaceae (legume family) often shows zygomorphic flowers, like Cassia. Brassicaceae (Mustard) and Solanaceae (Datura) generally have actinomorphic flowers. Therefore, Fabaceae is correct. Correct answer is (1).
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Glumohar flowers are:
(1) Actinomorphic
(2) Zygomorphic
(3) Asymmetrical
(4) None of these
Explanation:
Glumohar (Delonix regia) flowers are bilateral and show zygomorphic symmetry, meaning they can be divided in only one plane into equal halves. Correct answer is (2).
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which of the following is actinomorphic?
(1) Cassia
(2) Glumohar
(3) Mustard
(4) None of these
Explanation:
Actinomorphic flowers have radial symmetry, which can be divided along multiple planes. Mustard shows actinomorphic flowers, whereas Cassia and Glumohar are zygomorphic. Correct answer is (3).
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which plant has bilateral flowers used in pollination studies?
(1) Glumohar
(2) Datura
(3) Chilly
(4) Mustard
Explanation:
Glumohar exhibits zygomorphic flowers and is often used to study bilateral flower-pollinator interactions. Datura, Chilly, and Mustard have radial flowers. Correct answer is (1).
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Cassia flowers are zygomorphic.
Reason (R): Zygomorphic flowers can be divided into equal halves in multiple planes.
Options:
(1) Both A and R correct, R explains A
(2) A correct, R incorrect
(3) A incorrect, R correct
(4) Both A and R incorrect
Explanation:
Cassia flowers are zygomorphic, but zygomorphic flowers are divided into equal halves in only one plane. Hence, A is correct, R is incorrect. Correct answer is (2).
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match flower with symmetry:
A. Mustard — 1. Zygomorphic
B. Glumohar — 2. Actinomorphic
C. Cassia — 3. Zygomorphic
D. Datura — 4. Actinomorphic
Options:
(1) A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4
(2) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(3) A–2, B–3, C–1, D–4
(4) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
Explanation:
Mustard (actinomorphic–2), Glumohar (zygomorphic–1), Cassia (zygomorphic–3), Datura (actinomorphic–4). This matches option (1).
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
Zygomorphic flowers can be divided into equal halves in ________ plane.
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Multiple
(4) None
Explanation:
Zygomorphic flowers exhibit bilateral symmetry, allowing division into two equal halves in only one plane. Correct answer is (1).
10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
(a) Datura flowers are zygomorphic
(b) Cassia flowers are zygomorphic
(c) Mustard flowers are actinomorphic
(d) Glumohar flowers are zygomorphic
Options:
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, c, d
(4) b, d only
Explanation:
Cassia and Glumohar show zygomorphic flowers, Mustard is actinomorphic, Datura is actinomorphic. Correct combination is (2).
Topic: Pollination
Subtopic: Types and Agents of Pollination
Keyword Definitions:
Pollination: Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma to enable fertilization.
Abiotic Pollination: Pollination not involving living organisms, typically by wind or water.
Biotic Pollination: Pollination involving living agents like insects, birds, or animals.
Moths: Nocturnal insects that pollinate flowers with pale colors and strong scent at night.
Butterflies: Diurnal insects pollinating bright, fragrant flowers during day.
Foul Odour: Unpleasant smell produced by some flowers to attract flies and beetles for pollination.
Water Pollination: Rare method of abiotic pollination, usually in aquatic plants.
Wind Pollination: Common abiotic pollination method, especially in grasses, cereals, and some trees.
Beetles: Insects attracted to strong-smelling or fruity flowers, aiding pollination.
Flower Agents: Organisms or environmental factors that facilitate transfer of pollen.
Lead Question (2022)
Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination:
(1) Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination
(2) Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinated
(3) Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects
(4) Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
Explanation:
Among insects, bees, not moths and butterflies, are the most dominant pollinators, making statement (3) incorrect. Wind pollination is common among abiotic agents, foul odours attract flies and beetles, and water pollination is rare. Correct answer is (3).
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which type of flower is usually pollinated by beetles?
(1) Odorless, small flowers
(2) Flowers with foul odor and strong color
(3) Wind-pollinated flowers
(4) Water-borne flowers
Explanation:
Beetles are attracted to flowers with foul odors, fruity scents, or strong colors. These features ensure effective pollination. Odorless, wind, or water-pollinated flowers are not suitable for beetle pollination. Correct answer is (2).
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
The most common abiotic pollination method is:
(1) Water
(2) Wind
(3) Insects
(4) Birds
Explanation:
Wind pollination is the predominant abiotic method, seen in grasses, cereals, and some trees. Water pollination is rare, and insects or birds are biotic pollinators. Correct answer is (2).
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which insect is most dominant in pollination?
(1) Butterfly
(2) Moth
(3) Bee
(4) Beetle
Explanation:
Bees are the most efficient and dominant insect pollinators due to their frequent flower visits, pollen-collecting behavior, and hairy body structure that carries pollen. Butterflies and moths also pollinate but are less dominant. Correct answer is (3).
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Water pollination occurs mostly in:
(1) Terrestrial trees
(2) Aquatic plants
(3) Desert plants
(4) Wind-pollinated grasses
Explanation:
Water pollination (hydrophily) is a rare form of abiotic pollination occurring in aquatic plants where pollen floats on water to reach the stigma. Terrestrial and desert plants rely on wind or insects. Correct answer is (2).
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which type of flower typically produces foul odors to attract pollinators?
(1) Rose
(2) Rafflesia
(3) Sunflower
(4) Hibiscus
Explanation:
Flowers like Rafflesia produce foul odors to attract flies and beetles for pollination. Roses and hibiscus rely on color and fragrance, sunflower is wind-pollinated. Correct answer is (2).
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which agent does not participate in abiotic pollination?
(1) Wind
(2) Water
(3) Birds
(4) None of these
Explanation:
Abiotic pollination relies on non-living agents like wind and water. Birds are living pollinators and thus participate in biotic pollination. Correct answer is (3).
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Water pollination is rare among flowering plants.
Reason (R): Only aquatic plants have adaptations for hydrophily.
Options:
(1) Both A and R are correct, R explains A
(2) A correct, R incorrect
(3) A incorrect, R correct
(4) Both A and R incorrect
Explanation:
Water pollination occurs rarely because only aquatic plants have pollen adapted for dispersal on water surfaces. This explains why hydrophily is uncommon. Correct answer is (1).
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match pollinator with the flower type:
A. Fly — 1. Foul smelling flowers
B. Butterfly — 2. Bright, fragrant flowers
C. Wind — 3. Odorless, small flowers
D. Beetle — 4. Strong scented, often large flowers
Options:
(1) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(2) A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4
(3) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4
(4) A–1, B–3, C–2, D–4
Explanation:
Flies are attracted to foul-smelling flowers, butterflies to bright, fragrant flowers, wind pollinates odorless, small flowers, and beetles prefer strong-scented or large flowers. Correct answer is (1).
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
Pollination that occurs without the involvement of living agents is called ________.
(1) Biotic pollination
(2) Abiotic pollination
(3) Insect pollination
(4) Bird pollination
Explanation:
Abiotic pollination occurs without living agents, typically via wind or water. Biotic pollination involves animals like insects or birds. Correct answer is (2).
10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
(a) Wind pollination is common in grasses
(b) Bees are dominant insect pollinators
(c) Water pollination is frequent in flowering plants
(d) Flowers producing foul odors are pollinated by flies
Options:
(1) a, b, d only
(2) a, b, c only
(3) b, c, d only
(4) a, c, d only
Explanation:
Wind pollination is common in grasses (a), bees dominate insect pollination (b), and flowers with foul odors attract flies (d). Water pollination is rare, not frequent. Correct answer is (1).
Topic: Floral Characters
Subtopic: Aestivation and Stamens
Keyword Definitions:
Vexillary Aestivation: Arrangement of five petals in papilionaceous flowers where one large petal (standard) overlaps two lateral petals (wings) and the wings overlap the two lower petals (keel).
Diadelphous Stamens: Stamens united by filaments into two bundles, common in Fabaceae family.
Pisum sativum: Common pea plant, papilionaceous flower with vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens.
Allium cepa: Onion plant with free stamens and imbricate aestivation.
Solanum nigrum: Nightshade, flower has free stamens and valvate or twisted aestivation.
Colchicum autumnale: Autumn crocus, flower has free stamens and imbricate aestivation.
Aestivation: The arrangement of petals or sepals in a flower bud.
Stamens: Male reproductive organ of flower, composed of filament and anther.
Papilionaceous Flower: Butterfly-shaped flower typical of Fabaceae family.
Keel: Two fused lower petals in papilionaceous flowers enclosing reproductive organs.
Lead Question (2022)
Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens?
(1) Pisum sativum
(2) Allium cepa
(3) Solanum nigrum
(4) Colchicum automnale
Explanation:
Pisum sativum exhibits papilionaceous flowers with vexillary aestivation where the large standard petal overlaps lateral wings and keel petals. Its ten stamens are diadelphous, nine fused and one free. Other plants listed do not show both features. Correct answer is (1).
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
In papilionaceous flowers, the keel petals enclose:
(1) Ovary only
(2) Stamens and pistil
(3) Nectar only
(4) Calyx
Explanation:
The two fused lower petals called keel enclose the reproductive organs: stamens and pistil. This protects them and facilitates pollination. Other options are incorrect. Correct answer is (2).
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Diadelphous stamens are characteristic of which family?
(1) Solanaceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Colchicaceae
Explanation:
Diadelphous stamens, where stamens are united into two groups by filaments, are typical of the Fabaceae family. Other families listed have free stamens. Correct answer is (2).
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
The largest petal in a papilionaceous flower is called:
(1) Wing
(2) Standard
(3) Keel
(4) Sepal
Explanation:
The standard is the largest and uppermost petal in papilionaceous flowers, which protects inner petals and attracts pollinators. Wings are lateral, keel petals are lower, and sepals form calyx. Correct answer is (2).
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Vexillary aestivation is an example of:
(1) Contorted
(2) Twisted
(3) Papilionaceous
(4) Imbricate
Explanation:
Vexillary aestivation is the arrangement of petals in papilionaceous flowers where the standard overlaps wings and keel petals. This type is characteristic of Fabaceae. Other options describe different petal arrangements. Correct answer is (3).
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Number of stamens typically diadelphous in Pisum sativum is:
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 6
Explanation:
Pisum sativum has ten stamens, nine fused by filaments and one free, forming diadelphous stamens. This arrangement facilitates pollination. Other options are incorrect. Correct answer is (2).
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
The lateral petals of papilionaceous flower are called:
(1) Standard
(2) Wings
(3) Keel
(4) Sepals
Explanation:
Wings are the lateral petals of papilionaceous flowers, situated on both sides of the keel and standard. They aid in protecting reproductive organs and pollinator guidance. Correct answer is (2).
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Pisum sativum has diadelphous stamens.
Reason (R): Diadelphous stamens consist of two groups of stamens, one free and remaining fused.
Options:
(1) Both A and R are correct, R explains A
(2) A correct, R incorrect
(3) A incorrect, R correct
(4) Both A and R incorrect
Explanation:
Diadelphous stamens in Pisum sativum consist of nine stamens fused and one free. This description accurately explains the assertion. Correct answer is (1).
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match plant with its floral character:
A. Pisum sativum — 1. Vexillary aestivation
B. Allium cepa — 2. Imbricate aestivation
C. Solanum nigrum — 3. Valvate aestivation
D. Colchicum autumnale — 4. Imbricate aestivation
Options:
(1) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(2) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
(3) A–1, B–3, C–2, D–4
(4) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4
Explanation:
Pisum sativum has vexillary aestivation. Allium cepa and Colchicum autumnale show imbricate aestivation. Solanum nigrum exhibits valvate aestivation. Correct answer is (1).
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
The flower type with one large standard petal, two wings and two fused lower petals is called ________.
(1) Papilionaceous
(2) Solanaceous
(3) Cruciferous
(4) Liliaceous
Explanation:
Papilionaceous flowers are characteristic of Fabaceae, with one standard, two wings, and a fused keel of two petals. Other options refer to different families with unrelated floral structures. Correct answer is (1).
10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
(a) Pisum sativum shows vexillary aestivation
(b) Diadelphous stamens are found in Fabaceae
(c) Allium cepa has diadelphous stamens
(d) Keel petals enclose reproductive organs
Options:
(1) a, b, d only
(2) a, c, d only
(3) b, c only
(4) a, b, c, d
Explanation:
Pisum sativum shows vexillary aestivation (a), diadelphous stamens are typical of Fabaceae (b), and keel petals enclose reproductive organs (d). Allium cepa does not have diadelphous stamens. Correct answer is (1).
Subtopic: Cleistogamy and Autogamy
Keyword Definitions:
Cleistogamous flowers: Flowers that do not open and self-pollinate within the closed bud.
Autogamous: Self-pollination occurring within the same flower, ensuring seed formation.
Cross-pollination: Transfer of pollen between different flowers or plants, increasing genetic diversity.
Advantage of cleistogamy: Ensures reproduction even in absence of pollinators.
Disadvantage of cleistogamy: Lack of genetic variation due to absence of cross-pollination.
Lead Question (2022)
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous
Statement II: Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross-pollination
Options:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
Explanation:
Cleistogamous flowers always self-pollinate and are therefore autogamous, making Statement I correct. However, cleistogamy is not entirely disadvantageous; it guarantees seed set even without pollinators, so Statement II is incorrect. Correct answer is (2). Cleistogamy ensures reproduction but limits genetic diversity, not a strict disadvantage.
1. Which type of flowers remain closed and self-pollinate?
(1) Chasmogamous
(2) Cleistogamous
(3) Bisexual
(4) Unisexual
Explanation:
Cleistogamous flowers never open and always self-pollinate within the bud, ensuring reproduction without external pollinators. Chasmogamous flowers open and may undergo cross-pollination. Correct answer is (2).
2. Cleistogamy is advantageous because:
(1) It ensures seed formation without pollinators
(2) It allows maximum genetic diversity
(3) It promotes cross-pollination
(4) Flowers bloom in all seasons
Explanation:
Cleistogamous flowers self-pollinate inside closed buds, ensuring seed formation even in absence of pollinators or adverse conditions. It does not promote genetic diversity or cross-pollination. Correct answer is (1).
3. Autogamy refers to:
(1) Self-pollination within a flower
(2) Pollination between two flowers
(3) Pollination by insects
(4) Seed dispersal mechanism
Explanation:
Autogamy is self-pollination occurring within the same flower, leading to seed formation without need for pollen transfer. Correct answer is (1).
4. Disadvantage of cleistogamy includes:
(1) No seed formation
(2) Limited genetic diversity
(3) Requires pollinators
(4) Flowers remain open
Explanation:
Since cleistogamous flowers always self-pollinate, cross-pollination does not occur, leading to limited genetic diversity. Seed formation is ensured, and pollinators are not required. Correct answer is (2).
5. Cleistogamous flowers are commonly found in:
(1) Viola and Oxalis
(2) Hibiscus and Rose
(3) Sunflower and Mustard
(4) Maize and Wheat
Explanation:
Plants like Viola and Oxalis produce cleistogamous flowers that self-pollinate inside closed buds. Hibiscus, rose, sunflower, and mustard mainly produce chasmogamous flowers. Correct answer is (1).
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which is true for cleistogamous flowers?
(1) Always cross-pollinated
(2) Always autogamous
(3) Only produce male gametes
(4) Require insect pollinators
Explanation:
Cleistogamous flowers never open and always self-pollinate, making them autogamous. They do not rely on pollinators or cross-pollination. Correct answer is (2).
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Cleistogamy ensures reproduction without pollinators
Reason (R): It increases genetic diversity
Options:
(1) Both A and R correct, R explains A
(2) A correct, R incorrect
(3) A incorrect, R correct
(4) Both A and R incorrect
Explanation:
Cleistogamy ensures seed formation without pollinators, but it does not enhance genetic diversity due to self-pollination. Hence, Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect. Correct answer is (2).
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match flowers with pollination type:
A. Cleistogamous — 1. Self-pollination
B. Chasmogamous — 2. Cross-pollination
Options:
(1) A–1, B–2
(2) A–2, B–1
(3) A–1, B–1
(4) A–2, B–2
Explanation:
Cleistogamous flowers undergo self-pollination (1), whereas chasmogamous flowers may cross-pollinate (2). Correct match is (1).
9. Fill in the Blanks:
Flowers that remain closed and self-pollinate are called _______.
(1) Cleistogamous
(2) Chasmogamous
(3) Bisexual
(4) Unisexual
Explanation:
Cleistogamous flowers never open and always self-pollinate, ensuring reproduction without pollinators. Correct answer is (1).
10. Choose the Correct Statements:
(a) Cleistogamous flowers are always autogamous
(b) They never open
(c) They rely on insects for pollination
(d) They limit genetic diversity
Options:
(1) a, b, d
(2) a and c only
(3) b and c only
(4) all of the above
Explanation:
Cleistogamous flowers self-pollinate (a), remain closed (b), and limit genetic diversity (d). They do not rely on insects. Correct answer is (1).
Topic: Floral Formulae and Families
Subtopic: Matching Floral Formula with Families
Keyword Definitions:
Floral formula: A symbolic representation of flower structure showing calyx, corolla, androecium, and gynoecium.
Brassicaceae: Family with cruciform corolla and tetradynamous stamens.
Fabaceae: Family with papilionaceous corolla and diadelphous stamens.
Solanaceae: Family with epipetalous stamens and bicarpellary ovary.
Liliaceae: Monocot family with trimerous flowers and superior ovary.
Lead Question - 2021
Match Column - I with Column - II.
(a) ♂♀K(5)C1+2+(2)A(9)+1G1
(b) ♂♀K(5)C(5)A5G2
(c) ♂♀P(3+3)A3+3G(3)
(d) ♂♀K2+2C4A2+2G(2)
Column - II
(i) Brassicaceae
(ii) Liliaceae
(iii) Fabaceae
(iv) Solanaceae
(1) (a-i), (b-ii), (c-iii), (d-iv)
(2) (a-ii), (b-iii), (c-iv), (d-i)
(3) (a-iv), (b-iii), (c-i), (d-ii)
(4) (a-iii), (b-iv), (c-ii), (d-i)
Explanation: The correct answer is option (1). Formula (a) belongs to Fabaceae with diadelphous stamens. Formula (b) represents Solanaceae with pentamerous flowers. Formula (c) belongs to Liliaceae with trimerous flowers. Formula (d) represents Brassicaceae with tetradynamous stamens. Thus, (a-i), (b-ii), (c-iii), (d-iv) is the correct matching sequence.
Guessed Questions
1) In Brassicaceae, stamens are typically:
(1) Monadelphous
(2) Diadelphous
(3) Tetradynamous
(4) Polyandrous
Explanation: The correct answer is (3). Brassicaceae flowers show tetradynamous condition, where six stamens are present, four long and two short. This characteristic feature helps in identification of the family. Such floral adaptation ensures efficient pollination and is unique to the mustard family members.
2) In Fabaceae, the corolla is:
(1) Cruciform
(2) Papilionaceous
(3) Gamopetalous
(4) Rotate
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Fabaceae members have papilionaceous corolla, composed of a standard, two wings, and a keel. This structure is specialized for pollination in legumes like pea and bean. The papilionaceous arrangement ensures proper landing platform and protection of reproductive structures.
3) Which feature is typical of Solanaceae?
(1) Polycarpellary ovary
(2) Epipetalous stamens
(3) Diadelphous condition
(4) Unilocular ovary
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Solanaceae flowers have stamens attached to petals, called epipetalous stamens. This feature, along with bicarpellary syncarpous ovary and axile placentation, distinguishes the family. Examples include tomato, potato, and brinjal, which are widely cultivated food crops.
4) In Liliaceae, flowers are:
(1) Pentamerous
(2) Tetramerous
(3) Trimerous
(4) Dimerous
Explanation: The correct answer is (3). Liliaceae, being a monocot family, has trimerous flowers with floral parts in multiples of three. This is a key identifying feature of monocots. Members like onion and tulip display this arrangement. The ovary is superior and trilocular.
5) In Fabaceae, stamens are:
(1) Monadelphous
(2) Diadelphous
(3) Polyandrous
(4) Syngenesious
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Fabaceae flowers typically have diadelphous stamens, where ten stamens are present, nine fused and one free. This condition supports pollination by providing mechanical aid. It is an important diagnostic feature for identifying this family among dicot plants.
6) Which of the following shows a cruciform corolla?
(1) Mustard
(2) Pea
(3) Potato
(4) Onion
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Mustard, belonging to Brassicaceae, shows cruciform corolla where four free petals are arranged in the shape of a cross. This characteristic arrangement is distinctive for the family and aids in recognizing cruciferous vegetables such as radish, cabbage, and cauliflower.
7) Assertion (A): Solanaceae members have epipetalous stamens.
Reason (R): Stamens arise from the gynoecium.
(1) Both A and R are true, R explains A
(2) A true, R false
(3) A false, R true
(4) Both A and R false
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). In Solanaceae, stamens are epipetalous, meaning they are attached to petals, not arising from the gynoecium. Thus, assertion is correct but reason is false. This feature helps in pollination and is characteristic of the family.
8) Match the following:
(a) Brassicaceae → (i) Cruciform corolla
(b) Fabaceae → (ii) Papilionaceous corolla
(c) Solanaceae → (iii) Epipetalous stamens
(d) Liliaceae → (iv) Trimerous flowers
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Brassicaceae has cruciform corolla, Fabaceae has papilionaceous corolla, Solanaceae has epipetalous stamens, and Liliaceae shows trimerous flowers. These diagnostic characters are essential for classifying plants into families based on their floral morphology.
9) Fill in the blank: The floral formula of Fabaceae is represented as __________.
(1) K5C1+2+(2)A9+1G1
(2) K(5)C(5)A5G2
(3) P3+3A3+3G(3)
(4) K2+2C4A2+2G(2)
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Fabaceae has floral formula K5C1+2+(2)A9+1G1, where the papilionaceous corolla is represented as standard, wings, and keel, with diadelphous stamens and a monocarpellary ovary. This formula is diagnostic for the family, especially legumes like pea and bean.
10) Choose the correct statements:
(1) Brassicaceae has cruciform corolla.
(2) Fabaceae shows diadelphous stamens.
(3) Solanaceae flowers are pentamerous.
(4) Liliaceae has trimerous flowers.
(1) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(2) 1, 2, and 4 only
(3) 1 and 3 only
(4) 2 and 4 only
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). All statements are true: Brassicaceae has cruciform corolla, Fabaceae has diadelphous stamens, Solanaceae has pentamerous epipetalous flowers, and Liliaceae has trimerous flowers. These features serve as important diagnostic characteristics for classification of angiosperm families.
Topic: Sexual Reproduction
Subtopic: Gametic Fusion Processes
Keyword Definitions:
Plasmogamy: Fusion of the cytoplasm of two gametes.
Karyogamy: Fusion of nuclei of gametes after plasmogamy.
Saprophytes: Organisms obtaining nutrition from dead and decaying matter.
Heterocyst: Specialized cell in cyanobacteria for nitrogen fixation.
Lead Question - 2021
Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
(2) Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.
(3) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.
(4) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
Explanation: The correct answer is option (1) because plasmogamy refers to cytoplasmic fusion of two gametes. Karyogamy specifically denotes nuclear fusion. Saprophytes live on dead matter, not living plants. Nitrogen fixation occurs in heterocysts, not sheath cells. Thus, plasmogamy is the accurate definition here, highlighting the initial stage in sexual reproduction.
Guessed Questions
1) In fungi, after plasmogamy but before karyogamy, the stage is:
(1) Diploid
(2) Dikaryotic
(3) Haploid
(4) Polyploid
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). After plasmogamy, nuclei from different gametes remain unfused, resulting in a dikaryotic stage. This is unique to fungi and persists until karyogamy occurs. It allows genetic variation and adaptation. This prolonged dikaryotic phase helps fungi survive under diverse environmental conditions before nuclear fusion.
2) Karyogamy results in:
(1) Diploid zygote
(2) Haploid gamete
(3) Dikaryon
(4) Spore mother cell
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Karyogamy refers to the fusion of nuclei from two haploid gametes, forming a diploid zygote. This process is essential for sexual reproduction, leading to recombination and variation. The diploid stage formed undergoes meiosis later to restore haploid conditions in offspring.
3) Which organisms typically possess heterocysts?
(1) Blue-green algae
(2) Green algae
(3) Fungi
(4) Protozoa
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Heterocysts are thick-walled cells present in cyanobacteria (blue-green algae) like Anabaena and Nostoc. They are specialized for nitrogen fixation, providing anaerobic conditions necessary for nitrogenase activity. These cells ensure survival and growth of cyanobacteria in nitrogen-deficient environments, playing a critical role in the nitrogen cycle.
4) In plants, saprophytes derive nutrition from:
(1) Living hosts
(2) Soil minerals only
(3) Dead and decaying matter
(4) Symbiotic association
Explanation: The correct answer is (3). Saprophytes feed on dead and decaying organic matter by secreting enzymes to decompose it. Examples include fungi like mushrooms. They recycle nutrients back to the ecosystem, making them vital decomposers. Unlike parasites, they do not harm living hosts while obtaining nutrition.
5) The dikaryotic phase is absent in:
(1) Basidiomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Algae
(4) Higher fungi
Explanation: The correct answer is (3). Algae typically lack a prolonged dikaryotic phase. In fungi such as basidiomycetes and ascomycetes, the dikaryotic condition is common after plasmogamy, before karyogamy. This stage is absent in algae, which usually follow a simpler life cycle involving gamete fusion directly leading to zygote formation.
6) In sexual reproduction, plasmogamy is followed by:
(1) Syngamy
(2) Karyogamy
(3) Sporulation
(4) Fertilization
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Plasmogamy is the fusion of gamete cytoplasm, while karyogamy is nuclear fusion. These sequential events complete syngamy or fertilization. Sporulation occurs later in some organisms. Thus, karyogamy follows plasmogamy to produce diploid nuclei that later undergo meiosis for gamete formation.
7) Assertion (A): Plasmogamy occurs before karyogamy in fungi.
Reason (R): Cytoplasmic fusion precedes nuclear fusion.
(1) A and R are true, R explains A
(2) A true, R false
(3) A false, R true
(4) A and R false
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). In fungi, plasmogamy (cytoplasmic fusion) occurs first, followed by karyogamy (nuclear fusion). This sequential process allows a dikaryotic stage in many fungi. The reason correctly explains the assertion. It ensures genetic recombination while maintaining adaptability before nuclear fusion finally occurs.
8) Match the following:
(a) Plasmogamy → (i) Fusion of cytoplasm
(b) Karyogamy → (ii) Fusion of nuclei
(c) Saprophyte → (iii) Nutrition from dead matter
(d) Heterocyst → (iv) Nitrogen fixation
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Plasmogamy is cytoplasmic fusion, karyogamy is nuclear fusion, saprophytes feed on dead matter, and heterocysts specialize in nitrogen fixation. Each process or structure plays a vital role in biological cycles, reproduction, or ecosystem balance, reflecting the diversity of adaptations in living organisms.
9) Fill in the blanks: In fungi, __________ occurs first, followed by __________ during sexual reproduction.
(1) Karyogamy, plasmogamy
(2) Plasmogamy, karyogamy
(3) Syngamy, sporulation
(4) Sporulation, syngamy
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). In fungi, plasmogamy (cytoplasmic fusion) occurs first, creating a dikaryotic condition. Later, karyogamy (nuclear fusion) follows to complete fertilization. This unique sequence differentiates fungi from many organisms and allows them to maintain diversity and adaptability across varied ecological niches.
10) Choose the correct statements:
(1) Plasmogamy refers to cytoplasmic fusion.
(2) Karyogamy refers to nuclear fusion.
(3) Saprophytes depend on living hosts.
(4) Heterocysts are meant for nitrogen fixation.
(1) 1, 2, and 4
(2) 1 and 3 only
(3) 2 and 4 only
(4) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Plasmogamy involves cytoplasmic fusion, karyogamy involves nuclear fusion, and heterocysts are specialized for nitrogen fixation. Saprophytes feed on dead matter, not living hosts. Thus, statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct, while 3 is incorrect, highlighting differences among reproductive and nutritional strategies.
Topic: Pollination Biology
Subtopic: Pollen Viability
Keyword Definitions:
Pollen viability: Ability of pollen grains to remain alive and functional for fertilization.
Poaceae: Family of grasses, including wheat, rice, and maize.
Leguminosae: Plant family including beans, peas, and lentils.
Solanaceae: Family of plants including potato, tomato, and brinjal.
Rosaceae: Plant family including rose, apple, and strawberry.
Lead Question - 2021
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?
(1) Poaceae ; Leguminosae
(2) Poaceae ; Solanaceae
(3) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
(4) Poaceae ; Rosaceae
Explanation: Pollen viability varies greatly among plant families. Members of Poaceae and Rosaceae retain viable pollen grains for months, enhancing fertilization chances under varied conditions. This adaptation supports successful reproduction. Thus, the correct answer is (4) Poaceae; Rosaceae.
1. Pollen grains in which plant family commonly lose viability within a few minutes of release?
(1) Rice (Poaceae)
(2) Leguminosae
(3) Rosaceae
(4) Solanaceae
Explanation: In cereals like rice and wheat (Poaceae), pollen viability is very short, sometimes lasting only a few minutes, due to thin exine. This ensures rapid pollination in windy environments. Thus, the correct answer is (1) Rice (Poaceae).
2. In which plant family do pollen grains often remain viable for several months, aiding cross-pollination?
(1) Leguminosae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Rosaceae
(4) Poaceae
Explanation: Rosaceae pollen grains can survive for long durations, sometimes months, ensuring successful pollination across seasons. This is crucial in fruit-bearing plants like apple and pear. Thus, the correct answer is (3) Rosaceae.
3. Assertion (A): In Rosaceae, pollen viability lasts for months.
Reason (R): Thick exine and protective compounds in pollen coat enhance longevity.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, R is false.
(4) A is false, R is true.
Explanation: Pollen longevity in Rosaceae is due to structural adaptations like thick exine and sporopollenin presence. These ensure resistance against dehydration. Both assertion and reason are true, and R correctly explains A. Thus, the correct answer is (1).
4. Match the following families with approximate pollen viability duration:
A. Poaceae
B. Rosaceae
C. Solanaceae
D. Leguminosae
(1) A - Minutes, B - Months, C - Hours, D - Days
(2) A - Hours, B - Days, C - Months, D - Minutes
(3) A - Months, B - Hours, C - Days, D - Minutes
(4) A - Days, B - Months, C - Hours, D - Minutes
Explanation: Poaceae pollen lasts minutes, Rosaceae months, Solanaceae hours, and Leguminosae days. This variation ensures reproductive success adapted to pollination mechanisms. Thus, the correct answer is (1).
5. Fill in the blank:
Pollen grains of ___________ remain viable for months due to their thick exine and protective structures.
(1) Rice
(2) Rose
(3) Tomato
(4) Gram
Explanation: Rose belongs to Rosaceae, where pollen grains remain viable for months. Structural features like sporopollenin in the exine prevent desiccation and degradation, ensuring longer reproductive capacity. Thus, the correct answer is (2) Rose.
6. Which one of the following plants has the shortest pollen viability?
(1) Wheat
(2) Apple
(3) Tomato
(4) Gram
Explanation: Wheat, a member of Poaceae, has pollen viability lasting only a few minutes. This adaptation facilitates rapid wind pollination. Apple (Rosaceae), tomato (Solanaceae), and gram (Leguminosae) show longer viability compared to wheat. Thus, the correct answer is (1) Wheat.
7. Which of the following statements about pollen viability is correct?
(1) Poaceae pollen lasts months.
(2) Rosaceae pollen lasts months.
(3) Solanaceae pollen lasts days.
(4) Leguminosae pollen lasts minutes.
Explanation: Rosaceae pollen grains remain viable for months, while Poaceae lasts minutes, Solanaceae hours, and Leguminosae days. This diversity reflects reproductive adaptations in different ecological settings. Thus, the correct answer is (2) Rosaceae pollen lasts months.
8. Which adaptation ensures high pollen viability in Rosaceae family members?
(1) Thin exine
(2) Sporopollenin in exine
(3) Absence of coat
(4) Rapid hydration
Explanation: Sporopollenin in the exine of pollen grains is the toughest organic compound, preventing degradation and ensuring long-term viability. This feature allows Rosaceae pollen to survive months after release. Thus, the correct answer is (2) Sporopollenin in exine.
9. Choose the correct statements about pollen viability:
(1) Poaceae pollen lasts a few minutes.
(2) Rosaceae pollen lasts months.
(3) Solanaceae pollen lasts hours.
(4) Leguminosae pollen lasts days.
(1) 1, 2 and 3 only
(2) 2, 3 and 4 only
(3) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(4) 1 and 4 only
Explanation: Pollen viability differs among families: Poaceae – minutes, Rosaceae – months, Solanaceae – hours, Leguminosae – days. All given statements are correct. Thus, the correct answer is (3) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
10. In which of the following does pollen viability remain longest?
(1) Wheat
(2) Tomato
(3) Gram
(4) Apple
Explanation: Apple, belonging to Rosaceae, has pollen grains viable for months, ensuring cross-pollination and fruit set. Wheat, tomato, and gram show shorter viability. Thus, the correct answer is (4) Apple.
Topic: Pollination
Subtopic: Types of Pollination
Keyword Definitions:
Pollination: Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma.
Geitonogamy: Pollination between different flowers of the same plant.
Chasmogamy: Pollination in open flowers before fertilization.
Cleistogamy: Pollination in closed flowers without opening.
Xenogamy: Pollination between flowers of genetically different plants.
Lead Question - 2021
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
(1) Geitonogamy
(2) Chasmogamy
(3) Cleistogamy
(4) Xenogamy
Explanation: The correct answer is (4) Xenogamy. Xenogamy involves pollen transfer between flowers of different plants, ensuring genetic variation. Geitonogamy occurs within the same plant, cleistogamy in closed flowers, and chasmogamy in open flowers. Xenogamy is the only true cross-pollination type introducing genetic diversity. Thus, option (4) is correct.
Guessed Questions:
1. Self-pollination within the same flower is called:
(1) Autogamy
(2) Xenogamy
(3) Geitonogamy
(4) Cleistogamy
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) Autogamy. It occurs when pollen from the same flower fertilizes its ovules. This ensures seed formation without external agents but limits genetic diversity. Cleistogamy is a form of autogamy in closed flowers. Geitonogamy occurs between flowers of the same plant. Xenogamy is true cross-pollination.
2. Which pollination type ensures maximum genetic variation?
(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Xenogamy
(4) Cleistogamy
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) Xenogamy. It ensures genetic variation because pollen comes from a different plant of the same species. Autogamy and geitonogamy involve self-pollination, producing limited diversity. Cleistogamy ensures reproduction but no genetic variation. Thus, xenogamy is essential for evolution and adaptability of plants.
3. Which agent is most commonly associated with xenogamy in flowering plants?
(1) Water
(2) Wind
(3) Insects
(4) Gravity
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) Insects. Insects are the most common agents of cross-pollination (xenogamy) as they carry pollen between flowers of different plants. Wind and water also help in some species, but insect pollination dominates among angiosperms due to co-evolution. Gravity is rarely an agent of pollination.
4. Pollination occurring in unopened flowers is termed:
(1) Cleistogamy
(2) Chasmogamy
(3) Geitonogamy
(4) Xenogamy
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) Cleistogamy. Cleistogamous flowers remain closed and undergo self-pollination, ensuring reproductive assurance even in absence of pollinators. Chasmogamy occurs in open flowers, geitonogamy between flowers of the same plant, and xenogamy between different plants. Cleistogamy guarantees seed formation but reduces genetic diversity.
5. In geitonogamy, pollen grains come from:
(1) Same flower
(2) Different flowers of the same plant
(3) Different plants of the same species
(4) Different species
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Different flowers of the same plant. Geitonogamy requires pollinators but results genetically similar to self-pollination. It differs from autogamy (same flower) and xenogamy (different plants). Though it involves agents, genetic variation is absent, since both flowers belong to the same individual plant.
6. Which type of pollination is evolutionarily most advantageous?
(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Cleistogamy
(4) Xenogamy
Explanation: The correct answer is (4) Xenogamy. It introduces genetic recombination, increasing adaptability and survival. Autogamy, cleistogamy, and geitonogamy ensure reproduction but lack genetic variability. Evolution depends on variation, making xenogamy the most beneficial type for natural selection and long-term plant survival in changing environments.
7. Assertion (A): Cleistogamous flowers are always autogamous.
Reason (R): Cleistogamous flowers remain closed and facilitate only cross-pollination.
(1) Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true, R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) A is true, R is false. Cleistogamous flowers are indeed autogamous because they self-pollinate in closed buds. However, they do not facilitate cross-pollination. Therefore, the reason is false, while the assertion is true.
8. Match the following pollination types with their descriptions:
A. Autogamy 1. Same flower
B. Geitonogamy 2. Different flowers of same plant
C. Xenogamy 3. Different plants
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3
(2) A-2, B-1, C-3
(3) A-1, B-3, C-2
(4) A-3, B-2, C-1
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) A-1, B-2, C-3. Autogamy refers to pollination within the same flower, geitonogamy between flowers of the same plant, and xenogamy between flowers of different plants. This classification distinguishes the modes of pollination based on the origin of pollen grains.
9. Fill in the blank: Pollination by water is termed ________.
(1) Anemophily
(2) Hydrophily
(3) Zoophily
(4) Entomophily
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Hydrophily. When water acts as the pollinating agent, it is called hydrophily. Anemophily refers to wind pollination, zoophily to animal-mediated pollination, and entomophily specifically to insect-mediated pollination. Hydrophily is less common but occurs in aquatic plants such as Vallisneria and Hydrilla.
10. Choose the correct statements:
(a) Xenogamy increases genetic diversity.
(b) Geitonogamy involves genetically different plants.
(c) Cleistogamy ensures pollination without agents.
(d) Autogamy occurs in the same flower.
Options:
(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, d
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) a, c, d. Xenogamy increases genetic diversity, cleistogamy ensures pollination without agents, and autogamy occurs within the same flower. Geitonogamy, however, involves the same plant, not different ones. Thus, statements a, c, and d are correct together.
Topic: Embryo Sac Structure
Subtopic: Mature Angiosperm Embryo Sac
Keyword Definitions:
Embryo sac: Female gametophyte of angiosperms, developing within the ovule and participating in fertilization.
Angiosperm: Flowering plants producing seeds enclosed in fruits.
7-nucleate: Containing seven nuclei.
8-celled: Comprising eight distinct cells, including egg, synergids, antipodals, and central cell.
Synergids: Two cells flanking the egg cell, aiding in fertilization.
Antipodals: Three cells at the chalazal end of the embryo sac, usually nutritive.
Central cell: Contains two polar nuclei that fuse with a sperm nucleus to form endosperm.
Mature embryo sac: Ready for fertilization, fully differentiated with distinct cell types.
Lead Question - 2021
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
(1) 7-nucleate and 8-celled
(2) 7-nucleate and 7-celled
(3) 8-nucleate and 8-celled
(4) 8-nucleate and 7-celled
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) 7-nucleate and 8-celled. The mature embryo sac has seven nuclei distributed in eight cells: one egg cell, two synergids, three antipodals, and one central cell with two polar nuclei. This structure is characteristic of the Polygonum type of angiosperm embryo sac, ensuring fertilization and endosperm formation.
Guessed Questions:
1) Single Correct Answer: The central cell in an embryo sac contains:
(1) One nucleus
(2) Two polar nuclei
(3) Three nuclei
(4) None
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Two polar nuclei. The central cell fuses with one sperm during double fertilization to form triploid endosperm. Other options are incorrect as they do not represent the true nuclear composition of the central cell.
2) Single Correct Answer: Number of synergids in a mature embryo sac is:
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Two. Synergids are positioned at the micropylar end, assisting in guiding the pollen tube. They are distinct from egg and antipodal cells, ensuring proper fertilization.
3) Single Correct Answer: Number of antipodal cells in a mature angiosperm embryo sac:
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) Three. Antipodals are located at the chalazal end and are usually nutritive. Their number is three in the Polygonum type embryo sac, contributing to the overall eight-cell structure.
4) Assertion (A): Mature embryo sac is 7-nucleate and 8-celled.
Reason (R): Polar nuclei remain unfused until fertilization.
(1) Both A and R true, R explains A
(2) Both A and R true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Explanation: Correct answer is (1). The mature embryo sac is 7-nucleate and 8-celled. The two polar nuclei in the central cell remain unfused until a sperm nucleus enters for double fertilization, explaining the nucleate and cellular arrangement.
5) Single Correct Answer: The egg apparatus in an embryo sac consists of:
(1) Egg cell only
(2) Egg cell and two synergids
(3) Egg cell and three antipodals
(4) Two polar nuclei
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Egg cell and two synergids. This arrangement forms the micropylar end of the embryo sac, essential for receiving the pollen tube and facilitating fertilization.
6) Single Correct Answer: The type of embryo sac in most angiosperms is:
(1) Allium type
(2) Polygonum type
(3) Oenothera type
(4) Fritillaria type
Explanation: Correct answer is (2) Polygonum type. It is the most common type of embryo sac, consisting of seven nuclei and eight cells, ensuring proper fertilization and endosperm development.
7) Matching Type: Match cell types with functions in the embryo sac:
List-I List-II
(a) Egg cell (i) Fertilization
(b) Synergids (ii) Guide pollen tube
(c) Antipodals (iii) Nutritive
(d) Central cell (iv) Forms endosperm
Explanation: Correct answer: (a) i, (b) ii, (c) iii, (d) iv. Egg cell fuses with sperm to form zygote. Synergids guide pollen tube. Antipodals provide nutrition. Central cell with two polar nuclei forms triploid endosperm after fertilization.
8) Single Correct Answer: Number of cells at micropylar end of mature embryo sac:
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two
Explanation: Correct answer is (1) Three. The micropylar end consists of one egg cell and two synergids, forming the egg apparatus that interacts with the pollen tube for fertilization.
9) Fill in the blank: The central cell contains ______ polar nuclei before fertilization.
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) None
Explanation: Correct answer is (2) Two. The two polar nuclei remain separate until fertilization by a sperm nucleus, which forms the triploid endosperm in angiosperms.
10) Choose the correct statements:
(a) Mature embryo sac has seven nuclei.
(b) It has eight cells.
(c) Egg apparatus includes synergids.
(d) Central cell contains two polar nuclei.
Options:
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, c, d
Explanation: Correct answer is (1). The mature embryo sac has seven nuclei and eight cells. Egg apparatus includes synergids, and the central cell has two polar nuclei, confirming all four statements are accurate for angiosperm reproduction.
Topic: Types of Plants Based on Sex
Subtopic: Monoecious and Dioecious Plants
Keyword Definitions:
Monoecious: Plants in which both male and female reproductive organs are present on the same individual.
Dioecious: Plants in which male and female reproductive organs occur on separate individuals.
Chara: A green alga, usually dioecious, with separate male and female gametangia.
Marchantia polymorpha: A liverwort, typically dioecious, with distinct male and female plants.
Cycas circinalis: A gymnosperm that is dioecious, producing male and female cones on separate plants.
Carica papaya: A flowering plant that may be monoecious, having both male and female flowers on the same plant.
Male Flower: Produces pollen and stamens.
Female Flower: Produces ovules and carpels.
Lead Question - 2021
Which of the following plants is monoecious?
(1) Chara
(2) Marchantia polymorpha
(3) Cycas circinalis
(4) Carica papaya
Explanation: The correct answer is (4) Carica papaya. Monoecious plants bear both male and female flowers on the same individual, allowing self-pollination or cross-pollination. Chara, Marchantia, and Cycas are dioecious, producing male and female reproductive structures on separate individuals, preventing self-fertilization.
Guessed Questions:
1) Single Correct Answer: Which plant is dioecious?
(1) Carica papaya
(2) Cycas circinalis
(3) Maize
(4) Cucurbita
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Cycas circinalis. This gymnosperm has male and female cones on separate plants. Dioecious plants produce male and female reproductive structures on different individuals, ensuring cross-pollination and genetic diversity.
2) Single Correct Answer: Monoecious plants include:
(1) Maize
(2) Carica papaya
(3) Cycas
(4) Marchantia
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Carica papaya. In monoecious plants like papaya, both male and female flowers grow on the same plant, facilitating reproduction, unlike dioecious plants where male and female structures are on separate individuals.
3) Single Correct Answer: In monoecious plants, male and female flowers are:
(1) On separate plants
(2) On the same plant
(3) Absent
(4) Alternating yearly
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) On the same plant. Monoecious plants bear both male (staminate) and female (pistillate) flowers on the same individual, allowing potential self-pollination or cross-pollination, depending on flower arrangement and pollinator activity.
4) Assertion (A): Carica papaya can self-pollinate.
Reason (R): It is monoecious, bearing both male and female flowers.
(1) Both A and R true, R explains A
(2) Both A and R true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Carica papaya is monoecious, bearing both male and female flowers on the same plant. This allows self-pollination if pollen reaches the female flower, but cross-pollination may still occur via insects, enhancing genetic diversity.
5) Matching Type: Match plants with sexual condition.
List-I List-II
(a) Chara (i) Monoecious
(b) Carica papaya (ii) Dioecious
(c) Cycas (iii) Dioecious
(d) Marchantia (iv) Dioecious
Explanation: Correct answer: (a) ii, (b) i, (c) iii, (d) iv. Chara, Cycas, and Marchantia are dioecious with male and female organs on separate individuals, while Carica papaya is monoecious with both flower types on the same plant, illustrating plant sexual diversity.
6) Single Correct Answer: Male and female flowers on separate plants occur in:
(1) Carica papaya
(2) Chara
(3) Maize
(4) Wheat
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Chara. Chara is dioecious, producing male and female gametangia on separate individuals. This separation prevents self-fertilization and encourages cross-fertilization for genetic variation.
7) Single Correct Answer: In monoecious plants, pollination may occur via:
(1) Only wind
(2) Only insects
(3) Wind or insects
(4) Neither
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) Wind or insects. Monoecious plants like Carica papaya can utilize wind or insect vectors for pollen transfer between male and female flowers on the same plant or between different plants.
8) Single Correct Answer: Dioecious plants prevent self-fertilization because:
(1) Flowers are unisexual on same plant
(2) Male and female flowers on separate plants
(3) Flowers are bisexual
(4) Pollen is non-viable
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Dioecious plants like Cycas circinalis have male and female flowers on separate plants, making self-fertilization impossible and promoting cross-pollination for increased genetic diversity.
9) Fill in the blank: Plants with both male and female flowers on one individual are _______.
(1) Dioecious
(2) Monoecious
(3) Bisexual
(4) Polygamous
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Monoecious. Monoecious plants have male and female flowers on the same individual, allowing reproduction without a separate plant, unlike dioecious plants where male and female flowers are on different plants.
10) Choose the correct statements:
(a) Carica papaya is monoecious.
(b) Cycas is dioecious.
(c) Chara is monoecious.
(d) Marchantia is dioecious.
Options:<
Topic: Flower Structure
Subtopic: Stamen Types
Keyword Definitions:
Diadelphous Stamens: Stamens united by filaments into two groups, typically one long and one short bundle.
Citrus: A genus of flowering plants with characteristic diadelphous stamens in some species.
Pea: Leguminous plant (Pisum sativum) with diadelphous stamens arranged in 9+1 formation.
China Rose: Hibiscus rosa-sinensis; a flower with monadelphous stamens where all filaments are fused into a tube.
Stamen: Male reproductive organ of a flower, consisting of anther and filament.
Filament: The stalk supporting the anther in stamens.
Anther: Part of stamen producing pollen grains.
Monadelphous: Stamens fused into a single bundle by their filaments.
Lead Question - 2021
Diadelphous stamens are found in:
(1) Citrus
(2) Pea
(3) China rose and citrus
(4) China rose
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Pea. In pea flowers, the stamens are diadelphous, with nine filaments united to form a tube and one free filament. This arrangement facilitates pollination and distinguishes peas from flowers with monadelphous stamens like China rose or other species.
Guessed Questions:
1) In which type of stamen all filaments are fused into a single bundle?
(1) Diadelphous
(2) Monadelphous
(3) Polyadelphous
(4) Free stamens
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Monadelphous. In monadelphous stamens, all filaments are fused into a single tube, as seen in China rose, supporting efficient pollen transfer while maintaining structural integrity of the staminal column.
2) Assertion (A): Diadelphous stamens are characteristic of leguminous plants.
Reason (R): They have stamens in two groups with one free filament and others fused.
(1) Both A and R true, R explains A
(2) Both A and R true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Pea and other legumes exhibit diadelphous stamens. Nine filaments fuse into a tube, and one remains free, facilitating pollen release and transfer. This arrangement is distinctive for the Fabaceae family and aids identification of leguminous flowers.
3) Which flower has stamens completely free and not fused?
(1) Pea
(2) China rose
(3) Lily
(4) Citrus
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) Lily. Lily flowers have free stamens, with each filament supporting its own anther independently. This contrasts with diadelphous or monadelphous arrangements where filaments are partially or fully fused.
4) Fill in the blank: In pea, the diadelphous stamens have ______ filaments fused into a tube and one free.
(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 11
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) 9. In pea flowers, nine staminal filaments fuse into a tube surrounding the pistil, and one remains free. This 9+1 arrangement is characteristic of diadelphous stamens in leguminous plants.
5) Which of the following flowers exhibits polyadelphous stamens?
(1) China rose
(2) China berry (Melia azedarach)
(3) Pea
(4) Lily
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) China berry. Polyadelphous stamens are fused into more than two bundles, as seen in Melia azedarach. This differs from diadelphous (two bundles) or monadelphous (single bundle) arrangements and helps in floral classification.
6) Which part of the stamen produces pollen?
(1) Filament
(2) Anther
(3) Ovary
(4) Petal
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Anther. The anther is the terminal part of the stamen where microsporangia develop and release pollen grains. Filaments provide support, but pollen formation occurs exclusively in anthers.
7) Choose the correct statements:
a. Diadelphous stamens are typical in legumes.
b. China rose has monadelphous stamens.
c. Pea stamens have all filaments free.
d. Polyadelphous stamens form more than two bundles.
(1) a, b, d
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) a, b, c, d
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) a, b, d. Diadelphous stamens occur in legumes like pea, China rose has monadelphous stamens, and polyadelphous stamens form more than two bundles. Statement c is incorrect because pea has one free filament and nine fused, not all free.
8) Assertion (A): Monadelphous stamens form a tube around the pistil.
Reason (R): All filaments are united into a single bundle.
(1) Both A and R true, R explains A
(2) Both A and R true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). In China rose, monadelphous stamens form a tube around the pistil as all filaments are fused. This arrangement enhances pollen presentation to pollinators while maintaining structural support around the female organ.
9) Matching Type: Match the stamen type with example flower.
List-I List-II
(a) Diadelphous (i) China rose
(b) Monadelphous (ii) Pea
(c) Polyadelphous (iii) China berry
(d) Free stamens (iv) Lily
Select correct answer:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) ii, i, iii, iv
(2) i, ii, iii, iv
(3) ii, iii, i, iv
(4) iv, i, ii, iii
Explanation
Subtopic: Pollination Mechanisms
Keyword Definitions:
Wind-pollination (Anemophily): Transfer of pollen from anthers to stigma by wind.
Stamens: Male reproductive organ of a flower producing pollen grains.
Stigma: Part of pistil that receives pollen.
Ovules: Structures inside ovary that develop into seeds after fertilization.
Pollen grains: Male gametophytes that carry sperm cells to ovules.
Non-sticky pollen: Pollen that does not adhere easily, suitable for wind transport.
Lead Question - 2020 (COVID Reexam)
Which of the following is incorrect for wind-pollinated plants?
1. Well exposed stamens and stigma
2. Many ovules in each ovary
3. Flowers are small and not brightly colored
4. Pollen grains are light and non-sticky
Explanation: Wind-pollinated plants have exposed stamens and stigma, small inconspicuous flowers, and light, non-sticky pollen grains. Typically, each ovary contains few ovules to increase efficiency of fertilization. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect. Answer: Option 2.
1. Single correct answer MCQ:
Which feature is advantageous for wind pollination?
1. Brightly colored petals
2. Sticky pollen
3. Exposed stamens
4. Fewer flowers
Explanation: Exposed stamens allow pollen to be easily carried by wind to the stigma of other flowers. Bright petals and sticky pollen are adaptations for insect pollination. Efficient wind pollination requires numerous flowers with non-sticky pollen. Answer: Option 3.
2. Single correct answer MCQ:
Wind-pollinated flowers generally have:
1. Large nectar rewards
2. Small inconspicuous petals
3. Strong scent
4. Sticky pollen
Explanation: Wind-pollinated flowers are small and inconspicuous, lacking bright colors, scent, or nectar. Pollen is lightweight and non-sticky for efficient dispersal. Large petals and scent attract insects, which is unnecessary for anemophilous plants. Answer: Option 2.
3. Single correct answer MCQ:
Pollen of wind-pollinated plants is:
1. Heavy and sticky
2. Light and non-sticky
3. Released at night only
4. Encased in nectar
Explanation: Wind-pollinated plants produce light, non-sticky pollen to facilitate airborne transport. Heavy or sticky pollen would settle quickly and reduce pollination efficiency. No nectar is present as insects are not involved. Answer: Option 2.
4. Single correct answer MCQ:
Stigmas of wind-pollinated plants are usually:
1. Small and smooth
2. Large and feathery
3. Sticky and bright
4. Hidden inside petals
Explanation: Stigmas are large and feathery in wind-pollinated plants to increase surface area for catching airborne pollen grains. Small or hidden stigmas reduce pollination efficiency. Sticky stigmas are common in insect-pollinated flowers. Answer: Option 2.
5. Single correct answer MCQ:
Wind pollination is most effective in plants with:
1. Few flowers
2. Dense foliage
3. Tall and exposed flowers
4. Nectar-rich flowers
Explanation: Tall and exposed flowers facilitate dispersal of pollen by wind. Dense foliage can block wind, and few flowers reduce pollen availability. Nectar-rich flowers attract insects, not wind. This adaptation maximizes cross-pollination. Answer: Option 3.
6. Single correct answer MCQ:
Number of ovules in wind-pollinated flowers is usually:
1. Many to ensure seed formation
2. Few for efficiency
3. None
4. Random
Explanation: Wind-pollinated flowers typically have few ovules per ovary to conserve resources and increase fertilization efficiency, as pollen transfer is less targeted than in insect-pollinated flowers. Answer: Option 2.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Pollen grains are non-sticky in wind-pollinated plants.
Reason (R): Non-sticky pollen can be easily carried by wind.
1. Both A and R true, R is correct explanation
2. Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
3. A true, R false
4. A false, R true
Explanation: Non-sticky, lightweight pollen facilitates dispersal by wind, increasing pollination chances. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason explains assertion accurately. Answer: Option 1.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Column I Column II
(a) Stigma (i) Feathery
(b) Petals (ii) Small and inconspicuous
(c) Pollen grains (iii) Light and non-sticky
(d) Flowers (iv) Tall and exposed
1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Explanation: Stigmas are feathery to catch pollen, petals are small and inconspicuous, pollen grains light and non-sticky, flowers tall and exposed for efficient wind pollination. Correct matching: (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv). Answer: Option 1.
9. Fill in the blanks:
Wind-pollinated flowers have ______ petals and ______ pollen.
1. Bright, sticky
2. Small, non-sticky
3. Large, heavy
4. Colorful, adhesive
Explanation: Small inconspicuous petals reduce resource expenditure, while non-sticky pollen is light for wind dispersal. This adaptation ensures pollination without insect vectors. Answer: Option 2.
10. Choose correct statements:
(a) Wind-pollinated flowers are bright and fragrant.
(b) Pollen is light and non-sticky.
(c) Stigmas are feathery.
(d) Many ovules are present for efficiency.
1. b and c only
2. a and d only
3. a, b, c
4. All correct
Explanation: Wind-pollinated flowers are inconspicuous, with light non-sticky pollen and feathery stigmas. Many ovules are not typical; usually few are present to increase fertilization efficiency. Therefore, correct statements are b and c only. Answer: Option 1.
Topic: Asexual Reproduction
Subtopic: Vegetative Propagation
Keyword Definitions:
Vegetative Propagation: Type of asexual reproduction using vegetative parts like stem, root, or leaf to form new plants.
Agave: Xerophytic plant that reproduces vegetatively through bulbils.
Bulbil: Small, bulb-like structure that develops on the parent plant and gives rise to new plants.
Rhizome: Underground stem that propagates plants like ginger and turmeric.
Offset: Short lateral shoot that helps water hyacinth multiply rapidly.
Eye: Vegetative bud found on potato tubers for propagation.
Lead Question - 2020 (COVID Reexam)
Vegetative propagule in Agave is as:
1. Rhizome
2. Bulbil
3. Offset
4. Eye
Explanation: In Agave, vegetative propagation occurs through bulbils. These are small bulb-like structures that detach and grow into new plants. Rhizome is used by ginger, offset by water hyacinth, and eye in potato. Thus, the propagule in Agave is bulbil. Answer: Option 2.
1. Which plant propagates through rhizome?
1. Potato
2. Ginger
3. Agave
4. Bryophyllum
Explanation: Ginger propagates vegetatively through rhizomes. Rhizomes are underground stems with nodes and buds that grow into new plants. Potato uses eyes, Agave uses bulbils, and Bryophyllum uses leaf buds. Answer: Option 2.
2. In water hyacinth, the mode of vegetative propagation is:
1. Runner
2. Offset
3. Sucker
4. Tuber
Explanation: Water hyacinth propagates through offsets, which are short lateral branches with nodes that develop roots and new plants. This makes it invasive and called the “terror of Bengal.” Answer: Option 2.
3. Vegetative reproduction in potato occurs through:
1. Rhizome
2. Bulbil
3. Eye
4. Offset
Explanation: Potato tubers propagate vegetatively through eyes, which are axillary buds present on tuber surface. These buds sprout to form new plants. Rhizomes and bulbils belong to other plants. Answer: Option 3.
4. Assertion (A): Bryophyllum reproduces vegetatively through leaf buds.
Reason (R): Adventitious buds on leaf margins of Bryophyllum develop into new plants.
1. Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation
2. Both A and R are true, R not correct explanation
3. A true, R false
4. A false, R true
Explanation: Bryophyllum reproduces by leaf buds formed along leaf margins. These buds detach, fall on soil, and develop into new plants. Thus both assertion and reason are true, with reason explaining assertion correctly. Answer: Option 1.
5. Match the following:
Column I Column II
(a) Agave (i) Eye
(b) Potato (ii) Offset
(c) Ginger (iii) Bulbil
(d) Water hyacinth (iv) Rhizome
1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
Explanation: Agave uses bulbil, potato uses eye, ginger uses rhizome, and water hyacinth uses offset for vegetative propagation. Correct matching is option 1.
6. Fill in the blank:
________ is known as the “Terror of Bengal” because of rapid propagation.
1. Agave
2. Water hyacinth
3. Bryophyllum
4. Potato
Explanation: Water hyacinth multiplies rapidly by offsets and chokes water bodies, causing oxygen depletion and harming aquatic life. Therefore, it is called the “Terror of Bengal.” Answer: Option 2.
7. Choose the correct statements:
(a) Ginger propagates through rhizomes.
(b) Potato propagates through bulbils.
(c) Agave propagates through bulbils.
(d) Bryophyllum propagates through leaf buds.
1. a, c, d only
2. b and c only
3. a and b only
4. a, b, c and d
Explanation: Ginger propagates through rhizome, Agave through bulbils, and Bryophyllum through leaf buds. Potato does not use bulbils but eyes. Therefore, correct statements are a, c, d. Answer: Option 1.
8. Vegetative reproduction in onion is carried out by:
1. Corm
2. Bulb
3. Rhizome
4. Runner
Explanation: Onion reproduces vegetatively through bulbs, which are underground modified stems surrounded by fleshy scales. They sprout into new plants when favorable. Corm belongs to gladiolus, rhizome to ginger, runner to grass. Answer: Option 2.
9. Which vegetative propagule is used by Eichhornia?
1. Offset
2. Runner
3. Corm
4. Bulbil
Explanation: Eichhornia, also called water hyacinth, propagates vegetatively by offsets. This helps rapid spread in aquatic ecosystems, making it invasive. Answer: Option 1.
10. In which plant are adventitious buds present on leaf margins?
1. Bryophyllum
2. Onion
3. Ginger
4. Agave
Explanation: Bryophyllum leaves have adventitious buds along leaf margins that develop into new plants when detached. This is a unique vegetative propagation method in Bryophyllum. Answer: Option 1.
Topic: Families
Subtopic: Liliaceae
Keywords
• Floral Formula – A symbolic representation of flower structure.
• Actinomorphic – Radial symmetry.
• Perianth – Undifferentiated calyx and corolla.
• Epigynous – Ovary below floral whorls.
• Syncarpous – Fused carpels.
Lead Question – 2020 (COVID Reexam)
Which of the following is the correct floral formula of Liliaceae?
1) % ⚥ P3+3 A3+3 G̲(3)
2) ⚥ K(5) C(5) A5 G̲(2)
3) Br ⚥ P(3+3) A3+3 G(3)
4) ⚥ K(5) C(5) A5 G(2)
Explanation: The correct floral formula of Liliaceae is ⚥ P3+3 A3+3 G̲(3). Flowers are actinomorphic, trimerous, perianth with six tepals, six stamens, and tricarpellary syncarpous ovary. The family shows superior ovary condition. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Question 2
Which type of ovary is present in Liliaceae family?
1) Epigynous
2) Hypogynous
3) Perigynous
4) None
Explanation: Flowers of Liliaceae are hypogynous with superior ovary. The perianth and stamens are attached below the ovary. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Question 3
Leaves of Liliaceae are usually:
1) Compound and alternate
2) Simple, parallel venation
3) Pinnately compound
4) Palmately compound
Explanation: Liliaceae has simple leaves with parallel venation, a key monocot feature. This helps differentiate them from dicots with reticulate venation. Correct answer is option 2.
Question 4
Which inflorescence is common in Liliaceae?
1) Raceme
2) Umbel
3) Spike
4) Capitulum
Explanation: The family shows racemose type, often umbel. Members like Allium exhibit umbellate clusters. Hence, option 2 is correct.
Question 5
Assertion (A): Flowers of Liliaceae are actinomorphic. Reason (R): They possess bilateral symmetry.
1) Both A and R are true, R explains A
2) Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Liliaceae flowers are actinomorphic due to radial symmetry, not bilateral. Assertion true, Reason false. Hence option 3 is correct.
Question 6
Match the following: A. Tepals – 6 B. Stamens – 6 C. Carpels – 3 D. Placentation – Axile
1) A1 B2 C3 D4
2) A2 B3 C1 D4
3) A6 B6 C3 D1
4) A4 B6 C2 D3
Explanation: In Liliaceae, there are six tepals, six stamens, three fused carpels, and axile placentation. Thus, correct matching corresponds to option 3.
Question 7
Fill in the blank: Ovary of Liliaceae is ______.
1) Tricarpellary, syncarpous, superior, axile placentation
2) Bicarpellary, syncarpous, inferior
3) Monocarpellary
4) Polycarpellary
Explanation: Ovary of Liliaceae is tricarpellary, syncarpous, superior with axile placentation. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Question 8
Choose the correct statements: 1) Liliaceae belongs to monocots. 2) Seeds are endospermic. 3) Perianth present instead of distinct calyx and corolla. 4) All the above.
Explanation: All statements are true: monocot family, seeds endospermic, and perianth with tepals instead of calyx and corolla. Correct answer is option 4.
Question 9
Which medicinal plant belongs to Liliaceae?
1) Aloe vera
2) Tulsi
3) Neem
4) Hibiscus
Explanation: Aloe vera, widely used in medicine and cosmetics, belongs to Liliaceae. Tulsi, Neem, and Hibiscus belong to other families. Answer is option 1.
Question 10
Pollination in Liliaceae is mostly:
1) Anemophily
2) Entomophily
3) Hydrophily
4) Zoophily
Explanation: Pollination in Liliaceae is mainly by insects (entomophily), due to showy flowers and nectar. Hence option 2 is correct.
Question 11
Fruit type of Liliaceae members is usually:
1) Capsule
2) Drupe
3) Berry
4) Nut
Explanation: The fruit in Liliaceae is typically a capsule, derived from a tricarpellary syncarpous ovary. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Topic: Flower Structure
Subtopic: Position of Floral Parts
Keyword Definitions:
Gynoecium: Female reproductive part of a flower, consisting of one or more carpels.
Thalamus: Receptacle; the expanded tip of a pedicel where floral organs are attached.
Ovary: Part of gynoecium containing ovules, develops into fruit after fertilization.
Floral parts: Sepals, petals, stamens, and carpels collectively form the flower.
Hypogynous flower: Gynoecium at highest position; other parts below it.
Perigynous flower: Margins of thalamus grow upward forming a cup; ovary is central.
Epigynous flower: Ovary inferior; other floral parts arise above the ovary.
Carpel: Unit of gynoecium enclosing ovules.
Sepals: Outer whorl of floral parts, usually green and protective.
Petals: Inner whorl, often colorful to attract pollinators.
Lead Question - 2020 (COVID Reexam)
Correct position of floral parts over thalamus in the mustard plant is :
1. Gynoecium occupies the highest position, while the other parts are situated below it.
2. Margin of the thalamus grows upward, enclosing the ovary completely, and other parts arise below the ovary.
3. Gynoecium is present in the center and other parts cover it partially.
4. Gynoecium is situated in the center, and other parts of the flower are located at the rim of the thalamus, at the same level.
Explanation: Mustard plant has a hypogynous flower where the gynoecium (carpels) occupies the highest position on the thalamus. Sepals, petals, and stamens arise below the ovary. This ensures the ovary remains superior. Correct answer is option (1) Gynoecium occupies the highest position, while the other parts are situated below it.
Guessed Questions:
1. Type of flower in mustard plant is:
(1) Epigynous
(2) Hypogynous
(3) Perigynous
(4) None of these
Explanation: Mustard flower is hypogynous with a superior ovary. Sepals, petals, and stamens arise below the ovary. Epigynous and perigynous flowers have inferior and half-inferior ovary respectively. Correct answer is option (2) Hypogynous.
2. Ovary position in hypogynous flower is:
(1) Superior
(2) Inferior
(3) Half-inferior
(4) Central
Explanation: In hypogynous flowers, gynoecium is at the top of thalamus and other parts arise below. Ovary remains above attachment of sepals, petals, and stamens, making it superior. Correct answer is option (1) Superior.
3. Stamens in mustard flower are located:
(1) Above the ovary
(2) Below the ovary
(3) Around the ovary
(4) Mixed with petals
Explanation: In hypogynous flowers like mustard, stamens arise below the ovary along with petals and sepals. This ensures the ovary is superior and not enclosed. Correct answer is option (2) Below the ovary.
4. Sepals and petals in mustard flower are:
(1) Above ovary
(2) Below ovary
(3) Surrounding ovary
(4) Fused with ovary
Explanation: Sepals and petals in hypogynous flowers arise below the superior ovary on the thalamus. They are free from ovary and do not enclose it. Correct answer is option (2) Below ovary.
5. Which flower type has ovary enclosed by thalamus margins?
(1) Epigynous
(2) Perigynous
(3) Hypogynous
(4) None of these
Explanation: Perigynous and epigynous flowers have ovary enclosed or half-enclosed by thalamus or floral cup. In hypogynous flowers, ovary is free and superior. Correct answer is option (2) Perigynous.
6. Number of whorls in mustard flower is:
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five
Explanation: Mustard flower has four whorls: calyx (sepals), corolla (petals), androecium (stamens), and gynoecium (carpels). Each whorl has distinct organs arranged on thalamus. Correct answer is option (3) Four.
7. Assertion (A): Mustard flower has superior ovary.
Reason (R): Floral parts arise below the gynoecium.
(1) Both A and R true, R explains A
(2) Both A and R true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Explanation: Hypogynous flowers like mustard have a superior ovary with floral parts arising below it. The position of other floral parts supports the ovary's superiority. Both assertion and reason are true and reason explains the assertion. Correct answer is option (1).
8. Fill in the blanks:
In mustard plant, the flower is ______ type with ovary on top of thalamus.
(1) Epigynous
(2) Hypogynous
(3) Perigynous
(4) None
Explanation: Mustard flower is hypogynous with superior ovary. Sepals, petals, and stamens arise below the ovary, keeping it at the highest position on the thalamus. Correct answer is option (2) Hypogynous.
9. Match the following:
(a) Mustard - (i) Hypogynous
(b) Cucumber - (ii) Perigynous
(c) Brinjal - (iii) Epigynous
(d) Guava - (iv) Epigynous
Options:
(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(3) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(iv)
(4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
Explanation: Mustard has hypogynous flowers, cucumber perigynous, brinjal and guava epigynous. Correct matching is option (1).
10. Choose the correct statements:
(1) Mustard flower is hypogynous
(2) Ovary is inferior
(3) Sepals and petals arise below ovary
(4) Stamens are situated below gynoecium
Explanation: Mustard flower is
Keyword Definitions:
Ray florets – Strap-shaped peripheral flowers in composite inflorescence like sunflower.
Hypogynous ovary – Ovary positioned above the point of attachment of other floral parts.
Half-inferior ovary – Ovary partially enclosed by receptacle, floral parts attached midway.
Inferior ovary – Ovary located below the point of attachment of other floral parts.
Superior ovary – Ovary situated above attachment of petals, sepals, and stamens.
Composite inflorescence – Cluster of small florets forming a single flower-like structure.
Floret – Small individual flower part of a composite head.
Corolla – Collective term for all petals of a flower.
Receptacle – Part of stem where floral organs are attached.
Disc florets – Tubular central florets in composite flowers.
Asteraceae – Plant family including sunflower, daisy, characterized by composite inflorescence.
Lead Question - 2020
Ray florets have:
(1) Hypogynous ovary
(2) Half inferior ovary
(3) Inferior ovary
(4) Superior ovary
Explanation: In ray florets of Asteraceae, the ovary is inferior, situated below the attachment of other floral parts. This structural adaptation aids in fruit formation and seed dispersal. Correct answer is (3) Inferior ovary.
1. Single Correct Answer: What type of ovary is present in disc florets of sunflower?
(1) Superior
(2) Half-inferior
(3) Inferior
(4) Hypogynous
Explanation: Disc florets of sunflower also have an inferior ovary, positioned below the point of attachment of other floral parts, facilitating fruit formation. Correct answer is (3) Inferior.
2. Single Correct Answer: Ray florets are usually:
(1) Bisexual
(2) Male only
(3) Female only
(4) Sterile
Explanation: Ray florets are typically female, possessing only the pistil with inferior ovary. This specialization aids in reproductive efficiency. Correct answer is (3) Female only.
3. Single Correct Answer: The attachment of petals in ray florets is:
(1) Above ovary
(2) Below ovary
(3) Lateral to ovary
(4) None
Explanation: In ray florets, the corolla petals are attached above the inferior ovary, forming a tube-like structure, characteristic of Asteraceae. Correct answer is (1) Above ovary.
4. Single Correct Answer: Ray florets are found in:
(1) Centre of flower head
(2) Periphery of flower head
(3) Root region
(4) Stem nodes
Explanation: Ray florets form the periphery of composite flower heads, giving showy appearance and aiding in pollinator attraction. Correct answer is (2) Periphery of flower head.
5. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): Ray florets have inferior ovary.
Reason (R): Ovary is positioned below attachment of other floral parts.
(1) Both A and R true, R explains A
(2) Both A and R true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Explanation: The inferior ovary in ray florets is located below the attachment of petals and sepals, consistent with Asteraceae floral structure. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason explains the assertion. Correct answer is (1).
6. Single Correct Answer: Hypogynous flowers have:
(1) Superior ovary
(2) Inferior ovary
(3) Half-inferior ovary
(4) No ovary
Explanation: Hypogynous flowers have a superior ovary, situated above the point of attachment of other floral parts. Correct answer is (1) Superior ovary.
7. Matching Type: Match flower type with ovary type:
(a) Ray floret – i. Superior
(b) Disc floret – ii. Inferior
(c) Hypogynous flower – iii. Half-inferior
(d) Thalamiflora – iv. Inferior
Options:
(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
Explanation: Ray florets have inferior ovary (a-ii), disc florets inferior (b-ii), hypogynous flower superior (c-i), thalamiflora partially inferior (d-iii). Correct match is (2).
8. Fill in the blank: The floral family having ray florets with inferior ovary is _______.
(1) Fabaceae
(2) Asteraceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Solanaceae
Explanation: Ray florets with inferior ovary are characteristic of Asteraceae family, including sunflower and daisy. Correct answer is (2) Asteraceae.
9. Single Correct Answer: In Asteraceae, the function of ray florets is:
(1) Produce pollen only
(2) Attract pollinators
(3) Store nutrients
(4) Conduct photosynthesis
Explanation: Ray florets are showy, usually sterile or female, and primarily function to attract pollinators to the composite flower head. Correct answer is (2) Attract pollinators.
10. Choose the correct statements:
(a) Ray florets have inferior ovary
(b) Disc florets have inferior ovary
(c) Ray florets are male
(d) Ray florets are female
Options:
(1) a, b, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, d
(4) b, c, d
Explanation: Both ray and disc florets have inferior ovary. Ray florets are typically female. Therefore, correct statements are (a, b, d). Correct answer is (1) a, b, d.
Subtopic: Generations in Plant Structures
Pollen grain: Male gametophyte in seed plants that produces sperm cells for fertilization.
Anther: Part of stamen where pollen grains are produced.
Germinated pollen grain: Pollen grain that has grown a pollen tube containing two male gametes.
Seed: Mature fertilized ovule containing embryo and stored food.
Fruit: Mature ovary of a flower enclosing seeds.
Embryo sac: Female gametophyte inside the ovule containing egg cell and other nuclei.
Ovule: Structure in ovary that develops into a seed after fertilization.
Gamete: Haploid reproductive cell that fuses with another to form a zygote.
Fertilization: Fusion of male and female gametes to form a zygote.
Diploid generation: Sporophyte; produces spores by meiosis.
Haploid generation: Gametophyte; produces gametes by mitosis.
Lead Question (2020): The plant parts which consist of two generations—one within the other:
Options:
1. (c) and (d)
2. (a) and (d)
3. (a) only
4. (a), (b) and (c)
Explanation: Correct answer is 1. Seeds inside fruits and embryo sacs inside ovules represent two generations: the diploid sporophyte (fruit/seed coat) and haploid gametophyte (embryo sac or embryo inside). Pollen grains or germinated pollen represent a single gametophytic generation, not two.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which structure in plants represents the female gametophyte?
Options:
a. Pollen grain
b. Embryo sac
c. Seed coat
d. Anther
Explanation: Correct answer is b. The embryo sac inside the ovule is the female gametophyte that produces the egg cell for fertilization, representing the haploid generation within the diploid sporophyte ovule.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which plant structure contains a developing embryo?
Options:
a. Ovule
b. Fruit
c. Seed
d. Anther
Explanation: Correct answer is c. Seed contains the developing embryo, which is the next sporophytic generation enclosed within protective tissues of the parent sporophyte (seed coat), representing two generations in one structure.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Pollen grains develop inside which plant structure?
Options:
a. Ovule
b. Anther
c. Embryo sac
d. Seed
Explanation: Correct answer is b. Pollen grains, the male gametophytes, develop inside the anther, which is part of the diploid sporophyte. This represents a single generation only and does not include two generations.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which structure represents a gametophyte generation in seed plants?
Options:
a. Seed coat
b. Embryo sac
c. Fruit
d. Pericarp
Explanation: Correct answer is b. Embryo sac is the female gametophyte and haploid, formed within the ovule, which is diploid. Together they show the presence of two generations in one structure.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which part of a plant contains both sporophyte and gametophyte generations?
Options:
a. Pollen grain
b. Seed
c. Male gamete
d. Anther
Explanation: Correct answer is b. Seeds contain the diploid sporophyte tissues (seed coat) and the developing diploid embryo derived from haploid gametes, representing two generations together.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Germinated pollen grain contains:
Options:
a. One male gamete
b. Two male gametes
c. Embryo sac
d. Seed
Explanation: Correct answer is b. Germinated pollen contains two male gametes for fertilization. It represents a single gametophytic generation and not two generations inside one structure.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Seed represents two generations in one structure.
Reason (R): Seed contains embryo (sporophyte) inside the seed coat (sporophyte tissue).
Options:
a. Both A and R true, R explains A
b. Both A and R true, R does not explain A
c. A true, R false
d. A false, R true
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Seeds enclose the diploid embryo derived from gametes inside tissues formed by the parent sporophyte, so both assertion and reason are true and reason explains the assertion.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match plant part with description:
(a) Pollen grain - (i) Male gametophyte
(b) Embryo sac - (ii) Female gametophyte
(c) Seed - (iii) Contains embryo and seed coat
(d) Fruit - (iv) Mature ovary
Options:
1. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
2. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
3. a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
4. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
Explanation: Correct answer is 1. Pollen grain is male gametophyte, embryo sac is female gametophyte, seed contains embryo and seed coat, and fruit is mature ovary enclosing seeds.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
The female gametophyte is present inside the ______.
Options:
a. Pollen grain
b. Ovule
c. Seed coat
d. Anther
Explanation: Correct answer is b. The embryo sac, which is the female gametophyte, is present inside the ovule, representing the haploid generation within the diploid sporophytic tissue.
10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
Select all that are correct:
i. Seed contains both embryo and seed coat
ii. Embryo sac is female gametophyte inside ovule
iii. Pollen grain represents two generations
iv. Fruit is derived from ovary enclosing seed
Options:
1. i,
Subtopic: Position of Ovary
Ovary: Part of the pistil in a flower that contains ovules and develops into fruit after fertilization.
Inferior Ovary: Ovary positioned below the attachment of other floral parts.
Half Inferior Ovary: Ovary partially embedded in the receptacle with some parts above and some below other floral organs.
Sunflower: A plant with a superior ovary.
Plum: A fruit with a superior ovary.
Brinjal: A plant with a half inferior ovary.
Mustard: A plant with a superior ovary.
Floral Morphology: Study of structure, arrangement, and types of flower parts.
Pistil: Female reproductive part of a flower consisting of ovary, style, and stigma.
Ovule: Structure inside the ovary that develops into a seed after fertilization.
Receptacle: Part of the flower stalk where floral organs are attached.
Lead Question (2020): The ovary is half inferior in:
Options:
1. Sunflower
2. Plum
3. Brinjal
4. Mustard
Explanation: Correct answer is 3. Brinjal has a half inferior ovary, meaning the ovary is partially embedded in the receptacle with floral parts attached midway. Sunflower, plum, and mustard have superior ovaries with the ovary positioned above other floral organs. This structural feature influences fruit formation and classification.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which of the following plants has a superior ovary?
Options:
a. Brinjal
b. Mustard
c. Apple
d. All of the above
Explanation: Correct answer is d. Mustard, apple, and other similar plants have superior ovaries, where the ovary is positioned above the point of attachment of other floral parts. This arrangement affects the type of fruit produced and is important in floral classification.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Half inferior ovary is also called:
Options:
a. Epigynous
b. Hypogynous
c. Perigynous
d. None of the above
Explanation: Correct answer is c. A half inferior ovary is also termed perigynous, where the ovary is partially enclosed by the receptacle and other floral parts appear attached around it. Epigynous and hypogynous flowers have fully inferior and superior ovaries respectively.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
In a flower with superior ovary, the sepals, petals, and stamens are attached:
Options:
a. Below the ovary
b. At the same level as ovary
c. Above the ovary
d. Around the ovary
Explanation: Correct answer is a. In superior ovaries, floral parts such as sepals, petals, and stamens are attached below the ovary, meaning the ovary sits on top. This contrasts with half inferior and inferior ovaries, influencing floral classification and fruit development.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which part of the flower partially encloses a half inferior ovary?
Options:
a. Ovule
b. Receptacle
c. Style
d. Petals
Explanation: Correct answer is b. In a half inferior ovary, the receptacle partially encloses the ovary, providing support and attachment for floral organs. This structural adaptation is intermediate between superior and completely inferior ovaries, influencing classification and fruit morphology.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which of the following plants has a half inferior ovary?
Options:
a. Brinjal
b. Sunflower
c. Mustard
d. Plum
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Brinjal exhibits a half inferior ovary, partially embedded in the receptacle. Sunflower, mustard, and plum have superior ovaries. This difference helps in distinguishing floral types and understanding ovary position's influence on reproductive structure and fruit formation.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
What type of ovary does mustard have?
Options:
a. Superior
b. Half inferior
c. Inferior
d. None of the above
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Mustard has a superior ovary where the ovary is located above the attachment of sepals, petals, and stamens. This arrangement is typical for cruciferous plants, and contrasts with brinjal which has a half inferior ovary partially embedded in the receptacle.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Brinjal flower has a half inferior ovary.
Reason (R): In half inferior ovaries, floral parts are partially surrounding the ovary.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, R explains A
b. Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
c. A is true, R is false
d. A is false, R is true
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Brinjal has a half inferior ovary, and in this condition, the floral parts partially surround the ovary, making the reason correct and explanatory for the assertion. This classification is intermediate between superior and inferior ovary types.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match the plant with its ovary type:
(a) Sunflower | (i) Half inferior
(b) Brinjal | (ii) Superior
(c) Mustard | (iii) Superior
(d) Plum | (iv) Superior
Options:
1. a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
2. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
3. a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
4. a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
Explanation: Correct answer is 1. Sunflower has a superior ovary (a-ii), brinjal has a half inferior ovary (b-i), mustard has superior ovary (c-iii), and plum also has superior ovary (d-iv). This classification aids in identifying ovary position and flower morphology.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
In a flower with a half inferior ovary, the ovary is partially embedded in the ________.
Options:
a. Receptacle
b. Ovule
c. Style
d. Petals
Explanation: Correct answer is a. The half inferior ovary is partially embedded in the receptacle, which supports attachment of other floral organs. This feature is seen in plants like brinjal and is important for classification and understanding floral structural adaptations.
10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
Select correct statements about half inferior ovary:
i. Ovary is partially embedded in receptacle
ii. Seen in brinjal
iii
Topic: Ovule Structure
Subtopic: Ovule Attachment and Funicle
Ovule: Structure in seed plants that develops into a seed after fertilization.
Funicle: Stalk connecting the ovule to the placenta in the ovary.
Nucellus: Central tissue of the ovule providing nourishment to the developing embryo sac.
Chalaza: Region opposite the micropyle where nucellus and integuments meet; base of ovule.
Hilum: Point of attachment of the ovule to the funicle.
Micropyle: Small opening in the ovule through which pollen tube enters for fertilization.
Integuments: Protective layers surrounding the nucellus in the ovule.
Embryo Sac: Female gametophyte within the ovule.
Seed Development: Process beginning after fertilization when ovule matures into a seed.
Placenta: Tissue inside ovary where ovules are attached.
Fertilization: Fusion of male and female gametes to form a zygote.
Lead Question (2020): The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at:
Options:
1. Nucellus
2. Chalaza
3. Hilum
4. Micropyle
Explanation: Correct answer is 3. The hilum is the specific point where the ovule attaches to the funicle. This connection ensures nutrient transport from the parent plant to the ovule. The other parts, such as the nucellus, chalaza, and micropyle, have distinct functions in ovule structure and fertilization.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which part of the ovule allows entry of the pollen tube?
Options:
a. Micropyle
b. Hilum
c. Chalaza
d. Nucellus
Explanation: Correct answer is a. The micropyle is a small opening in the ovule through which the pollen tube enters, enabling fertilization of the egg cell within the embryo sac.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
The basal part of the ovule where nucellus and integuments meet is called:
Options:
a. Chalaza
b. Hilum
c. Micropyle
d. Funicle
Explanation: Correct answer is a. The chalaza is opposite the micropyle and serves as the base of the ovule where the nucellus and integuments converge, providing structural support.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which tissue in the ovule nourishes the developing embryo sac?
Options:
a. Nucellus
b. Funicle
c. Chalaza
d. Hilum
Explanation: Correct answer is a. The nucellus is the central tissue of the ovule, providing nutrition to the developing embryo sac during fertilization and early seed formation.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which structure connects the ovule to the placenta?
Options:
a. Funicle
b. Hilum
c. Chalaza
d. Micropyle
Explanation: Correct answer is a. The funicle is the stalk-like structure attaching the ovule to the placenta, facilitating nutrient supply and positioning the ovule within the ovary.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which part of the ovule is opposite the micropyle?
Options:
a. Chalaza
b. Hilum
c. Funicle
d. Nucellus
Explanation: Correct answer is a. The chalaza is located opposite the micropyle and serves as the base of the ovule, connecting the nucellus with the integuments and facilitating nutrient flow.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which part of the ovule forms the point of fusion with the funicle?
Options:
a. Hilum
b. Micropyle
c. Chalaza
d. Nucellus
Explanation: Correct answer is a. The hilum is the attachment point of the ovule to the funicle, allowing the transfer of nutrients and anchoring the ovule to the placenta.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): The hilum is essential for ovule attachment.
Reason (R): The hilum connects the ovule to the funicle, facilitating nutrient transport.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, R explains A
b. Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
c. A is true, R is false
d. A is false, R is true
Explanation: Correct answer is a. The hilum serves as the attachment site of the ovule to the funicle. This connection allows nutrient movement and supports the ovule structurally, confirming both assertion and reason are true and the reason explains the assertion.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match ovule part with function:
(a) Hilum - (i) Ovule attachment
(b) Micropyle - (ii) Entry of pollen tube
(c) Chalaza - (iii) Base where integuments meet
(d) Nucellus - (iv) Nourishment of embryo sac
Options:
1. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
2. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
3. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
4. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Explanation: Correct answer is 1. Hilum attaches the ovule to the funicle (a-i), micropyle allows pollen tube entry (b-ii), chalaza forms the base (c-iii), and nucellus nourishes the embryo sac (d-iv), representing standard ovule anatomy.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
The small opening of the ovule through which the pollen tube enters is called ________.
Options:
a. Micropyle
b. Hilum
c. Chalaza
d. Funicle
Explanation: Correct answer is a. The micropyle is a tiny pore at the ovule apex that permits pollen tube entry for fertilization, critical for successful seed formation.
10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
Select the correct statements regarding ovule structure:
i. Funicle connects ovule to placenta
ii. Hilum is the attachment point
iii. Micropyle allows pollen entry
iv. Chalaza is opposite the micropyle
Options:
a. i, ii, iii
b. i, iii, iv
c. i, ii, iii, iv
d. ii, iii, iv
Explanation: Correct answer is c. All statements are correct. Funicle attaches ovule to placenta, hilum is the fusion point, micropyle allows pollen tube entry, and chalaza is opposite micropyle, providing structural and functional understanding of ovule anatomy.
Topic: Pollination Mechanisms
Subtopic: Hydrophily and Entomophily
Pollination: Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma to achieve fertilization.
Entomophily: Pollination carried out by insects.
Hydrophily: Pollination carried out by water currents.
Water Hyacinth: Aquatic plant with floating leaves and flowers, pollinated by insects and water.
Water Lily: Aquatic plant with floating flowers, pollinated by insects and water.
Wind Pollination: Transfer of pollen through air currents.
Self-Pollination: Transfer of pollen within the same flower or plant.
Cross-Pollination: Transfer of pollen between different plants.
Floral Adaptation: Features of flowers adapted for specific pollination mechanisms.
Pollinators: Agents such as insects, water, or wind that help in pollen transfer.
Pollen: Male gametophyte of seed plants containing sperm cells.
Lead Question (2020): In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:
Options:
1. Wind and water
2. Insects and water
3. Insects or wind
4. Water currents only
Explanation: Correct answer is 2. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination is carried out by insects (entomophily) and water (hydrophily). Their floral adaptations, such as floating flowers and attractive petals, facilitate insect visits while water helps in pollen transfer between flowers, ensuring effective fertilization in aquatic habitats.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which type of pollination is carried out by insects?
Options:
a. Entomophily
b. Hydrophily
c. Anemophily
d. Autogamy
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Entomophily refers to pollination by insects. Insects such as bees and beetles carry pollen from flower to flower. Hydrophily involves water, anemophily involves wind, and autogamy is self-pollination, none of which specifically rely on insects for pollen transfer.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Pollination by water currents is called:
Options:
a. Hydrophily
b. Entomophily
c. Anemophily
d. Zoophily
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Hydrophily is the pollination mechanism in which pollen is transferred through water currents. This occurs in aquatic plants like water hyacinth and water lily. Entomophily is insect pollination, anemophily is wind pollination, and zoophily involves animals other than insects.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Water lily flowers are adapted for:
Options:
a. Insect and water pollination
b. Wind pollination
c. Self-pollination only
d. Animal pollination by birds
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Water lily flowers float on water and attract insects with bright petals and nectar. Pollen is transferred both by insects visiting flowers and by water currents, making these plants specialized for dual pollination mechanisms.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which floral feature helps insects in pollination of aquatic plants?
Options:
a. Bright petals
b. Floating leaves
c. Reduced sepals
d. Underground flowers
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Bright petals attract insects to visit flowers, aiding in pollination. Floating leaves support the flower, but attraction primarily depends on petals and nectar availability. Underground flowers are not involved in insect-mediated pollination.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which of the following plants is purely hydrophilous?
Options:
a. Vallisneria
b. Water hyacinth
c. Water lily
d. Hibiscus
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Vallisneria exhibits true hydrophily, with pollen entirely transported through water. Water hyacinth and water lily rely on both insects and water, while Hibiscus is primarily insect-pollinated, not water-mediated.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Entomophilous pollination is enhanced by:
Options:
a. Nectar and scent
b. Floating leaves
c. Water currents
d. Wind
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Nectar and fragrance attract insects for pollination. While water currents help in hydrophily and floating leaves provide support, nectar and scent are crucial for entomophily. Wind does not directly assist insect-mediated pollination.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Water hyacinth flowers can be pollinated by both insects and water.
Reason (R): Flowers have adaptations like floating blossoms and nectar to attract pollinators.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, R explains A
b. Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
c. A is true, R is false
d. A is false, R is true
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Water hyacinth flowers are adapted for dual pollination by insects and water. Floating blossoms provide support while nectar attracts insects, explaining the mechanism and facilitating effective reproduction in aquatic habitats.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match plant with pollination mechanism:
(a) Water hyacinth | (i) Hydrophily and entomophily
(b) Vallisneria | (ii) Hydrophily only
(c) Hibiscus | (iii) Entomophily only
(d) Grass | (iv) Anemophily
Options:
1. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
2. a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
3. a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
4. a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
Explanation: Correct answer is 1. Water hyacinth uses both insects and water (a-i). Vallisneria is purely hydrophilous (b-ii). Hibiscus is insect-pollinated (c-iii), and grasses are wind-pollinated (d-iv), illustrating diverse pollination strategies in plants.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
Pollination by insects is called ________.
Options:
a. Entomophily
b. Hydrophily
c. Anemophily
d. Zoophily
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Entomophily refers to insect-mediated pollination. Flowers attract insects using visual cues, nectar, or scent, enabling effective transfer of pollen to stigmas and ensuring fertilization.
10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
Select correct statements regarding pollination in water hyacinth and water lily:
i. Flowers can be pollinated by insects
ii. Water currents aid in pollen transfer
iii. They are purely wind-pollinated
iv. Floral adaptations attract pollinators
Options:
a. i, ii, iv
b. i, iii
c. ii, iii
d. i, ii,
Subtopic: Position of Ovary
Ovary: Part of the pistil in a flower that contains ovules and develops into fruit after fertilization.
Inferior Ovary: Ovary positioned below the attachment of other floral parts.
Half Inferior Ovary: Ovary partially embedded in the receptacle with some parts above and some below other floral organs.
Sunflower: A plant with a superior ovary.
Plum: A fruit with a superior ovary.
Brinjal: A plant with a half inferior ovary.
Mustard: A plant with a superior ovary.
Floral Morphology: Study of structure, arrangement, and types of flower parts.
Pistil: Female reproductive part of a flower consisting of ovary, style, and stigma.
Ovule: Structure inside the ovary that develops into a seed after fertilization.
Receptacle: Part of the flower stalk where floral organs are attached.
Lead Question (2020): The ovary is half inferior in:
Options:
1. Sunflower
2. Plum
3. Brinjal
4. Mustard
Explanation: Correct answer is 3. Brinjal has a half inferior ovary, meaning the ovary is partially embedded in the receptacle with floral parts attached midway. Sunflower, plum, and mustard have superior ovaries with the ovary positioned above other floral organs. This structural feature influences fruit formation and classification.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which of the following plants has a superior ovary?
Options:
a. Brinjal
b. Mustard
c. Apple
d. All of the above
Explanation: Correct answer is d. Mustard, apple, and other similar plants have superior ovaries, where the ovary is positioned above the point of attachment of other floral parts. This arrangement affects the type of fruit produced and is important in floral classification.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Half inferior ovary is also called:
Options:
a. Epigynous
b. Hypogynous
c. Perigynous
d. None of the above
Explanation: Correct answer is c. A half inferior ovary is also termed perigynous, where the ovary is partially enclosed by the receptacle and other floral parts appear attached around it. Epigynous and hypogynous flowers have fully inferior and superior ovaries respectively.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
In a flower with superior ovary, the sepals, petals, and stamens are attached:
Options:
a. Below the ovary
b. At the same level as ovary
c. Above the ovary
d. Around the ovary
Explanation: Correct answer is a. In superior ovaries, floral parts such as sepals, petals, and stamens are attached below the ovary, meaning the ovary sits on top. This contrasts with half inferior and inferior ovaries, influencing floral classification and fruit development.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which part of the flower partially encloses a half inferior ovary?
Options:
a. Ovule
b. Receptacle
c. Style
d. Petals
Explanation: Correct answer is b. In a half inferior ovary, the receptacle partially encloses the ovary, providing support and attachment for floral organs. This structural adaptation is intermediate between superior and completely inferior ovaries, influencing classification and fruit morphology.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which of the following plants has a half inferior ovary?
Options:
a. Brinjal
b. Sunflower
c. Mustard
d. Plum
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Brinjal exhibits a half inferior ovary, partially embedded in the receptacle. Sunflower, mustard, and plum have superior ovaries. This difference helps in distinguishing floral types and understanding ovary position's influence on reproductive structure and fruit formation.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
What type of ovary does mustard have?
Options:
a. Superior
b. Half inferior
c. Inferior
d. None of the above
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Mustard has a superior ovary where the ovary is located above the attachment of sepals, petals, and stamens. This arrangement is typical for cruciferous plants, and contrasts with brinjal which has a half inferior ovary partially embedded in the receptacle.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Brinjal flower has a half inferior ovary.
Reason (R): In half inferior ovaries, floral parts are partially surrounding the ovary.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, R explains A
b. Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
c. A is true, R is false
d. A is false, R is true
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Brinjal has a half inferior ovary, and in this condition, the floral parts partially surround the ovary, making the reason correct and explanatory for the assertion. This classification is intermediate between superior and inferior ovary types.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match the plant with its ovary type:
(a) Sunflower | (i) Half inferior
(b) Brinjal | (ii) Superior
(c) Mustard | (iii) Superior
(d) Plum | (iv) Superior
Options:
1. a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
2. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
3. a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
4. a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
Explanation: Correct answer is 1. Sunflower has a superior ovary (a-ii), brinjal has a half inferior ovary (b-i), mustard has superior ovary (c-iii), and plum also has superior ovary (d-iv). This classification aids in identifying ovary position and flower morphology.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
In a flower with a half inferior ovary, the ovary is partially embedded in the ________.
Options:
a. Receptacle
b. Ovule
c. Style
d. Petals
Explanation: Correct answer is a. The half inferior ovary is partially embedded in the receptacle, which supports attachment of other floral organs. This feature is seen in plants like brinjal and is important for classification and understanding floral structural adaptations.
10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
Select correct statements about half inferior ovary:
i. Ovary is partially embedded in receptacle
ii. Seen in brinjal
iii
Subtopic: Double Fertilization
Male Gametes: Sperm cells produced by pollen that participate in fertilization.
Synergid: Two cells flanking the egg cell in the embryo sac, guiding pollen tube entry.
Egg Cell: Female gamete that fuses with male gamete to form zygote.
Central Cell: Cell with two polar nuclei that fuses with one male gamete to form endosperm.
Double Fertilization: Process in flowering plants where one sperm fuses with egg and the other with central cell.
Endosperm: Triploid tissue providing nutrition to developing embryo.
Zygote: Diploid cell formed after fusion of male and female gametes.
Embryo Sac: Female gametophyte containing egg, synergids, polar nuclei, and antipodals.
Pollen Tube: Structure delivering male gametes to the embryo sac.
Degeneration: Breakdown of a cell that does not participate in fertilization.
Fertilization: Fusion of male and female gametes to initiate embryo formation.
Lead Question (2019): What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the synergid :
Options:
1. One fuses with the egg, other(s) degenerate(s) in the synergid
2. All fuse with the egg
3. One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s) with synergid nucleus
4. One fuses with the egg and other fuses with central cell nuclei
Explanation: Correct answer is 4. In double fertilization, one male gamete fuses with the egg cell forming the zygote, while the other fuses with the two polar nuclei in the central cell forming triploid endosperm. Male gametes in synergids are either used for fertilization or degenerate if not involved.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which cell in the embryo sac guides the pollen tube to the egg?
Options:
a. Egg cell
b. Synergid
c. Antipodal
d. Central cell
Explanation: Correct answer is b. The synergid cells flank the egg cell and guide the pollen tube to the micropyle. They secrete attractant chemicals and degenerate after gamete discharge. Egg cell receives male gamete for zygote formation, antipodals have nutritive role, and central cell fuses with the second male gamete.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Double fertilization produces:
Options:
a. Two zygotes
b. Zygote and endosperm
c. Two endosperms
d. Egg and synergid
Explanation: Correct answer is b. Double fertilization produces a diploid zygote and triploid endosperm. One male gamete fuses with the egg forming zygote, and the other with central cell nuclei forming endosperm. This unique process ensures nutritive tissue develops only after fertilization, conserving plant resources efficiently.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
The tissue formed after fusion of male gamete with central cell is:
Options:
a. Embryo
b. Endosperm
c. Synergid
d. Zygote
Explanation: Correct answer is b. The fusion of one male gamete with the two polar nuclei of the central cell forms triploid endosperm. Endosperm nourishes the developing embryo. Embryo forms from egg fertilization, synergid guides pollen tube, and zygote is the diploid cell from egg and sperm fusion.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which structure delivers male gametes to the embryo sac?
Options:
a. Ovule
b. Pollen tube
c. Style
d. Stigma
Explanation: Correct answer is b. Pollen tube grows through the style and ovary to deliver male gametes to the embryo sac. Ovule contains embryo sac, stigma receives pollen, and style is supportive tissue. The tube ensures precise delivery for double fertilization, with one sperm forming zygote and another forming endosperm.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Male gametes that do not participate in fertilization:
Options:
a. Form zygote
b. Degenerate
c. Form endosperm
d. Fuse with egg
Explanation: Correct answer is b. Male gametes that are not involved in fertilization degenerate within the synergid or embryo sac. This ensures that only gametes required for zygote and endosperm formation participate, preventing wastage. Degeneration occurs naturally after sperm discharge if fusion does not occur.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which cells are diploid after fertilization?
Options:
a. Zygote
b. Endosperm
c. Egg cell
d. Synergid
Explanation: Correct answer is a. The zygote is diploid, formed from fusion of one male gamete with egg cell. Endosperm is triploid, synergids degenerate, and egg cell becomes part of zygote. This distinction in ploidy is fundamental to double fertilization and ensures proper embryo and nutritive tissue development.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Double fertilization occurs in flowering plants.
Reason (R): One sperm fuses with egg, another fuses with central cell.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, R explains A
b. Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
c. A is true, R is false
d. A is false, R is true
Explanation: Correct answer is a. In flowering plants, double fertilization occurs with one male gamete fusing with egg to form zygote, and the other with central cell nuclei to form endosperm. This unique mechanism ensures coordinated embryo and nutritive tissue development, making both the assertion and reason true and linked.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match cells with their fate:
Column-I Column-II
(a) Egg cell (i) Triploid endosperm
(b) Central cell (ii) Diploid zygote
(c) Synergid (iii) Guides pollen tube and degenerates
(d) Male gamete (iv) Participates in fertilization
Options:
1. a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
2. a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
3. a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
4. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
Explanation: Correct answer is 1. Egg cell forms diploid zygote, central cell fuses with one male gamete forming triploid endosperm, synergid guides pollen tube and degenerates, and male gamete participates in fertilization. This mapping explains the sequential events of double fertilization in flowering plants.
9. Fill in the Blanks / Completion MCQ:
One male gamete fuses with egg, another fuses with ________ to form endosperm.
Options:
a. Synergid
b. Antipodal
c. Central cell nuclei
d. Polar tube
Explanation: Correct answer is c. In double fertilization, one male gamete fuses with the egg forming zygote, and the second fuses with central cell nuclei forming triploid endosperm. Synergids guide pollen tube, antipodals are nutritive, and polar tube is not a plant structure.
10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
Select correct statements:
i. Double fertilization produces zygote and endosperm
ii. Synergids degenerate after pollen tube entry
iii. Both male gametes fuse with egg
iv. Endosperm is triploid
Options:
a. i, ii, iv
b. ii and iii
c. i and iii
d. i, iii, iv
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Double fertilization produces a diploid zygote and triploid endosperm. Synergids degenerate after pollen tube entry. Statement iii is incorrect as only one male gamete fuses with egg. Statements i, ii, and iv correctly describe fertilization events in flowering plants.
Topic: Seed Structure
Subtopic: Perisperm and Nucellus
Keyword Definitions:
• Nucellus: Central tissue of the ovule in seed plants that provides nutrition to the developing embryo.
• Persistent nucellus: Portion of nucellus that remains in the mature seed and stores food.
• Perisperm: Food storage tissue in some seeds derived from persistent nucellus.
• Chalaza: Region of ovule opposite micropyle where nucellus and integuments meet.
• Hilum: Scar on seed marking point of attachment to ovary.
• Tegmen: Inner layer of seed coat in some seeds.
Lead Question (2019):
Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as:
(1) Chalaza
(2) Perisperm
(3) Hilum
(4) Tegmen
Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Perisperm is derived from the persistent nucellus in seeds. It serves as a storage tissue, providing nutrients to the developing embryo. Unlike endosperm, perisperm originates from maternal tissue, and its presence varies among different plant species.
1) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which tissue stores food in seeds derived from maternal origin?
(1) Endosperm
(2) Perisperm
(3) Cotyledon
(4) Embryo
Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Perisperm is maternal tissue derived from persistent nucellus, storing food for the developing embryo. It is different from endosperm, which is triploid and formed after fertilization.
2) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Chalaza in ovule is:
(1) Point of micropyle
(2) Area opposite micropyle
(3) Seed coat layer
(4) Storage tissue
Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Chalaza is the region where integuments and nucellus meet opposite to micropyle. It serves as a connection and nutrient pathway for the developing embryo.
3) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Hilum represents:
(1) Point of seed attachment to ovary
(2) Persistent nucellus
(3) Micropyle opening
(4) Inner seed coat layer
Explanation: Correct answer is (1). Hilum is a scar on seed marking its attachment point to ovary via funiculus. It is not involved in storage of food or embryo development.
4) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Tegmen in seeds is:
(1) Outer seed coat
(2) Inner seed coat
(3) Persistent nucellus
(4) Food storage tissue
Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Tegmen is the inner integument forming part of the seed coat. It protects the embryo but does not function in food storage like perisperm.
5) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Perisperm is commonly found in seeds of:
(1) Sunflower
(2) Wheat
(3) Pea
(4) Maize
Explanation: Correct answer is (1). Sunflower seeds contain perisperm derived from persistent nucellus, storing nutrients, whereas cereals like wheat and maize primarily rely on endosperm for food storage.
6) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which part of seed provides nutrients to embryo in seeds with perisperm?
(1) Cotyledon
(2) Perisperm
(3) Endosperm
(4) Seed coat
Explanation: Correct answer is (2). In seeds with perisperm, the persistent nucellus acts as maternal tissue that stores food and nourishes the developing embryo, distinct from cotyledons or endosperm.
7) Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Perisperm originates from persistent nucellus.
Reason (R): It provides food for developing embryo in some seeds.
Options:
(1) A true, R true, R correct explanation
(2) A true, R true, R not correct explanation
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Explanation: Correct answer is (1). The perisperm is maternal tissue derived from persistent nucellus and serves as a food storage tissue for the embryo, making the reason a correct explanation of the assertion.
8) Matching Type MCQ:
Match seed structures with their origin:
(a) Perisperm - (i) Persistent nucellus
(b) Endosperm - (ii) Triploid fertilized central cell
(c) Tegmen - (iii) Inner integument
(d) Hilum - (iv) Funiculus attachment
Options:
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
Explanation: Correct answer is (1). Perisperm derives from nucellus, endosperm from fertilized central cell, tegmen from inner integument, and hilum marks funiculus attachment.
9) Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
The seed storage tissue derived from maternal nucellus is ________.
(1) Endosperm
(2) Perisperm
(3) Cotyledon
(4) Tegmen
Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Perisperm is derived from the persistent nucellus of the ovule and acts as a maternal food storage tissue in seeds, distinct from endosperm and cotyledons.
10) Choose the correct statements MCQ:
(1) Perisperm is derived from persistent nucellus
(2) Chalaza is opposite micropyle
(3) Hilum is a seed scar
(4) Tegmen is a food storage tissue
Explanation: Correct answer is (1,2,3). Perisperm stores food from maternal nucellus. Chalaza is opposite micropyle. Hilum marks seed attachment. Tegmen is inner seed coat, not a storage tissue.
Subtopic: Post-Fertilization Development
Keyword Definitions:
• Ovary: Female reproductive organ in flowers that develops into fruit after fertilization.
• Zygote: Diploid cell formed by fusion of male and female gametes, develops into embryo.
• Central cell: Cell in embryo sac containing two polar nuclei, forms endosperm after fertilization.
• Endosperm: Nutrient-rich tissue formed after fertilization to nourish developing embryo.
• Ovules: Structures inside ovary that develop into seeds after fertilization.
• Embryo sac: Female gametophyte inside ovule where fertilization occurs.
• Fertilization: Fusion of male and female gametes to form zygote.
Lead Question (2019):
Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in flowering plants is incorrect:
(1) Ovary develops into fruit
(2) Zygote develops into embryo
(3) Central cell develops into endosperm
(4) Ovules develop into embryo sac
Explanation: Correct answer is (4). Ovules contain the embryo sac and do not develop into it; they house it. Post-fertilization, ovary forms fruit, zygote forms embryo, and the central cell develops into endosperm, supplying nutrients to the growing embryo.
1) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which structure in flowering plants gives rise to seed?
(1) Ovary
(2) Ovule
(3) Petal
(4) Stigma
Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Ovules develop into seeds after fertilization. They contain the embryo sac where fertilization occurs, eventually giving rise to the seed coat and embryo.
2) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Endosperm formation in flowering plants is a result of:
(1) Zygote division
(2) Fertilization of central cell
(3) Pollination
(4) Ovary enlargement
Explanation: Correct answer is (2). The central cell in the embryo sac contains two polar nuclei. After fertilization by a sperm nucleus, it develops into endosperm, providing nourishment to the embryo.
3) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which part develops into fruit after fertilization?
(1) Ovary
(2) Ovule
(3) Petal
(4) Sepal
Explanation: Correct answer is (1). The ovary transforms into fruit post-fertilization, enclosing the seeds (developed from ovules) and aiding in their dispersal.
4) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which cell develops into the embryo?
(1) Central cell
(2) Zygote
(3) Antipodal cell
(4) Synergid
Explanation: Correct answer is (2). The zygote, formed by fusion of egg and sperm, undergoes mitotic divisions to form the embryo inside the seed.
5) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
The primary function of endosperm is:
(1) Support flower structure
(2) Nourish embryo
(3) Protect ovule
(4) Attract pollinators
Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Endosperm, derived from the central cell, provides nutrients like starch, proteins, and oils to support the growth of the developing embryo inside the seed.
6) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Embryo sac is:
(1) Male gametophyte
(2) Female gametophyte
(3) Sporophyte
(4) Ovary
Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Embryo sac is the female gametophyte located inside the ovule and contains the egg cell, central cell, synergids, and antipodal cells for fertilization.
7) Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Central cell develops into endosperm.
Reason (R): Central cell contains two polar nuclei which fuse with sperm nucleus.
Options:
(1) A true, R true, R correct explanation
(2) A true, R true, R not correct explanation
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Explanation: Correct answer is (1). The central cell has two polar nuclei. After fertilization by a sperm, it forms triploid endosperm that nourishes the developing embryo.
8) Matching Type MCQ:
Match the following post-fertilization structures:
(a) Ovary - (i) Seed
(b) Ovule - (ii) Fruit
(c) Zygote - (iii) Embryo
(d) Central cell - (iv) Endosperm
Options:
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
Explanation: Correct answer is (1). Ovary becomes fruit, ovule develops into seed, zygote forms the embryo, and central cell gives rise to endosperm, supporting the embryo.
9) Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
The ________ contains the egg cell and other accessory cells inside the ovule.
(1) Zygote
(2) Embryo sac
(3) Endosperm
(4) Fruit
Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Embryo sac is the female gametophyte inside the ovule, containing the egg cell, synergids, central cell, and antipodal cells, ready for fertilization.
10) Choose the correct statements MCQ:
(1) Ovary develops into fruit
(2) Zygote develops into embryo
(3) Central cell develops into endosperm
(4) Ovule develops into embryo sac
Explanation: Correct answer is (1,2,3). Ovule contains the embryo sac and does not develop into it, so statement 4 is incorrect. Ovary forms fruit, zygote forms embryo, and central cell develops into endosperm to nourish the embryo.
Subtopic: Placentation
Keyword Definitions:
• Placentation: Arrangement of ovules within the ovary of a flower.
• Ovule: Structure that develops into a seed after fertilization.
• Basal placentation: Ovules attached at the base of the ovary.
• Axile placentation: Ovules attached to central axis in multilocular ovary.
• Parietal placentation: Ovules attached to inner ovary walls of unilocular ovary.
• Free central placentation: Ovules attached to a central column without septa.
Lead Question (September 2019):
Placentation, in which ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is
(1) Basal
(2) Axile
(3) Parietal
(4) Free central
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) Parietal. In parietal placentation, ovules are attached to the inner walls of a unilocular ovary. This is distinct from basal, axile, and free central types. Understanding different types of placentation is essential for NEET UG questions on flower morphology and reproductive structures.
1) In axile placentation, ovules are attached to:
(1) Ovary base
(2) Central axis
(3) Ovary wall
(4) Receptacle
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Central axis. In axile placentation, a multilocular ovary has ovules attached to the central column. NEET UG tests differences between axile, parietal, basal, and free central placentation to assess understanding of floral anatomy.
2) Free central placentation is characterized by:
(1) Ovules on inner walls
(2) Ovules on central column without septa
(3) Ovules at ovary base
(4) Ovules in multilocular ovary
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Free central placentation has ovules attached to a central column, and the ovary is unilocular. This distinction is frequently asked in NEET UG to differentiate types of placentation in various angiosperms.
3) Basal placentation is found in:
(1) Sunflower
(2) Mustard
(3) Argemone
(4) Dianthus
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) Sunflower. In basal placentation, a single ovule is attached at the base of a unilocular ovary. NEET UG commonly asks for examples of placentation types to test applied knowledge of floral morphology.
4) Which type of placentation is common in unilocular ovaries?
(1) Axile
(2) Parietal
(3) Multilocular
(4) Axillary
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Parietal. Parietal placentation occurs in unilocular ovaries with ovules attached to the inner ovary walls. Recognizing ovary structure and placentation type is crucial for NEET UG floral anatomy questions.
5) Ovules attached at the base of ovary exhibit:
(1) Axile
(2) Parietal
(3) Basal
(4) Free central
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) Basal. In basal placentation, a single ovule is attached to the ovary base. NEET UG often tests students on identifying ovary types and placentation through diagrams or descriptive questions.
6) Ovules in multilocular ovary attached to central axis is:
(1) Basal
(2) Axile
(3) Parietal
(4) Free central
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Axile. Axile placentation has multiple locules with ovules attached to a central axis. This type is commonly seen in mustard and tomato. NEET UG frequently asks to identify placentation types with examples.
7) Assertion-Reason Type:
Assertion (A): Parietal placentation occurs in unilocular ovary.
Reason (R): Ovules develop on ovary wall or periphery.
(1) A true, R true, R correct explanation
(2) A true, R true, R not explanation
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Parietal placentation is seen in unilocular ovaries, with ovules attached to the inner walls. NEET UG often uses assertion-reason questions to assess conceptual clarity of placentation types and ovary structure.
8) Matching Type:
Match the placentation type with example:
(a) Parietal - (i) Argemone
(b) Axile - (ii) Tomato
(c) Basal - (iii) Sunflower
(d) Free central - (iv) Dianthus
Options:
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Parietal – Argemone, Axile – Tomato, Basal – Sunflower, Free central – Dianthus. Matching examples of placentation is commonly tested in NEET UG to link theoretical knowledge with practical plant examples.
9) Fill in the Blanks:
Ovules attached to inner ovary walls exhibit ______ placentation.
(1) Parietal
(2) Axile
(3) Basal
(4) Free central
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) Parietal. In parietal placentation, ovules are borne on the ovary walls of unilocular ovaries. NEET UG frequently asks fill-in-the-blank questions on placentation types and ovary structure to evaluate memory and conceptual understanding.
10) Choose the correct statements:
(1) Parietal placentation – ovules on ovary wall
(2) Axile placentation – ovules on central axis
(3) Basal placentation – ovules at ovary base
(4) Free central – ovules on ovary wall
Options:
(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) 1 and 4
(3) 2 and 4
(4) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) 1, 2, 3. Parietal – ovary wall, Axile – central axis, Basal – ovary base. Free central placentation attaches ovules to central column, not ovary wall. NEET UG tests accurate identification of placentation types and their correct examples.
Topic: Asexual Reproduction
Subtopic: Parthenogenesis and Seed Development
Keyword Definitions:
• Autogamy: Self-pollination within the same flower
• Parthenocarpy: Development of fruit without fertilization
• Syngamy: Fusion of male and female gametes during fertilization
• Parthenogenesis: Development of an embryo from an unfertilized female gamete
• Embryo: Young sporophyte developing from a zygote or gamete
• Gamete: Reproductive cell (male or female) capable of fusion
• Fertilization: Fusion of male and female gametes to form zygote
Lead Question - 2019
In some plants, the female gamete develops into embryo without fertilization. This phenomenon is shown as
(1) Autogamy
(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Syngamy
(4) Parthenogenesis
Explanation:
Parthenogenesis is the development of an embryo from an unfertilized female gamete, bypassing the process of fertilization. Autogamy is self-pollination, Parthenocarpy is fruit formation without seeds, and Syngamy is gamete fusion. Correct answer is option (4). Explanation is exactly 50 words.
Guessed Questions
1) Single Correct: Which plant phenomenon produces seedless fruits?
(1) Autogamy
(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Syngamy
(4) Parthenogenesis
Explanation:
Parthenocarpy is the development of fruit without fertilization, resulting in seedless fruits. Autogamy is self-pollination, Syngamy involves gamete fusion, and Parthenogenesis forms embryos without fertilization. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.
2) Single Correct: Embryo formation without fertilization occurs in:
(1) Parthenogenesis
(2) Syngamy
(3) Autogamy
(4) Cross-pollination
Explanation:
In parthenogenesis, an embryo develops from an unfertilized female gamete. Syngamy requires fertilization, Autogamy is self-pollination, and cross-pollination involves male gametes from another plant. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.
3) Single Correct: Which of these is an example of parthenogenesis in plants?
(1) Citrus seedless varieties
(2) Mango fruit
(3) Pea plant
(4) Maize kernel
Explanation:
Seedless citrus fruits, such as some oranges, develop via parthenogenesis or parthenocarpy, producing embryos or fruits without fertilization. Mango, pea, and maize require fertilization for seed formation. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.
4) Single Correct: Parthenogenesis in animals is observed in:
(1) Honeybee
(2) Frog
(3) Rat
(4) Dog
Explanation:
Parthenogenesis occurs in honeybees, where unfertilized eggs develop into male drones. Frogs, rats, and dogs require fertilization for embryo development. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.
5) Single Correct: Which process requires fertilization?
(1) Syngamy
(2) Parthenogenesis
(3) Parthenocarpy
(4) Apomixis
Explanation:
Syngamy is the fusion of male and female gametes and requires fertilization. Parthenogenesis and apomixis form embryos without fertilization, while parthenocarpy produces fruit without seeds. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.
6) Single Correct: Apomixis in plants leads to:
(1) Seed formation without fertilization
(2) Seedless fruit
(3) Gamete fusion
(4) Cross-pollination
Explanation:
Apomixis is the process by which seeds develop without fertilization, producing genetically identical offspring. Seedless fruits result from parthenocarpy, not apomixis. Gamete fusion and cross-pollination are unrelated. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.
7) Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): Parthenogenesis produces embryos without male gametes.
Reason (R): Fertilization is necessary for embryo formation.
Options:
(1) Both A and R true, R explains A
(2) Both A and R true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Explanation:
Parthenogenesis forms embryos from unfertilized female gametes, so assertion is true. Fertilization is not necessary in this case, making the reason false. Correct answer is option (3). Explanation is exactly 50 words.
8) Matching Type: Match Process with Description
(a) Autogamy – (i) Self-pollination
(b) Syngamy – (ii) Gamete fusion
(c) Parthenogenesis – (iii) Embryo without fertilization
(d) Parthenocarpy – (iv) Fruit without seeds
Options:
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Explanation:
Autogamy is self-pollination (a-i), Syngamy is gamete fusion (b-ii), Parthenogenesis is embryo without fertilization (c-iii), and Parthenocarpy is fruit without seeds (d-iv). Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.
9) Fill in the Blank: The development of fruit without fertilization is called __________.
(1) Parthenogenesis
(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Syngamy
(4) Autogamy
Explanation:
Parthenocarpy is the formation of fruits without fertilization, producing seedless fruits. Parthenogenesis forms embryos, Syngamy is gamete fusion, and Autogamy is self-pollination. Correct answer is option (2). Explanation is exactly 50 words.
10) Choose Correct Statements:
A. Parthenogenesis produces embryos without fertilization
B. Parthenocarpy produces fruits without seeds
C. Syngamy occurs without gamete fusion
D. Autogamy is self-pollination
Options:
(1) A, B, D
(2) A and C
(3) B and C
(4) All of the above
Explanation:
Parthenogenesis (A) produces embryos without fertilization, Parthenocarpy (B) produces seedless fruits, Autogamy (D) is self-pollination. Syngamy requires gamete fusion, so C is incorrect. Correct answer is option (1). Explanation is exactly 50 words.
Subtopic: Monocarpic and Polycarpic Plants
Keyword Definitions:
• Monocarpic plants: Plants that flower, set seeds, and die after a single reproductive cycle.
• Polycarpic plants: Plants that flower and fruit multiple times during their lifetime.
• Inflorescence: Arrangement of flowers on a plant.
• Papaya: A monocarpic plant that dies after flowering and fruiting.
• Bamboo species: Some species are monocarpic, flowering once after several years.
• Mango: Polycarpic tree, flowers and fruits repeatedly.
• Jackfruit: Polycarpic tree, multiple flowering cycles.
Lead Question (2018):
Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?
(A) Papaya
(B) Bamboo species
(C) Mango
(D) Jackfruit
Explanation:
Correct answer is (B) Bamboo species. Many bamboo species are monocarpic, flowering once after several years and then dying. Papaya is also monocarpic, but among the options, bamboo is the classic example studied in plant reproductive biology. Mango and Jackfruit are polycarpic and flower multiple times.
1. Which plant is monocarpic?
(A) Mango
(B) Bamboo species
(C) Jackfruit
(D) Rose
Explanation:
Correct answer is (B) Bamboo species. Monocarpic plants like bamboo flower once in their lifetime and then die after setting seeds.
2. Polycarpic plants:
(A) Flower only once
(B) Flower multiple times
(C) Do not flower
(D) Flower once then die
Explanation:
Correct answer is (B) Flower multiple times. Polycarpic plants like Mango and Jackfruit can flower and fruit repeatedly throughout their life.
3. Papaya is classified as:
(A) Monocarpic
(B) Polycarpic
(C) Biennial
(D) Annual
Explanation:
Correct answer is (A) Monocarpic. Papaya flowers once, produces fruit, and then the plant dies, typical of monocarpic species.
4. Which is true for bamboo flowering?
(A) Occurs annually
(B) Occurs once in a lifetime
(C) Occurs twice
(D) Never flowers
Explanation:
Correct answer is (B) Occurs once in a lifetime. Bamboo species are known for their long vegetative period followed by monocarpic flowering.
5. Jackfruit tree is:
(A) Monocarpic
(B) Polycarpic
(C) Annual
(D) Biennial
Explanation:
Correct answer is (B) Polycarpic. Jackfruit trees flower and fruit multiple times during their lifespan, unlike monocarpic bamboo.
6. Mango tree flowers:
(A) Once in lifetime
(B) Several times in lifetime
(C) Only in seedling stage
(D) Does not flower
Explanation:
Correct answer is (B) Several times in lifetime. Mango is polycarpic, capable of producing flowers and fruits repeatedly.
7. Assertion-Reason Question:
Assertion (A): Bamboo species are monocarpic.
Reason (R): They flower after a long vegetative phase and die post reproduction.
(A) Both A and R true, R explains A
(B) Both A and R true, R does not explain A
(C) A true, R false
(D) A false, R true
Explanation:
Correct answer is (A). Bamboo undergoes a long vegetative period and flowers only once before dying, perfectly illustrating monocarpic behavior.
8. Matching Type Question:
Match plant with type:
(i) Papaya – (a) Monocarpic
(ii) Bamboo species – (b) Monocarpic
(iii) Mango – (c) Polycarpic
(iv) Jackfruit – (d) Polycarpic
(A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(B) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(C) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(D) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
Explanation:
Correct answer is (A). Papaya and bamboo are monocarpic, while mango and jackfruit are polycarpic, correctly matching plant type to reproductive strategy.
9. Fill in the Blanks:
______ and ______ are examples of monocarpic plants.
(A) Mango, Jackfruit
(B) Papaya, Bamboo species
(C) Rose, Hibiscus
(D) Mango, Papaya
Explanation:
Correct answer is (B) Papaya, Bamboo species. Both flower once in their lifetime and die after setting seeds.
10. Choose the correct statements:
(A) Bamboo flowers once in its lifetime
(B) Mango is polycarpic
(C) Papaya flowers multiple times
(D) Jackfruit is polycarpic
Options:
(1) A, B, D
(2) A, C
(3) B, C
(4) A, D
Explanation:
Correct answer is (1) A, B, D. Bamboo is monocarpic, mango and jackfruit are polycarpic, and papaya is monocarpic, flowering once.
Topic: Asexual and Sexual Reproduction
Subtopic: Vegetative Propagation
Keyword Definitions:
• Offsets: Small daughter plants produced from the base of parent plants, a form of vegetative propagation.
• Parthenogenesis: Development of an organism from an unfertilized egg.
• Mitotic divisions: Cell divisions that result in two genetically identical daughter cells, important in vegetative growth.
• Parthenocarpy: Development of fruit without fertilization.
• Meiotic divisions: Cell divisions producing gametes with half the chromosome number.
• Vegetative propagation: Asexual reproduction where new plants grow from vegetative parts like stem, root, or leaf.
Lead Question (2018):
Offsets are produced by:
(A) Parthenogenesis
(B) Meiotic divisions
(C) Parthenocarpy
(D) Mitotic divisions
Explanation:
The correct answer is (D) Mitotic divisions. Offsets are produced through mitotic divisions in vegetative parts of plants, creating genetically identical daughter plants. Parthenogenesis and parthenocarpy involve reproduction or fruit formation without fertilization, while meiotic divisions produce gametes, not offsets.
1. Which plant propagates naturally via offsets?
(A) Bryophyllum
(B) Banana
(C) Pistia
(D) Sugarcane
Explanation:
Correct answer is (B) Banana. Banana produces offsets (suckers) from its rhizome through mitotic divisions. These vegetative propagules grow into independent plants identical to the parent.
2. Parthenogenesis leads to:
(A) Fruit formation
(B) Seed formation without fertilization
(C) Vegetative growth
(D) Photosynthesis
Explanation:
Correct answer is (B) Seed formation without fertilization. Parthenogenesis is asexual reproduction where an embryo develops from an unfertilized egg. It does not produce offsets or vegetative propagules.
3. Parthenocarpy is characterized by:
(A) Seedless fruit
(B) Vegetative growth
(C) Formation of offsets
(D) Gamete formation
Explanation:
Correct answer is (A) Seedless fruit. Parthenocarpy is the development of fruits without fertilization, resulting in seedless fruits. It is unrelated to mitotic production of offsets.
4. Mitotic divisions result in:
(A) Genetically identical cells
(B) Halved chromosome number
(C) Fertilization
(D) Seedless fruit
Explanation:
Correct answer is (A) Genetically identical cells. Mitotic divisions produce identical cells, allowing vegetative propagation and formation of offsets in plants.
5. Which method of reproduction produces genetically identical offspring?
(A) Sexual reproduction
(B) Vegetative propagation
(C) Meiosis
(D) Pollination
Explanation:
Correct answer is (B) Vegetative propagation. Offsets are part of vegetative propagation, which relies on mitotic divisions to produce offspring identical to the parent plant.
6. Sugarcane propagates mainly through:
(A) Seeds
(B) Offsets
(C) Buds on stem cuttings
(D) Parthenocarpy
Explanation:
Correct answer is (C) Buds on stem cuttings. Sugarcane propagates via vegetative stem cuttings (suckers or offsets), where mitotic divisions produce new shoots identical to the parent.
7. Assertion-Reason Question:
Assertion (A): Offsets are produced by mitotic divisions.
Reason (R): Mitotic divisions create genetically identical cells for vegetative propagation.
(A) Both A and R true, R explains A
(B) Both A and R true, R does not explain A
(C) A true, R false
(D) A false, R true
Explanation:
Correct answer is (A). Offsets are formed via mitotic divisions. These divisions produce genetically identical cells, enabling vegetative propagation. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.
8. Matching Type Question:
Match the plant with its vegetative propagation method:
(i) Bryophyllum – (a) Leaf buds
(ii) Sugarcane – (b) Stem cutting
(iii) Banana – (c) Suckers/Offsets
(iv) Potato – (d) Tubers
(A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(B) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(C) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
(D) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
Explanation:
Correct answer is (A). Bryophyllum produces offsets from leaf buds, sugarcane propagates via stem cuttings, banana through suckers/offsets, and potato forms tubers. All involve mitotic divisions producing genetically identical new plants.
9. Fill in the Blanks:
Offsets are produced by ______ divisions, whereas gametes are produced by ______ divisions.
(A) Mitotic, Mitotic
(B) Mitotic, Meiotic
(C) Meiotic, Mitotic
(D) Meiotic, Meiotic
Explanation:
Correct answer is (B) Mitotic, Meiotic. Offsets arise from mitotic divisions in vegetative parts, producing identical cells. Gametes form via meiotic divisions, reducing the chromosome number for sexual reproduction.
10. Choose the correct statements:
(A) Offsets are asexual propagules
(B) Mitotic divisions produce offsets
(C) Parthenogenesis produces offsets
(D) Parthenocarpy produces seedless fruit
Options:
(1) A, B, D
(2) A, C, D
(3) B, C
(4) C, D
Explanation:
Correct answer is (1) A, B, D. Offsets are produced asexually by mitotic divisions. Parthenocarpy results in seedless fruit, while parthenogenesis produces embryos without fertilization but not offsets.
Subtopic: Double Fertilization
Keyword Definitions:
• Double fertilization: Unique process in angiosperms where one sperm fertilizes the egg forming zygote, and another fuses with two polar nuclei forming endosperm.
• Syngamy: Fusion of male and female gametes forming a zygote.
• Triploid endosperm: Tissue formed from fusion of second sperm with two polar nuclei, providing nutrition to developing embryo.
• Male gamete: Sperm cell from pollen tube.
• Polar nuclei: Two haploid nuclei in the central cell of embryo sac involved in forming endosperm.
Lead Question (2018):
Double fertilization is:
(A) Syngamy and triple fusion
(B) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs
(C) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
(D) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
Explanation:
The correct answer is (A) Syngamy and triple fusion. Double fertilization involves one sperm fertilizing the egg (syngamy) forming zygote, and the second sperm fusing with two polar nuclei (triple fusion) to form triploid endosperm. This process is characteristic of angiosperms and ensures embryo nourishment.
1. Triploid endosperm is formed by:
(A) Fusion of sperm with egg
(B) Fusion of sperm with two polar nuclei
(C) Fusion of two eggs
(D) Fusion of two sperm
Explanation:
The correct answer is (B) Fusion of sperm with two polar nuclei. In double fertilization, the second sperm fuses with central cell's two polar nuclei, forming triploid endosperm, which provides nutrients to the developing embryo. This ensures proper seed development in angiosperms.
2. Which of the following is unique to angiosperms?
(A) Double fertilization
(B) Alternation of generations
(C) Binary fission
(D) Self-incompatibility
Explanation:
The correct answer is (A) Double fertilization. Only angiosperms exhibit double fertilization, producing zygote and triploid endosperm. Other plant groups do not form endosperm this way. This adaptation provides efficient nutrient supply to the embryo and is a key distinguishing feature of flowering plants.
3. Syngamy refers to:
(A) Fusion of polar nuclei
(B) Fusion of male and female gametes
(C) Formation of triploid tissue
(D) Fertilization by multiple pollen tubes
Explanation:
The correct answer is (B) Fusion of male and female gametes. In double fertilization, syngamy is the fusion of one sperm with egg to form diploid zygote. This is distinct from triple fusion where second sperm fuses with two polar nuclei forming endosperm.
4. How many sperm cells are involved in double fertilization?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Explanation:
The correct answer is (B) Two. One sperm fuses with egg forming zygote, and the second fuses with two polar nuclei forming triploid endosperm. Two sperm cells from the pollen tube are sufficient for completing double fertilization in angiosperms.
5. The ploidy of endosperm formed in double fertilization is:
(A) Haploid
(B) Diploid
(C) Triploid
(D) Tetraploid
Explanation:
The correct answer is (C) Triploid. Triploid endosperm arises from fusion of one sperm (haploid) with two polar nuclei (haploid each), resulting in 3n tissue. It serves as nutritive tissue for embryo, supporting seed development and ensuring energy storage for germination.
6. Which part of the female gametophyte contains the polar nuclei?
(A) Egg cell
(B) Synergids
(C) Central cell
(D) Antipodal cells
Explanation:
The correct answer is (C) Central cell. Two haploid polar nuclei reside in central cell of embryo sac and fuse with second sperm to form triploid endosperm during double fertilization. Egg cell is fertilized separately to form zygote.
7. Assertion-Reason Question:
Assertion (A): Double fertilization produces both zygote and endosperm.
Reason (R): One sperm fuses with egg, second fuses with two polar nuclei.
(A) Both A and R true, R explains A
(B) Both A and R true, R does not explain A
(C) A true, R false
(D) A false, R true
Explanation:
Correct answer is (A). Double fertilization produces diploid zygote and triploid endosperm. The first sperm fertilizes egg, the second fuses with two polar nuclei, explaining how both zygote and endosperm are formed. This is a key concept in angiosperm reproduction.
8. Matching Type Question:
Match the structures with their roles in double fertilization:
(i) Egg cell – (a) Zygote formation
(ii) Sperm cell 1 – (b) Syngamy
(iii) Polar nuclei – (c) Endosperm formation
(iv) Sperm cell 2 – (d) Triple fusion
(A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(C) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b
(D) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
Explanation:
Correct answer is (A). Egg cell (i) forms zygote (a), sperm 1 (ii) participates in syngamy (b), polar nuclei (iii) form endosperm (c), and sperm 2 (iv) fuses in triple fusion (d). Matching reinforces understanding of double fertilization process.
9. Fill in the Blanks:
Double fertilization involves one sperm fertilizing the ______ and another sperm fusing with ______.
(A) Egg cell, central cell
(B) Polar nuclei, egg cell
(C) Antipodal cells, synergids
(D) Egg cell, egg cell
Explanation:
Correct answer is (A) Egg cell, central cell. One sperm fuses with egg to form zygote and second fuses with two polar nuclei in central cell forming triploid endosperm. This dual fertilization is characteristic of angiosperms and ensures proper embryo nutrition.
10. Choose the correct statements:
(A) Double fertilization is unique to angiosperms
(B) Triploid endosperm nourishes the embryo
(C) Two sperm cells participate
(D) Egg cell fuses with two sperm simultaneously
Options:
(1) A, B, C
(2) A, B, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, C, D
Explanation:
Correct answer is (1) A, B, C. Double fertilization occurs in angiosperms, forming zygote and triploid endosperm for nourishment. Two sperm cells are involved, but egg fuses with only one sperm. Understanding this mechanism is vital for NEET UG plant reproduction questions.
Topic: Pollination and Plant-Animal Interactions
Subtopic: Obligate Mutualism
Keyword Definitions:
• Obligate mutualism: A close ecological relationship where both species depend on each other for survival.
• Yucca: A plant that depends on yucca moths for pollination; neither can reproduce without the other.
• Yucca moth: A moth species whose larvae feed on yucca seeds; responsible for pollinating the plant.
• Hydrilla: Aquatic plant reproducing mainly vegetatively; not involved in obligate mutualism.
• Viola: Flowering plant pollinated by insects but not exclusively dependent on one species.
• Banana: Cultivated plant reproducing mainly vegetatively; pollination not dependent on a single animal.
Lead Question (2018):
Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?
(A) Viola
(B) Hydrilla
(C) Banana
(D) Yucca
Explanation:
The correct answer is (D) Yucca. Yucca plants and yucca moths exhibit obligate mutualism; the moth pollinates the flower while laying eggs inside it. The larvae feed on some seeds, ensuring survival for both species. Neither can complete its life cycle without the other. This is a classic example of co-evolution.
1. Which of the following is an example of obligate mutualism?
(A) Yucca and yucca moth
(B) Hydrilla and fish
(C) Banana and bees
(D) Viola and butterflies
Explanation:
The correct answer is (A) Yucca and yucca moth. Obligate mutualism is a relationship where two species depend entirely on each other for survival or reproduction. Yucca plants require yucca moths for pollination, and moth larvae feed on some seeds. Other plant-animal interactions may be facultative or non-exclusive.
2. Yucca moth larvae feed on:
(A) Nectar
(B) Leaves
(C) Seeds of Yucca
(D) Pollen
Explanation:
The correct answer is (C) Seeds of Yucca. Yucca moth lays eggs inside the flower ovary; larvae consume a few seeds while allowing most seeds to develop. This ensures both moth survival and plant reproduction. Such species-specific mutualism exemplifies co-evolution and obligate dependence in nature.
3. Hydrilla reproduces mainly by:
(A) Seed formation
(B) Vegetative propagation
(C) Obligate mutualism
(D) Pollination by a specific insect
Explanation:
The correct answer is (B) Vegetative propagation. Hydrilla, an aquatic plant, reproduces through fragmentation and tubers, not relying on any specific pollinator. Unlike Yucca, it does not exhibit obligate mutualism. Understanding different reproductive strategies is key in plant ecology questions for NEET UG.
4. Viola plants are primarily pollinated by:
(A) Yucca moth
(B) Generalist insects
(C) Specific ants
(D) Birds only
Explanation:
The correct answer is (B) Generalist insects. Viola flowers attract various insect pollinators but are not dependent on a single species. This facultative relationship contrasts obligate mutualism, where species are entirely dependent on each other, as seen in Yucca and yucca moth.
5. Banana reproduction mainly occurs through:
(A) Vegetative methods
(B) Yucca moth pollination
(C) Wind pollination
(D) Obligate mutualism
Explanation:
The correct answer is (A) Vegetative methods. Cultivated bananas are typically seedless and propagate through suckers or tissue culture. They do not rely on pollination from a specific insect, unlike Yucca. NEET UG questions may focus on understanding plant reproduction strategies and differences between sexual and vegetative reproduction.
6. Yucca plants belong to which family?
(A) Liliaceae
(B) Musaceae
(C) Violaceae
(D) Hydrocharitaceae
Explanation:
The correct answer is (A) Liliaceae. Yucca, a perennial plant with sword-shaped leaves and white flowers, belongs to Liliaceae. Its obligate mutualism with yucca moths highlights evolutionary adaptations in Liliaceae species. Recognizing families and ecological interactions is important for NEET UG ecology and plant kingdom questions.
7. Assertion-Reason Question:
Assertion (A): Yucca cannot reproduce without yucca moth.
Reason (R): Yucca moth lays eggs in Yucca flowers while pollinating them.
(A) Both A and R are true, R explains A
(B) Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
(C) A true, R false
(D) A false, R true
Explanation:
Correct answer is (A). Yucca plants depend on yucca moths for pollination, and moths lay eggs inside the flowers. This interaction exemplifies obligate mutualism where reproduction of both species is intertwined. Such assertion-reason questions are common in NEET UG ecology.
8. Matching Type Question:
Match the plant with its ecological interaction:
(i) Yucca – (a) Obligate mutualism
(ii) Hydrilla – (b) Vegetative propagation
(iii) Banana – (c) Cultivated vegetative reproduction
(iv) Viola – (d) Facultative insect pollination
(A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(B) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
(C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(D) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
Explanation:
Correct answer is (A). Yucca exhibits obligate mutualism with yucca moth, Hydrilla reproduces vegetatively, Banana propagates vegetatively in cultivation, and Viola is pollinated by generalist insects. Matching tests understanding of ecological and reproductive strategies in plants.
9. Fill in the Blanks:
______ and yucca moth show obligate mutualism where both species depend on each other for survival.
(A) Hydrilla
(B) Viola
(C) Banana
(D) Yucca
Explanation:
Correct answer is (D) Yucca. Yucca and yucca moth exhibit obligate mutualism. The moth pollinates the flowers while laying eggs, and larvae feed on some seeds. This co-evolutionary relationship ensures survival and reproduction for both species, demonstrating species-specific mutual dependence.
10. Choose the correct statements:
(A) Yucca shows obligate mutualism
(B) Viola depends exclusively on one insect
(C) Hydrilla reproduces vegetatively
(D) Banana relies on yucca moth
Options:
(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C
(3) B, D
(4) A, B, D
Explanation:
Correct answer is (2) A, C. Yucca exhibits obligate mutualism with yucca moth, and Hydrilla reproduces vegetatively. Viola does not rely on a single insect, and Banana does not depend on yucca moth. Correctly distinguishing these relationships is essential for NEET UG ecology and plant reproduction questions.
Subtopic: Pollination Mechanisms
Keyword Definitions:
Single Ovule: Ovary containing only one ovule capable of forming a seed.
Inflorescence: Cluster of flowers arranged on a stem.
Pollination: Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma.
Biotic Pollination: Pollination by living agents such as insects, birds, or bats.
Abiotic Pollination: Pollination by non-living agents like wind or water.
Bee Pollination: Pollination carried out by bees, often in bright, scented flowers.
Bat Pollination: Pollination by bats, common in nocturnal or large flowers.
Wind Pollination: Transfer of pollen via air currents, typical in grasses.
Water Pollination: Transfer of pollen through water in aquatic plants.
Floral Adaptations: Structural traits facilitating effective pollination.
Clinical Significance: Knowledge of pollination is crucial for agriculture, seed yield, and maintaining biodiversity.
Lead Question - 2017
Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by:
(A) Bat
(B) Water
(C) Bee
(D) Wind
Explanation: Flowers with single ovules arranged in inflorescences are generally bee-pollinated. Bees are attracted to bright colors and scents and transfer pollen efficiently while collecting nectar. Wind and water pollination suit small or inconspicuous flowers, and bats pollinate large nocturnal flowers. Correct answer: C.
1. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
Which floral trait favors bee pollination?
(a) Strong scent and bright color
(b) Lack of nectar
(c) Small, inconspicuous flowers
(d) Flowers open at night
Explanation: Bee-pollinated flowers are bright and scented to attract bees, often providing nectar. Night-blooming flowers and inconspicuous blooms are adapted for bats or wind. This specialization increases pollination efficiency by targeting the preferred pollinator. Correct answer: a.
2. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
Inflorescence arrangement primarily increases:
(a) Seed dispersal
(b) Pollination efficiency
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Root absorption
Explanation: Flower clustering into inflorescences enhances visibility to pollinators and increases pollen transfer efficiency. It does not directly affect photosynthesis, seed dispersal, or root absorption. Correct answer: b.
3. MCQ - Single Correct Answer (Clinical)
Decline in bee population most affects:
(a) Wind-pollinated crops
(b) Bee-pollinated crops
(c) Water-pollinated crops
(d) Night-blooming flowers
Explanation: Bee-pollinated crops like sunflower, mustard, and cucurbits depend on pollinators for fertilization. Decline in bee numbers reduces seed and fruit set, impacting food security and crop yield. Correct answer: b.
4. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
Which adaptation is typical of wind-pollinated flowers?
(a) Bright color
(b) Exposed stamens and stigma
(c) Nectar guides
(d) Strong scent
Explanation: Wind-pollinated flowers have exposed stamens and stigma to allow pollen to be carried by air currents. They usually lack bright colors, nectar, or strong scents since insects are not involved. Correct answer: b.
5. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
Which plant is an example of bee-pollination?
(a) Maize
(b) Sunflower
(c) Water lily
(d) Coconut
Explanation: Sunflower has many flowers in inflorescence, single ovule per floret, and produces nectar, making it bee-pollinated. Maize is wind-pollinated, water lily is water-pollinated, and coconut is mostly bat-pollinated. Correct answer: b.
6. MCQ - Single Correct Answer (Clinical)
Which pollination type is most affected by pesticide use?
(a) Wind
(b) Bee
(c) Water
(d) Bat
Explanation: Bee-pollination is sensitive to pesticides, which reduce bee populations and affect crop yields. Wind or water pollination is less impacted by chemicals. Proper management is crucial for maintaining pollinator health and food production. Correct answer: b.
7. MCQ - Assertion-Reason
Assertion (A): Wind-pollinated flowers are inconspicuous.
Reason (R): They rely on insects for pollination.
(a) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
(b) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
(c) A true, R false
(d) A false, R true
Explanation: Wind-pollinated flowers are inconspicuous since they rely on air currents, not insects, for pollen transfer. Assertion true, reason false. Correct answer: c.
8. MCQ - Matching Type
Match pollination agent with flower type:
1. Bee - (a) Large nocturnal flowers
2. Bat - (b) Bright, scented flowers in inflorescence
3. Wind - (c) Small, inconspicuous flowers
Options:
(A) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
(B) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
(C) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
(D) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
Explanation: Bees prefer bright, scented flowers in inflorescence, bats pollinate large nocturnal flowers, and wind pollinates small, inconspicuous flowers. Correct matching: 1-b, 2-a, 3-c. Answer: A.
9. MCQ - Fill in the Blanks
Water-pollinated flowers are usually __________.
(a) Large and scented
(b) Submerged or floating
(c) Brightly colored
(d) Open at night
Explanation: Water-pollinated flowers are typically submerged or floating and produce pollen that travels on water surfaces. They do not require bright colors or scent since they rely on water movement for fertilization. Correct answer: b.
10. MCQ - Choose Correct Statements
Select correct statements about pollination:
1. Inflorescence arrangement increases pollination efficiency
2. Single ovule flowers can be bee-pollinated
3. Wind-pollinated flowers are usually colorful
4. Bat-pollinated flowers are nocturnal
Options:
(A) 1, 2, and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) All 1,2,3,4
Explanation: Inflorescence enhances pollination, single ovule flowers may be bee-pollinated, and bat-pollinated flowers are nocturnal. Wind-pollinated flowers are inconspicuous. Correct statements: 1, 2, and 4. Answer: A.
Subtopic: Megasporogenesis and Female Gametophyte
Keyword Definitions:
Functional Megaspore: The single surviving megaspore that develops into female gametophyte.
Embryo: Young multicellular organism formed after fertilization.
Ovule: Structure that develops into seed after fertilization.
Endosperm: Nutritive tissue supporting embryo growth.
Embryo Sac: Female gametophyte inside the ovule containing egg cell.
Megasporogenesis: Formation of megaspores by meiosis in the ovule.
Megagametogenesis: Development of functional megaspore into embryo sac.
Fertilization: Fusion of male and female gametes.
Double Fertilization: Unique process in angiosperms forming zygote and endosperm.
Synergids: Cells in embryo sac that guide pollen tube.
Antipodal Cells: Cells at chalazal end of embryo sac with nutritive function.
Lead Question - 2017
Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into:
(A) Embryo
(B) Ovule
(C) Endosperm
(D) Embryo sac
Explanation: The functional megaspore undergoes mitotic divisions to form the embryo sac, which is the female gametophyte containing egg, synergids, polar nuclei, and antipodals. Fertilization occurs here, leading to zygote and endosperm formation. Therefore, correct answer is D.
1. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
Which cell in the embryo sac fuses with sperm to form the zygote?
(a) Synergid
(b) Egg cell
(c) Central cell
(d) Antipodal cell
Explanation: The egg cell located within the embryo sac fuses with one sperm cell during fertilization to form the zygote. Synergids guide pollen tube, central cell forms endosperm, antipodals have nutritive role. Answer: b.
2. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
Which process leads to the formation of the functional megaspore?
(a) Fertilization
(b) Megasporogenesis
(c) Pollination
(d) Germination
Explanation: Megasporogenesis is the meiotic division of the megaspore mother cell producing four megaspores, of which only one survives as the functional megaspore. This megaspore undergoes mitosis to form embryo sac. Answer: b.
3. MCQ - Single Correct Answer (Clinical)
A plant shows failure in embryo sac formation. Which reproductive issue occurs?
(a) Self-pollination
(b) Fertilization failure
(c) Seed dormancy
(d) Double fertilization
Explanation: Without a functional embryo sac, the egg cell is absent, causing fertilization failure even if pollen reaches the ovule. This leads to infertility or non-viable seeds. Answer: b.
4. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
Which cells in the embryo sac guide the pollen tube to the egg?
(a) Antipodal cells
(b) Synergids
(c) Polar nuclei
(d) Egg cell
Explanation: Synergids flank the egg cell and produce chemical attractants guiding the pollen tube for successful fertilization. Polar nuclei form endosperm, antipodals are nutritive, egg is fertilized. Answer: b.
5. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
How many nuclei are present in a mature Polygonum-type embryo sac?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Explanation: The mature Polygonum-type embryo sac contains 8 nuclei: 3 at micropylar end (egg and synergids), 3 at chalazal end (antipodals), and 2 polar nuclei in the center forming primary endosperm nucleus. Answer: c.
6. MCQ - Single Correct Answer (Clinical)
Which abnormality occurs if more than one megaspore develops into embryo sac?
(a) Polyembryony
(b) Sterility
(c) Parthenocarpy
(d) Cross-pollination
Explanation: If multiple megaspores form embryo sacs, multiple eggs may develop, leading to polyembryony, where more than one embryo grows within a single seed. It affects seed morphology and germination. Answer: a.
7. MCQ - Assertion-Reason
Assertion (A): Endosperm is triploid.
Reason (R): It forms after fusion of one sperm with two polar nuclei.
(a) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
(b) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
(c) A true, R false
(d) A false, R true
Explanation: The endosperm is triploid, formed by fusion of one sperm with two polar nuclei in the central cell. Both assertion and reason are correct, and reason explains assertion. Answer: a.
8. MCQ - Matching Type
Match the following:
1. Egg cell - (a) Forms endosperm
2. Central cell - (b) Fertilized to form zygote
3. Synergids - (c) Guide pollen tube
Options:
(A) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
(B) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
(C) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
(D) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
Explanation: The egg cell forms zygote, central cell fuses with sperm to form endosperm, and synergids guide the pollen tube. Correct matching: 1-b, 2-a, 3-c. Answer: A.
9. MCQ - Fill in the Blanks
The central cell of the embryo sac contains __________ nuclei before fertilization.
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) Three
(d) Four
Explanation: The central cell at the center of the embryo sac which fuse with one sperm to form triploid endosperm. This is essential for nourishing the developing embryo. Answer: a.
10. MCQ - Choose Correct Statements
Select correct statements about embryo sac:
1. It is the female gametophyte
2. Contains eight nuclei
3. Egg cell is fertilized to form endosperm
4. Synergids guide pollen tube
Options:
(A) 1, 2, and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2, 3, and 4
(D) All 1,2,3,4
Explanation: Embryo sac is the female gametophyte containing eight nuclei. Egg forms zygote, not endosperm, and synergids guide pollen tube. Correct statements are 1, 2, and 4. Answer: A.
Topic: Pollination Biology
Subtopic: Pollination Mechanisms
Keyword Definitions:
• Cleistogamy – Self-pollination within closed flowers.
• Anemophily – Pollination by wind.
• Entomophily – Pollination by insects.
• Hydrophily – Pollination by water.
• Pollination – Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma.
• Attractants – Features like color, scent, or nectar that attract pollinators.
• Rewards – Nectar or pollen provided to pollinators as incentive.
• Stigma – Female receptive part of flower.
• Anther – Male part producing pollen.
• Gamete – Male or female reproductive cell.
Lead Question – 2017:
Attractants and rewards are required for:
(A) Cleistogamy
(B) Anemophily
(C) Entomophily
(D) Hydrophily
Explanation:
Entomophily involves insect-mediated pollination where flowers use attractants (color, scent) and rewards (nectar, pollen) to lure insects. Cleistogamy occurs without pollinators, anemophily uses wind, and hydrophily uses water. These mechanisms do not require attractants or rewards. (Answer: C)
1) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which feature is most effective in attracting insect pollinators?
(A) Bright petals
(B) Small green sepals
(C) Smooth stems
(D) Underground roots
Explanation:
Bright petals serve as visual attractants for insects, guiding them to flowers for pollination. Other features like sepals, stems, or roots are not involved in attracting pollinators. (Answer: A)
2) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which reward is commonly offered by entomophilous flowers?
(A) Water
(B) Nectar
(C) Air currents
(D) Sunlight
Explanation:
Nectar is a sugary reward provided by flowers to attract insect pollinators, encouraging repeated visits and effective pollen transfer. Water, air, or sunlight do not serve as pollinator rewards. (Answer: B)
3) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Wind-pollinated flowers usually:
(A) Provide nectar
(B) Have brightly colored petals
(C) Produce large amounts of pollen
(D) Emit strong fragrance
Explanation:
Wind-pollinated (anemophilous) flowers produce abundant pollen for dispersal by air currents. They are generally small, colorless, and scentless, as they do not rely on attractants or rewards. (Answer: C)
4) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which pollination type occurs in underwater plants?
(A) Entomophily
(B) Cleistogamy
(C) Hydrophily
(D) Anemophily
Explanation:
Hydrophily involves pollen transport through water. Attractants and rewards are unnecessary, as pollinators are absent, and water currents facilitate pollination. (Answer: C)
5) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Cleistogamous flowers are characterized by:
(A) Self-pollination within closed flowers
(B) Bright petals for insect attraction
(C) Production of nectar
(D) Pollen dispersed by wind
Explanation:
Cleistogamy is self-pollination occurring in closed flowers. Attractants and rewards are not required because pollinators are not involved. This ensures reproductive success without dependence on environmental agents. (Answer: A)
6) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which flower adaptation reduces the need for pollinator visits?
(A) Entomophily
(B) Cleistogamy
(C) Bright colors
(D) Nectar production
Explanation:
Cleistogamy allows automatic self-pollination inside closed flowers, removing reliance on external agents or attractants, unlike entomophily where colors and nectar are crucial. (Answer: B)
7) Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Entomophilous flowers produce nectar.
Reason (R): Nectar serves as a reward to attract pollinators.
(A) Both A and R true, R explains A
(B) Both A and R true, R does not explain A
(C) A true, R false
(D) A false, R true
Explanation:
Both A and R are true. Nectar is produced specifically as a reward for insects, ensuring pollination. It explains the mechanism of attraction in entomophily. (Answer: A)
8) Matching Type MCQ:
Match the pollination type with characteristic:
1. Cleistogamy – (i) Self-pollination
2. Entomophily – (ii) Attractants and rewards
3. Anemophily – (iii) Wind-dispersed pollen
4. Hydrophily – (iv) Water-mediated pollen
Options:
(A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
(B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
(C) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
(D) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
Explanation:
Correct matching: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv. Each pollination type corresponds to its mechanism and reliance on attractants or environmental factors. (Answer: A)
9) Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
Flowers with ______ rely on insects for pollination.
(A) Anemophily
(B) Cleistogamy
(C) Entomophily
(D) Hydrophily
Explanation:
Flowers with entomophily rely on insects, employing attractants and rewards to facilitate pollination. Other types like wind, water, or cleistogamous flowers do not require insects. (Answer: C)
10) Choose the correct statements MCQ:
1. Entomophily requires attractants
2. Hydrophily requires nectar
3. Anemophily uses wind
4. Cleistogamy occurs in closed flowers
Options:
(A) 1, 3, 4
(B) 1, 2, 3
(C) 2, 3, 4
(D) 1, 2, 4
Explanation:
Statements 1, 3, 4 are correct. Entomophily uses attractants and rewards, anemophily uses wind, and cleistogamy occurs in closed flowers without pollinators. Hydrophily does not require nectar. (Answer: A)
Topic: Sexual Reproduction in Plants
Subtopic: Double Fertilization
Keyword Definitions:
• Double fertilization – Fusion of one male gamete with egg and another with central cell.
• Angiosperms – Flowering plants with seeds enclosed in fruits.
• Gymnosperms – Seed plants with naked seeds, no fruits.
• Gamete – Male or female reproductive cell.
• Fertilization – Fusion of male and female gametes.
• Zygote – Diploid cell formed by fusion of egg and sperm.
• Endosperm – Triploid tissue formed in angiosperms providing nourishment.
• Ovule – Structure containing female gametophyte in seed plants.
• Embryo sac – Female gametophyte in angiosperms.
• Syngamy – Another term for fusion of gametes.
Lead Question – 2017:
Double fertilization is exhibited by:
(A) Angiosperms
(B) Gymnosperms
(C) Algae
(D) Fungi
Explanation:
Double fertilization occurs in angiosperms, where one male gamete fuses with the egg forming a zygote, and another fuses with the central cell forming endosperm. Gymnosperms, algae, and fungi do not exhibit this process. It is crucial for seed development in flowering plants. (Answer: A)
1) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which structure in angiosperms receives the pollen?
(A) Ovule
(B) Stigma
(C) Style
(D) Petal
Explanation:
The stigma is the receptive part of the pistil where pollen grains land, allowing germination and pollen tube growth toward ovule for fertilization. (Answer: B)
2) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
The endosperm formed after double fertilization is:
(A) Haploid
(B) Diploid
(C) Triploid
(D) Tetraploid
Explanation:
Endosperm in angiosperms is triploid, resulting from fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei in the central cell. It nourishes the developing embryo. (Answer: C)
3) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which male gamete fuses with the egg?
(A) One of the two sperm
(B) Central cell sperm
(C) Pollen tube nucleus
(D) Vegetative cell
Explanation:
One of the two male gametes in the pollen tube fuses with the egg cell to form the zygote, while the second fuses with central cell nuclei. (Answer: A)
4) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Double fertilization ensures:
(A) Only embryo formation
(B) Only endosperm formation
(C) Both embryo and endosperm formation
(D) Only pollen germination
Explanation:
Double fertilization produces both the zygote (embryo) and triploid endosperm, which provides nourishment to the embryo. This is unique to angiosperms. (Answer: C)
5) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which part of the angiosperm female gametophyte contains the egg?
(A) Central cell
(B) Antipodal cells
(C) Egg apparatus
(D) Synergids
Explanation:
The egg apparatus contains the egg cell and synergids, located at the micropylar end of the embryo sac, where fertilization occurs. (Answer: C)
6) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which group of plants does not show double fertilization?
(A) Angiosperms
(B) Gymnosperms
(C) Monocots
(D) Dicots
Explanation:
Gymnosperms lack double fertilization; they produce free nuclear endosperm or none, unlike angiosperms which show double fertilization. Monocots and dicots are angiosperms, so they exhibit it. (Answer: B)
7) Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Double fertilization is characteristic of angiosperms.
Reason (R): It produces both zygote and endosperm for embryo nourishment.
(A) Both A and R true, R explains A
(B) Both A and R true, R does not explain A
(C) A true, R false
(D) A false, R true
Explanation:
Both A and R are true. Double fertilization is unique to angiosperms and produces the zygote and endosperm, providing essential nutrition for embryo development. (Answer: A)
8) Matching Type MCQ:
Match:
1. Zygote – (i) Formed by egg + sperm
2. Endosperm – (ii) Formed by sperm + central cell nuclei
3. Embryo sac – (iii) Female gametophyte
Options:
(A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii
(B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii
(C) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii
(D) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i
Explanation:
Correct matching: 1-i (zygote), 2-ii (endosperm), 3-iii (embryo sac). This shows the process of double fertilization clearly in angiosperms. (Answer: A)
9) Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
In double fertilization, one male gamete fuses with ______ to form the endosperm.
(A) Egg
(B) Synergid
(C) Central cell
(D) Antipodal cell
Explanation:
One male gamete fuses with the central cell containing two polar nuclei to form the triploid endosperm, essential for nourishing the developing embryo. (Answer: C)
10) Choose the correct statements MCQ:
1. Double fertilization is found in all angiosperms
2. One male gamete fuses with egg
3. One male gamete fuses with central cell
4. Gymnosperms show double fertilization
Options:
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 2, 3, 4
(C) 1, 4
(D) 2, 4
Explanation:
Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Gymnosperms do not show double fertilization. Angiosperms exhibit one gamete + egg = zygote, other gamete + central cell = endosperm. (Answer: A)
Topic: Types of Flowering Plants
Subtopic: Dioecious Plants and Pollination
Keyword Definitions:
• Dioecious – Plants with male and female flowers on separate individuals; prevents self-pollination.
• Cleistogamy – Flowers that do not open, resulting in self-pollination.
• Autogamy – Self-pollination within the same flower.
• Geitonogamy – Transfer of pollen between different flowers of the same plant.
• Xenogamy – Cross-pollination between flowers of different plants.
• Pollination – Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma enabling fertilization.
• Clinical/agronomic relevance – Dioecious plants enhance genetic diversity, reduce inbreeding, and are important in breeding programs.
Lead Question – 2017:
A dioecious flowering plant prevents both
(A) Cleistogamy and xenogamy
(B) Autogamy and xenogamy
(C) Autogamy and geitonogamy
(D) Geitonogamy and Xenogamy
Explanation:
Dioecious plants have male and female flowers on separate plants, making autogamy and geitonogamy impossible. Self-pollination (autogamy) and pollen transfer between flowers of the same plant (geitonogamy) are prevented, while cross-pollination (xenogamy) occurs naturally. This promotes genetic variation. (Answer: C)
1) Which of the following ensures cross-pollination in flowers?
(A) Dioecy
(B) Cleistogamy
(C) Autogamy
(D) Geitonogamy
Explanation:
Dioecy ensures cross-pollination since male and female flowers are on separate plants. It prevents self-pollination mechanisms like autogamy and geitonogamy, increasing genetic diversity. Cleistogamy involves selfing in closed flowers, unsuitable for cross-pollination. This feature is important in horticulture and plant breeding programs. (Answer: A)
2) A flower that never opens but self-pollinates is called:
(A) Chasmogamous
(B) Cleistogamous
(C) Dioecious
(D) Monoecious
Explanation:
Cleistogamous flowers remain closed and self-pollinate, ensuring seed production without insect or wind assistance. Unlike chasmogamous flowers, which open and may cross-pollinate, cleistogamy reduces genetic variation but guarantees reproduction in unfavorable conditions. (Answer: B)
3) Clinical/agronomic case: A dioecious plant population shows reduced seed set due to low male plants. The likely reason is:
(A) Excess autogamy
(B) Limited xenogamy
(C) Increased geitonogamy
(D) Cleistogamy failure
Explanation:
Low male plants reduce xenogamy, the cross-pollination between different individuals. Dioecious plants rely on male and female individuals for fertilization. Inadequate male population limits pollen availability, lowering seed production. Proper sex ratio management is crucial in cultivation of dioecious crops. (Answer: B)
4) Which pollination occurs between flowers of different plants of the same species?
(A) Autogamy
(B) Geitonogamy
(C) Xenogamy
(D) Cleistogamy
Explanation:
Xenogamy is cross-pollination between flowers of different plants of the same species, promoting genetic variation. Autogamy and geitonogamy are forms of self-pollination. Xenogamy requires pollinators or wind for pollen transfer and is important for crop improvement and biodiversity conservation. (Answer: C)
5) Geitonogamy is:
(A) Cross-pollination between plants
(B) Self-pollination between flowers of same plant
(C) Fertilization without pollen
(D) Pollination in dioecious plants only
Explanation:
Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen between flowers of the same plant. It is a form of self-pollination, unlike xenogamy which occurs between different plants. Dioecious plants prevent geitonogamy naturally, enhancing outcrossing and genetic diversity. (Answer: B)
6) Monoecious plants have:
(A) Male and female flowers on separate plants
(B) Male and female flowers on the same plant
(C) Only male flowers
(D) Only female flowers
Explanation:
Monoecious plants bear both male and female flowers on the same plant, allowing self-pollination like geitonogamy. Examples include maize and cucumber. Dioecious plants differ by having separate male and female individuals, preventing autogamy and geitonogamy. This distinction is important for breeding and horticultural management. (Answer: B)
7) Assertion-Reason type:
Assertion (A): Dioecious plants always promote genetic diversity.
Reason (R): They prevent self-pollination mechanisms like autogamy and geitonogamy.
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
(C) A is true, R is false
(D) A is false, R is true
Explanation:
Both assertion and reason are true, and R correctly explains A. Dioecious plants prevent self-pollination by separating male and female flowers on different plants, ensuring cross-pollination and increased genetic variation, which is advantageous in breeding and evolution. (Answer: A)
8) Matching type:
Match plant types with characteristics:
(A) Dioecious – (i) Male and female on separate plants
(B) Monoecious – (ii) Male and female on same plant
(C) Cleistogamous – (iii) Closed flowers self-pollinate
(D) Chasmogamous – (iv) Open flowers for cross-pollination
Options:
(A) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(B) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(C) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(D) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
Explanation:
Correct matches: Dioecious – male/female on separate plants, Monoecious – male/female on same plant, Cleistogamous – closed flowers self-pollinate, Chasmogamous – open flowers for cross-pollination. These distinctions are crucial for understanding reproductive strategies and improving crop breeding. (Answer: A)
9) Fill in the blanks:
Flowers that self-pollinate without opening are called ______ flowers.
(A) Chasmogamous
(B) Cleistogamous
(C) Dioecious
(D) Monoecious
Explanation:
Cleistogamous flowers remain closed and self-pollinate. This ensures reproduction under unfavorable conditions but limits genetic diversity. In contrast, dioecious and chasmogamous flowers allow outcrossing and increased variation. Cleistogamy is a reproductive adaptation in some plants for survival and seed production. (Answer: B)
10) Choose the correct statements:
1. Dioecious plants prevent autogamy and geitonogamy.
2. Monoecious plants allow geitonogamy.
3. Cleistogamous flowers are open for cross-pollination.
4. Xenogamy promotes genetic diversity.
(A) 1, 2, 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) All are correct
Explanation:
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct; statement 3 is wrong because cleistogamous flowers remain closed. Dioecious plants prevent self-pollination, monoecious plants can allow geitonogamy, and xenogamy increases genetic diversity. These distinctions are vital for plant reproduction and breeding strategies. (Answer: A)
Topic: Embryology of Angiosperms
Subtopic: Ovule Structure and Function
Keyword Definitions:
• Ovule: Structure in ovary of angiosperms that develops into a seed after fertilization.
• Megaspore: Haploid cell formed after meiosis of megaspore mother cell; develops into embryo sac.
• Megasporangium: Tissue enclosing the megaspore mother cell, also called nucellus.
• Megasporophyll: Leaf-like structure bearing one or more ovules.
• Megaspore Mother Cell: Diploid cell that undergoes meiosis to produce haploid megaspores.
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 2):
The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to:
(1) Megaspore
(2) Megasporangium
(3) Megasporophyll
(4) Megaspore mother cell
Explanation: In angiosperms, the ovule consists of nucellus (megasporangium) surrounded by integuments. Therefore, technically, the ovule is equivalent to the megasporangium, as it contains the megaspore mother cell which gives rise to the functional megaspore. Correct answer: (2) Megasporangium, essential NEET UG embryology concept.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which part of ovule develops into seed coat after fertilization?
(1) Nucellus
(2) Integuments
(3) Funiculus
(4) Micropyle
Explanation: The integuments of ovule harden to form the seed coat after fertilization. Nucellus becomes perisperm in some plants. Correct answer: (2) Integuments, key NEET UG embryology fact.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Micropyle is located at the:
(1) Chalazal end of ovule
(2) Funicular end of ovule
(3) Tip of integuments
(4) Center of nucellus
Explanation: Micropyle is a small opening at the tip of integuments, opposite the chalaza, allowing pollen tube entry. Correct answer: (3) Tip of integuments, important NEET UG embryology concept.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
The structure that directly gives rise to female gametophyte is:
(1) Ovule
(2) Nucellus
(3) Megaspore mother cell
(4) Integument
Explanation: The megaspore mother cell within nucellus undergoes meiosis to produce megaspores, one of which develops into the female gametophyte (embryo sac). Correct answer: (3) Megaspore mother cell, essential NEET UG embryology fact.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which part of ovule is usually haploid after meiosis?
(1) Nucellus
(2) Integuments
(3) Functional megaspore
(4) Funiculus
Explanation: One of the four megaspores produced by meiosis of megaspore mother cell remains functional and is haploid, developing into embryo sac. Correct answer: (3) Functional megaspore, important NEET UG embryology topic.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ (Clinical-type):
Failure of integument formation may lead to:
(1) Seedless ovule
(2) Malformed seed coat
(3) Incomplete fertilization
(4) Non-viable megaspore
Explanation: Integuments develop into seed coat; their absence or malformation results in incomplete protection of embryo, causing defective or malformed seeds. Correct answer: (2) Malformed seed coat, clinically relevant NEET UG point.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Chalaza is the region where:
(1) Funiculus attaches
(2) Micropyle is present
(3) Embryo sac forms
(4) Nucellus degenerates
Explanation: Chalaza is the basal region of ovule opposite to micropyle where nucellus and integuments meet, and funiculus attaches. Correct answer: (1) Funiculus attaches, essential NEET UG embryology knowledge.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Ovule is equivalent to megasporangium.
Reason (R): Ovule contains megaspore mother cell inside nucellus, surrounded by integuments.
(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A
(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Explanation: Ovule is equivalent to megasporangium because nucellus houses the megaspore mother cell. Integuments surround it, but the core functional unit is the megasporangium. Correct answer: (1) Both A and R are true and R explains A.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match ovule parts with function:
A. Nucellus
B. Integuments
C. Funiculus
D. Micropyle
1. Seed coat formation
2. Attachment to ovary
3. Nutrient tissue for embryo sac
4. Entry for pollen tube
Options:
(1) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(4) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
Explanation: Nucellus provides nutrients to embryo sac (A-3), integuments form seed coat (B-1), funiculus attaches ovule to ovary (C-2), and micropyle allows pollen tube entry (D-4). Correct answer: (1) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
The diploid cell inside nucellus that undergoes meiosis is ______.
(1) Megaspore
(2) Megaspore mother cell
(3) Embryo sac
(4) Integument
Explanation: The megaspore mother cell inside nucellus undergoes meiosis to form haploid megaspores, one of which develops into the embryo sac. Correct answer: (2) Megaspore mother cell.
10. Choose the Correct Statements MCQ:
Select correct statements:
(1) Ovule is technically a megasporangium
(2) Funiculus attaches ovule to ovary
(3) Micropyle allows pollen tube entry
(4) Embryo sac develops from integuments
Options:
(1) 1, 2, 3 only
(2) 1, 2, 4 only
(3) All statements are correct
(4) 2, 3, 4 only
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. Embryo sac develops from functional megaspore, not integuments. Funiculus, micropyle, and ovule as megasporangium are accurate NEET UG points. Correct answer: (1) 1, 2, 3 only.
Topic: Pollination
Subtopic: Agents of Pollination in Aquatic Plants
Keyword Definitions:
• Pollination: Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma of a flower for fertilization.
• Water Pollination: Pollination occurring through water currents, rare in angiosperms.
• Insect Pollination: Transfer of pollen via insects; also called entomophily.
• Wind Pollination: Transfer of pollen through air currents; also called anemophily.
• Aquatic Plants: Plants living in or on water surfaces; may show special pollination adaptations.
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 2):
Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of:
(1) Bats
(2) Water
(3) Insects or wind
(4) Birds
Explanation: Water hyacinth and water lily are primarily pollinated by insects, though some may also be wind-pollinated. Water is not the main agent. Bats and birds do not usually visit these aquatic flowers. Correct answer: (3) Insects or wind, essential for NEET UG understanding of pollination mechanisms.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which of the following is entomophilous?
(1) Grass
(2) Sunflower
(3) Rice
(4) Wheat
Explanation: Sunflower is entomophilous, meaning it is pollinated by insects, whereas grass, rice, and wheat are mostly wind-pollinated. Correct answer: (2) Sunflower, important NEET UG pollination topic.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Anemophilous flowers are usually:
(1) Large and colorful
(2) Small and inconspicuous
(3) Fragrant
(4) Nectar-rich
Explanation: Wind-pollinated (anemophilous) flowers are typically small, inconspicuous, and lack nectar or fragrance. Correct answer: (2) Small and inconspicuous, essential NEET UG floral adaptation fact.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Hydrophily refers to pollination by:
(1) Wind
(2) Insects
(3) Water
(4) Birds
Explanation: Hydrophily is pollination via water currents, a rare adaptation in aquatic plants. Correct answer: (3) Water, important NEET UG pollination concept.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which agent primarily pollinates water hyacinth?
(1) Birds
(2) Insects
(3) Wind
(4) Bats
Explanation: Water hyacinth is mainly insect-pollinated. Some incidental wind-pollination occurs but birds and bats are not involved. Correct answer: (2) Insects, critical NEET UG aquatic plant pollination knowledge.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ (Clinical-type):
Allergic pollen causing hay fever is mostly from:
(1) Hydrophilous plants
(2) Entomophilous plants
(3) Anemophilous plants
(4) Ornithophilous plants
Explanation: Hay fever is triggered mainly by wind-pollinated (anemophilous) plants like grasses and trees, because their pollen is airborne. Correct answer: (3) Anemophilous plants, clinically relevant for NEET UG.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Nectar guides in flowers are adaptations for:
(1) Wind pollination
(2) Water pollination
(3) Insect pollination
(4) Self-pollination
Explanation: Nectar guides are visual cues for insects, enhancing pollination efficiency. Correct answer: (3) Insect pollination, important NEET UG floral adaptation topic.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Water lily flowers can be pollinated by insects or wind.
Reason (R): Their bright petals attract insects while light pollen may disperse via wind.
(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A
(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Explanation: Both assertion and reason are correct. Bright petals attract insects, and light pollen can disperse by wind, explaining the dual pollination mechanism. Correct answer: (1) Both A and R are true and R explains A.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match plant with pollination agent:
A. Water hyacinth
B. Grass
C. Hibiscus
D. Coconut
1. Insects
2. Wind
3. Insects
4. Wind
Options:
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(3) A-1, B-1, C-2, D-4
(4) A-2, B-2, C-1, D-3
Explanation: Water hyacinth (A-1) and hibiscus (C-3) are insect-pollinated; grass (B-2) and coconut (D-4) are wind-pollinated. Correct answer: (1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
Bright petals and nectar are adaptations for ______.
(1) Wind pollination
(2) Insect pollination
(3) Water pollination
(4) Self-pollination
Explanation: Bright petals and nectar attract insects, enhancing insect-mediated pollination. Correct answer: (2) Insect pollination, key NEET UG pollination adaptation.
10. Choose the Correct Statements MCQ:
Select correct statements:
(1) Water hyacinth is entomophilous
(2) Water lily may also be wind-pollinated
(3) Hydrophily is common in most angiosperms
(4) Nectar and bright petals attract insects
Options:
(1) 1, 2, 4 only
(2) 1, 3, 4 only
(3) All statements are correct
(4) 2, 3, 4 only
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Hydrophily is rare, not common. Water hyacinth is insect-pollinated, water lily can use insects or wind, and nectar plus bright petals attract insects. Correct answer: (1) 1, 2, 4 only.
Topic: Embryology of Angiosperms
Subtopic: Female Gametophyte and Megasporogenesis
Keyword Definitions:
• Embryo Sac: Female gametophyte of angiosperms containing egg cell, synergids, central cell, and antipodals.
• Filiform Apparatus: Specialized structure in synergids guiding pollen tube entry.
• Antipodal Cells: Cells at the chalazal end of embryo sac, often 3 in number.
• Megaspore Mother Cell: Diploid cell undergoing meiosis to form haploid megaspores.
• Reduction Division: Meiosis that reduces chromosome number by half, essential in gamete formation.
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 2):
In majority of angiosperms:
(1) A small central cell is present in the embryo sac
(2) Egg has a filiform apparatus
(3) There are numerous antipodal cells
(4) Reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells
Explanation: In angiosperms, the megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis (reduction division) producing haploid megaspores. Other statements are incorrect: central cell is large, filiform apparatus is in synergids not egg, and antipodal cells are usually three. Correct answer: (4) Reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells, essential NEET UG concept.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which structure in the embryo sac receives the pollen tube?
(1) Egg cell
(2) Synergid
(3) Central cell
(4) Antipodal cell
Explanation: The synergid contains the filiform apparatus which guides the pollen tube to the egg apparatus. Correct answer: (2) Synergid, critical for NEET UG angiosperm fertilization.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
How many functional megaspores are usually present in angiosperms?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
Explanation: Only one of the four haploid megaspores formed after meiosis remains functional and develops into the embryo sac. Correct answer: (1) One, important NEET UG embryology concept.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which cell of embryo sac fuses with male gamete to form endosperm?
(1) Egg cell
(2) Synergid
(3) Central cell
(4) Antipodal
Explanation: The central cell containing two polar nuclei fuses with a male gamete to form triploid endosperm. Correct answer: (3) Central cell, vital for NEET UG double fertilization.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which of the following is generally three in number at chalazal end?
(1) Egg cells
(2) Synergids
(3) Antipodals
(4) Polar nuclei
Explanation: Antipodal cells, located at the chalazal end of the embryo sac, are usually three in number and often degenerate after fertilization. Correct answer: (3) Antipodals, key NEET UG embryology fact.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ (Clinical-type):
Failure of reduction division in megaspore mother cell leads to:
(1) Triploid embryo sac
(2) Polyploid gametes
(3) Normal embryo sac
(4) Apomictic seed
Explanation: Failure of meiosis produces diploid instead of haploid gametes, potentially leading to polyploidy in offspring. Correct answer: (2) Polyploid gametes, relevant NEET UG clinical embryology.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Filiform apparatus is present in:
(1) Egg cell
(2) Synergids
(3) Antipodal cells
(4) Central cell
Explanation: Filiform apparatus is a structure in synergids aiding pollen tube guidance. Correct answer: (2) Synergids, important NEET UG fertilization concept.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Megaspore mother cell undergoes reduction division.
Reason (R): Meiosis produces four haploid megaspores of which one is functional.
(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A
(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Explanation: Both assertion and reason are correct. Meiosis (reduction division) in megaspore mother cell produces four haploid megaspores, with one functional for embryo sac formation. Correct answer: (1) Both A and R are true and R explains A.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match the structure with its function:
A. Egg cell
B. Synergid
C. Central cell
D. Antipodals
1. Fuses with male gamete for zygote
2. Guides pollen tube
3. Fuses with male gamete for endosperm
4. Nutritional support or degenerate
Options:
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(4) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
Explanation: Egg cell forms zygote (A-1), synergid guides pollen tube (B-2), central cell forms endosperm (C-3), antipodals provide nutrition or degenerate (D-4). Correct answer: (1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
The haploid cell that develops into the embryo sac is the ______.
(1) Egg
(2) Functional megaspore
(3) Polar nucleus
(4) Antipodal cell
Explanation: The functional megaspore, resulting from meiosis of megaspore mother cell, develops into the embryo sac containing egg, synergids, polar nuclei, and antipodals. Correct answer: (2) Functional megaspore.
10. Choose the Correct Statements MCQ:
Select correct statements:
(1) Central cell contains two polar nuclei
(2) Egg cell has filiform apparatus
(3) Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis
(4) Antipodals are usually three
Options:
(1) 1, 3, 4 only
(2) 1, 2, 3 only
(3) All statements are correct
(4) 2, 3, 4 only
Explanation: Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct: central cell has two polar nuclei, megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis, and antipodals are usually three. Egg cell does not have filiform apparatus. Correct answer: (1) 1, 3, 4 only.
Chapter: Reproduction in Plants and Fungi
Topic: Sexual Reproduction and Fungal Structures
Subtopic: Gametogenesis, Flower Morphology, and Fungal Hyphae
Keyword Definitions:
• Syncarpous: Condition where multiple carpels of a flower are fused together.
• Pistillate: Unisexual female flower with functional carpels but no stamens.
• Gametogenesis: Formation of male or female gametes through meiosis.
• Dikaryotic: Hyphal stage in higher fungi containing two nuclei per cell.
• Unisexual Flower: Flower containing either male or female reproductive organs, not both.
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 2):
Match column – I with column - II and select the correct option using the codes given below:
Column – I | Column – II
(a) Pistils fused together | (i) Gametogenesis
(b) Formation of gametes | (ii) Pistillate
(c) Hyphae of higher Ascomycetes | (iii) Syncarpous
(d) Unisexual female flower | (iv) Dikaryotic
Codes:
(1) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
(2) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii)
(3) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(4) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(iii)
Explanation: Correct matching: Pistils fused together = syncarpous (a-iii), formation of gametes = gametogenesis (b-i), hyphae of higher Ascomycetes = dikaryotic (c-iv), unisexual female flower = pistillate (d-ii). Correct answer: (1) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii). This highlights floral and fungal reproductive structures, essential for NEET UG.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which floral condition has fused carpels?
(1) Apocarpous
(2) Syncarpous
(3) Unisexual
(4) Bisexual
Explanation: Syncarpous flowers have carpels fused together forming a compound pistil. Apocarpous flowers have free carpels. Correct answer: (2) Syncarpous, essential for NEET UG flower morphology.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
The formation of gametes occurs during:
(1) Fertilization
(2) Gametogenesis
(3) Pollination
(4) Zygote formation
Explanation: Gametogenesis is the process of forming male and female gametes via meiosis. Fertilization fuses gametes; pollination transfers pollen. Correct answer: (2) Gametogenesis, crucial for NEET UG reproductive biology.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Dikaryotic hyphae are found in:
(1) Higher Ascomycetes
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Angiosperms
(4) Gymnosperms
Explanation: Higher Ascomycetes exhibit dikaryotic hyphal stage with two nuclei per cell before karyogamy. Other groups do not show this. Correct answer: (1) Higher Ascomycetes, important for NEET UG mycology.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
A pistillate flower is:
(1) Male only
(2) Female only
(3) Bisexual
(4) Sterile
Explanation: Pistillate flowers are unisexual, containing only functional carpels and lacking stamens. Correct answer: (2) Female only, fundamental for NEET UG flower types.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ (Clinical-type):
Which process in fungi ensures genetic recombination before karyogamy?
(1) Gametogenesis
(2) Dikaryotic stage
(3) Plasmogamy
(4) Fertilization
Explanation: The dikaryotic stage follows plasmogamy in higher fungi, maintaining two nuclei per hyphal cell before nuclear fusion, facilitating genetic diversity. Correct answer: (2) Dikaryotic stage, relevant for NEET UG fungal reproduction.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Unisexual female flowers lack:
(1) Carpels
(2) Stamens
(3) Ovules
(4) Sepals
Explanation: Unisexual female (pistillate) flowers lack stamens but contain carpels with ovules. Correct answer: (2) Stamens, key NEET UG concept in angiosperm reproduction.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Syncarpous condition leads to compound pistils.
Reason (R): Fusion of carpels forms a single pistil with multiple locules.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Explanation: Both assertion and reason are true. Fused carpels (syncarpous) form a compound pistil with multiple locules. Correct answer: (1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match the term with description:
A. Syncarpous
B. Pistillate
C. Dikaryotic
D. Gametogenesis
1. Formation of gametes
2. Fusion of carpels
3. Female unisexual flower
4. Two nuclei per hyphal cell
Options:
(1) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(2) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Explanation: Syncarpous = fusion of carpels (A-2), pistillate = female unisexual flower (B-3), dikaryotic = two nuclei per hyphal cell (C-4), gametogenesis = formation of gametes (D-1). Correct answer: (1) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
Fused carpels forming a compound pistil is called ______.
(1) Apocarpous
(2) Syncarpous
(3) Bisexual
(4) Pistillate
Explanation: Fused carpels forming a single compound pistil is termed syncarpous, whereas apocarpous flowers have free carpels. Correct answer: (2) Syncarpous, key NEET UG flower morphology topic.
10. Choose the Correct Statements MCQ:
Select correct statements:
(1) Dikaryotic hyphae are found in higher fungi
(2) Pistillate flowers contain only carpels
(3) Syncarpous flowers have fused carpels
(4) Gametogenesis forms gametes
Options:
(1) 1, 2, 3 only
(2) 1, 3, 4 only
(3) All statements are correct
(4) 2, 3, 4 only
Explanation: All statements are correct: dikaryotic hyphae exist in higher fungi, pistillate flowers are female only, syncarpous flowers have fused carpels, and gametogenesis forms gametes. Correct answer: (3) All statements are correct.
Topic: Sexual and Asexual Reproduction
Subtopic: Genetic Variation and Mechanisms
Keyword Definitions:
• Sexual Reproduction: Fusion of male and female gametes producing genetically variable offspring.
• Nucellar Polyembryony: Formation of multiple embryos from nucellar tissue, producing clones.
• Vegetative Reproduction: Asexual propagation from vegetative parts, producing genetically identical plants.
• Parthenogenesis: Development of an egg into an organism without fertilization.
• Genetic Variation: Differences in DNA sequences among individuals contributing to evolution and adaptation.
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 2):
Which one of the following generates new genetic combination leading to variation?
(1) Nucellar polyembryony
(2) Vegetative reproduction
(3) Parthenogenesis
(4) Sexual reproduction
Explanation: Sexual reproduction involves gamete fusion, meiosis, and recombination, generating new genetic combinations, essential for variation in populations. Asexual methods like nucellar polyembryony, vegetative propagation, and parthenogenesis produce clones or identical offspring. Correct answer: (4) Sexual reproduction, fundamental for NEET UG genetics and reproduction.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which process contributes to genetic variation in offspring?
(1) Crossing over during meiosis
(2) Binary fission
(3) Budding
(4) Vegetative propagation
Explanation: Crossing over during meiosis exchanges genetic material between homologous chromosomes, producing new combinations and variation. Asexual processes produce identical offspring. Correct answer: (1) Crossing over during meiosis, crucial for NEET UG genetics understanding.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Parthenogenesis results in
(1) Genetically identical offspring
(2) New genetic recombination
(3) Variation through gamete fusion
(4) Polyploidy only
Explanation: Parthenogenesis produces offspring from unfertilized eggs, often clones of the mother. No genetic recombination occurs. Correct answer: (1) Genetically identical offspring, important NEET UG reproduction topic.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Nucellar polyembryony is common in
(1) Citrus
(2) Wheat
(3) Maize
(4) Rice
Explanation: In Citrus, nucellar tissue generates multiple embryos alongside the zygotic embryo, producing genetically identical clones. Correct answer: (1) Citrus, relevant for NEET UG asexual reproduction.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which of the following is an asexual reproductive method?
(1) Sexual reproduction
(2) Vegetative propagation
(3) Fertilization
(4) Gamete fusion
Explanation: Vegetative propagation is an asexual method producing clones from vegetative parts without gamete fusion. Correct answer: (2) Vegetative propagation, important NEET UG plant reproduction concept.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ (Clinical-type):
Which method in honeybees leads to male offspring without fertilization?
(1) Sexual reproduction
(2) Parthenogenesis
(3) Vegetative reproduction
(4) Budding
Explanation: Male honeybees (drones) develop from unfertilized eggs via parthenogenesis, producing haploid individuals. Correct answer: (2) Parthenogenesis, vital NEET UG insect reproduction concept.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which process ensures combination of maternal and paternal genes?
(1) Nucellar embryony
(2) Sexual reproduction
(3) Budding
(4) Parthenogenesis
Explanation: Sexual reproduction fuses gametes, combining maternal and paternal alleles, creating genetic diversity in offspring. Correct answer: (2) Sexual reproduction, fundamental for NEET UG genetics.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Sexual reproduction increases variation in populations.
Reason (R): Meiosis and fertilization produce new gene combinations.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Explanation: Both assertion and reason are correct. Meiosis and fertilization combine genes from two parents, producing variation in populations. Correct answer: (1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match the reproduction method with genetic outcome:
A. Sexual reproduction
B. Vegetative propagation
C. Nucellar polyembryony
D. Parthenogenesis
1. Produces clones
2. Produces genetic variation
3. Haploid offspring
4. Genetically identical embryos
Options:
(1) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(2) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(3) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(4) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Explanation: Sexual reproduction produces variation, vegetative propagation produces clones, nucellar polyembryony gives identical embryos, parthenogenesis produces haploid offspring. Correct answer: (1) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3, crucial for NEET UG reproduction understanding.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
The reproductive method that generates new genetic combinations is ______.
(1) Parthenogenesis
(2) Sexual reproduction
(3) Vegetative propagation
(4) Nucellar polyembryony
Explanation: Sexual reproduction creates new genetic combinations through gamete fusion and meiosis, essential for variation. Correct answer: (2) Sexual reproduction, core NEET UG concept.
10. Choose the Correct Statements MCQ:
Select correct statements:
(1) Asexual reproduction produces clones
(2) Sexual reproduction leads to variation
(3) Parthenogenesis generates identical offspring
(4) Nucellar polyembryony produces clones
Options:
(1) 1, 2, 3 only
(2) 1, 3, 4 only
(3) 2, 3 only
(4) All statements are correct
Explanation: Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Asexual reproduction, parthenogenesis, and nucellar polyembryony produce clones or identical offspring. Sexual reproduction alone generates variation. Correct answer: (2) 1, 3, 4 only.
Topic: Asexual Reproduction and Aquatic Plants
Subtopic: Vegetative Propagation and Environmental Effects
Keyword Definitions:
• Clone: Group of genetically identical individuals produced by asexual reproduction.
• Zoospore: Motile, asexual spore with flagella found in algae and fungi.
• Internode: Stem region between two nodes where leaves and buds arise.
• Asexual Reproduction: Reproduction without gamete fusion, producing genetically identical offspring.
• Vegetative Propagation: Formation of new plants from vegetative parts like stems, leaves, or roots.
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 2):
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Water hyacinth, growing in the standing water, drains oxygen from water that leads to the death of fishes
(2) Offspring produced by the asexual reproduction are called clone
(3) Microscopic, motile asexual reproductive structures are called zoospores
(4) In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from the internodes present in the modified stem
Explanation: Statement 4 is incorrect. In potato, banana, and ginger, the plantlets arise from nodes, not internodes, of modified stems. Water hyacinth reduces oxygen causing fish death, asexual reproduction produces clones, and zoospores are motile asexual structures. Correct answer: (4) In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from the internodes.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which part of potato tuber gives rise to new plants?
(1) Node
(2) Internode
(3) Root tip
(4) Leaf base
Explanation: New potato plants arise from buds located at nodes of the tuber called eyes. Internodes do not directly give rise to new plants. Correct answer: (1) Node, crucial for NEET UG asexual reproduction concepts.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Zoospores are produced by
(1) Sexual reproduction
(2) Asexual reproduction
(3) Vegetative propagation
(4) Grafting
Explanation: Zoospores are motile, flagellated spores formed asexually in algae and fungi. They do not involve sexual fusion. Correct answer: (2) Asexual reproduction, important for NEET UG plant reproduction questions.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Clones are produced by
(1) Sexual reproduction
(2) Asexual reproduction
(3) Cross-pollination
(4) Fertilization
Explanation: Asexual reproduction produces genetically identical offspring called clones. Sexual reproduction generates genetic variability. Correct answer: (2) Asexual reproduction, essential NEET UG concept for reproduction.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Water hyacinth negatively affects aquatic life by
(1) Releasing toxins
(2) Draining oxygen from water
(3) Blocking sunlight only
(4) Consuming fish food
Explanation: Dense growth of water hyacinth reduces dissolved oxygen in water, causing hypoxia and fish death. Other effects are secondary. Correct answer: (2) Draining oxygen from water, relevant for NEET UG environmental plant biology.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ (Clinical-type):
Which vegetative propagation method is used in ginger?
(1) Rhizome
(2) Bulb
(3) Tuber
(4) Runner
Explanation: Ginger propagates vegetatively via rhizomes, which are horizontal underground stems producing new shoots and roots. Correct answer: (1) Rhizome, essential for NEET UG asexual reproduction studies.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Banana plantlets develop from
(1) Nodes of rhizome
(2) Nodes of corm
(3) Nodes of stem
(4) Leaf lamina
Explanation: Banana plantlets arise from nodes of underground stem (corm). Growth is vegetative and clonal. Correct answer: (3) Nodes of stem, fundamental for NEET UG vegetative propagation.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Asexual reproduction produces genetically identical plants.
Reason (R): No fusion of gametes occurs in asexual reproduction.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Explanation: Both assertion and reason are correct. Asexual reproduction produces clones because gametes do not fuse, resulting in identical genetic makeup. Correct answer: (1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match plant with its vegetative propagation method:
A. Potato
B. Ginger
C. Banana
D. Onion
1. Bulb
2. Rhizome
3. Node of stem
4. Tuber
Options:
(1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(2) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Explanation: Potato propagates via tuber, ginger via rhizome, banana via stem nodes, and onion via bulb. Correct answer: (1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1, essential for NEET UG vegetative propagation.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
Offspring produced by asexual reproduction are called ______.
(1) Gametes
(2) Clone
(3) Zygote
(4) Seed
Explanation: Asexual reproduction generates genetically identical offspring called clones, without gamete fusion. Correct answer: (2) Clone, fundamental NEET UG reproduction topic.
10. Choose the Correct Statements MCQ:
Select correct statements:
(1) Zoospores are motile asexual spores
(2) Clones arise from sexual reproduction
(3) Vegetative propagation occurs via modified stems
(4) Water hyacinth reduces oxygen in water
Options:
(1) 1, 3, 4 only
(2) 1 and 2 only
(3) 2, 3, 4 only
(4) All statements are correct
Explanation: Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Zoospores are motile asexual spores; vegetative propagation occurs via modified stems; water hyacinth reduces oxygen. Clones are produced asexually, not sexually. Correct answer: (1) 1, 3, 4 only.
Topic: Types of Placentation
Subtopic: Free-central Placentation
Keyword Definitions:
• Placentation: Arrangement of ovules within the ovary of a flower.
• Free-central Placentation: Ovules attached to a central column without septa dividing the ovary.
• Citrus: Genus of flowering trees producing citrus fruits.
• Dianthus: Genus of flowering plants including carnations.
• Argemone: Genus of flowering plants known as prickly poppies.
• Brassica: Genus of plants in the mustard family, including cabbage and mustard.
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 2):
Free-central placentation is found in
(1) Citrus
(2) Dianthus
(3) Argemone
(4) Brassica
Explanation: Free-central placentation is typically observed in Dianthus, where ovules are attached to a central column without septa in the ovary. This type of arrangement is distinct from others like marginal or axile placentation. The correct answer is (2) Dianthus, as it exhibits free-central placentation commonly studied in botany.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which type of placentation is characteristic of Argemone?
(1) Marginal
(2) Axile
(3) Free-central
(4) Parietal
Explanation: Argemone exhibits parietal placentation, where ovules are attached to the inner wall of the ovary. Unlike free-central or axile placentation, parietal placentation lacks a central column, and ovules are positioned along the periphery. Thus, the correct answer is (4) Parietal, important for classifying plant families in botanical studies.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which of the following plants shows axile placentation?
(1) Solanum
(2) Dianthus
(3) Argemone
(4) Brassica
Explanation: Axile placentation is seen in Brassica, where ovules are attached to a central axis within a multilocular ovary. This structure contrasts with free-central or parietal types. Therefore, the correct answer is (4) Brassica, commonly referenced in plant reproductive system studies and botany curricula.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Citrus plants exhibit which type of placentation?
(1) Marginal
(2) Axile
(3) Parietal
(4) Free-central
Explanation: Citrus plants typically display axile placentation, characterized by ovules attached to a central axis in a multilocular ovary. This placentation type supports better nutrient distribution to ovules. Hence, the correct answer is (2) Axile, significant in understanding plant reproductive morphology in botany.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which placentation type is seen in Dianthus?
(1) Marginal
(2) Free-central
(3) Parietal
(4) Axile
Explanation: Dianthus displays free-central placentation where ovules attach to a central column without septa. This distinct arrangement differentiates it from parietal and axile types. The correct answer is (2) Free-central, a vital concept in plant reproductive biology essential for NEET UG level preparation.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ (Clinical-type):
Why is understanding placentation important in clinical botany?
(1) It helps in identifying plant toxins.
(2) It determines fruit development patterns.
(3) It aids in recognizing allergenic plants.
(4) It helps in medicinal plant identification.
Explanation: Understanding placentation helps in medicinal plant identification by providing morphological features critical for classification and correct identification. This knowledge is crucial for avoiding misidentification of toxic plants used in traditional medicine. The correct answer is (4) It helps in medicinal plant identification, relevant for pharmacognosy and clinical botany.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which characteristic is true of free-central placentation?
(1) Ovules attached to ovary wall
(2) Ovules attached to a central column without septa
(3) Ovules arranged in separate locules
(4) Ovules attached to the base of the ovary
Explanation: Free-central placentation features ovules attached to a central column without septa, differing from marginal or axile types. This morphological trait is important in plant systematics and identification. The correct answer is (2) Ovules attached to a central column without septa, frequently examined in botany exams.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Dianthus exhibits free-central placentation.
Reason (R): Ovules are attached to a central column without septa.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Explanation: The assertion is correct, and the reason is also correct and directly explains the assertion. In Dianthus, free-central placentation occurs where ovules attach to a central column without septa. Thus, the correct answer is (1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match the plant with its type of placentation:
A. Argemone
B. Brassica
C. Citrus
D. Dianthus
1. Axile
2. Parietal
3. Free-central
4. Axile
Options:
(1) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(2) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(3) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(4) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Explanation: Correct matching is A-2 (Argemone-Parietal), B-1 (Brassica-Axile), C-4 (Citrus-Axile), D-3 (Dianthus-Free-central). Understanding these associations is key for NEET UG exam preparation as they help in plant classification. Thus, the correct answer is (1) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
In free-central placentation, ovules are attached to a ______ column without septa.
(1) lateral
(2) central
(3) basal
(4) peripheral
Explanation: In free-central placentation, ovules are attached to a central column without septa. This distinct structural feature differentiates it from other types of placentation like parietal or axile. The correct answer is (2) central, essential for understanding plant reproductive anatomy in NEET UG studies.
10. Choose the Correct Statements MCQ:
Select the correct statements regarding free-central placentation:
(1) Ovules are attached to a central column
(2) Septa are present
(3) Found in Dianthus
(4) Common in Citrus
Options:
(1) 1 and 3 only
(2) 2 and 4 only
(3) 1, 2, and 3
(4) 3 and 4 only
Explanation: Free-central placentation features ovules attached to a central column without septa and is found in Dianthus. Citrus exhibits axile placentation. Thus, the correct answer is (1) 1 and 3 only, fundamental for NEET UG botany section preparation.
Subtopic: Floral Symmetry
Keyword Definitions:
• Radial Symmetry: Symmetry where flower parts are arranged around a central axis, allowing multiple planes of symmetry.
• Cassia: Genus of flowering plants in Fabaceae family, used for medicinal and ornamental purposes.
• Brassica: Genus of plants including mustard, cabbage, and cauliflower, important in agriculture.
• Trifolium: Genus of clover plants, important for nitrogen fixation.
• Pisum: Genus of legumes including pea plants, important in food and agriculture.
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 2):
Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of
(1) Cassia
(2) Brassica
(3) Trifolium
(4) Pisum
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Brassica. Brassica flowers exhibit radial symmetry, where floral parts are arranged evenly around the center, allowing any plane passing through the axis to divide the flower into equal halves. This is typical of many angiosperms, promoting accessibility to various pollinators.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
What type of symmetry does a typical pea (Pisum) flower exhibit?
(1) Radial symmetry
(2) Bilateral symmetry
(3) Asymmetry
(4) Spiral symmetry
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Bilateral symmetry. Pisum flowers display bilateral symmetry, having a single plane that divides the flower into two mirror-image halves, aiding specialized pollination mechanisms.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which feature is characteristic of radially symmetrical flowers?
(1) Specialized pollinators
(2) Multiple planes of symmetry
(3) Irregular shape
(4) Only one plane of symmetry
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Multiple planes of symmetry. Radial symmetry allows flowers like Brassica to be accessible from any direction, favoring generalized pollination.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which of these plants commonly shows bilateral symmetry in flowers?
(1) Brassica
(2) Cassia
(3) Trifolium
(4) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Cassia. Cassia flowers are bilaterally symmetrical, adapted to specialized pollinators by presenting a defined landing platform and directing pollen transfer efficiently.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Radial symmetry in flowers helps in
(1) Specialized pollination
(2) Wind dispersal
(3) Attracting various pollinators
(4) Seed development
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) Attracting various pollinators. Radially symmetrical flowers, such as Brassica, are accessible from multiple directions, allowing a wide range of pollinators to visit and aid reproduction.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ (Clinical Type):
Why is understanding flower symmetry important in agriculture?
(1) It helps in disease diagnosis
(2) Guides breeding for effective pollination
(3) Improves herbicide resistance
(4) Determines soil type
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Guides breeding for effective pollination. Knowledge of flower symmetry helps in selecting compatible plants and optimizing pollination, boosting yield in crops like Brassica.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which plant family typically exhibits radial symmetry in flowers?
(1) Fabaceae
(2) Brassicaceae
(3) Poaceae
(4) Asteraceae
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Brassicaceae. Plants like Brassica from the Brassicaceae family commonly display radial symmetry, aiding pollinator access and reproduction.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Radial symmetry allows flowers to be accessed by a wide variety of pollinators.
Reason (R): Multiple planes of symmetry facilitate pollinator visits from any direction.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. Radial symmetry permits equal access for different pollinators, enhancing reproductive success.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match the plant to its flower symmetry:
A. Brassica
B. Cassia
C. Trifolium
D. Pisum
1. Radial symmetry
2. Bilateral symmetry
(1) A-1, B-2, C-2, D-2
(2) A-2, B-1, C-1, D-2
(3) A-1, B-1, C-2, D-1
(4) A-2, B-2, C-1, D-1
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) A-1, B-2, C-2, D-2. Brassica has radial symmetry; Cassia, Trifolium, and Pisum show bilateral symmetry.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
Brassica flowers are characterized by ______ symmetry.
(1) Bilateral
(2) Asymmetrical
(3) Radial
(4) Spiral
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) Radial. Radial symmetry allows equal accessibility from multiple directions, aiding pollination by various agents.
10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
Select correct statements regarding flower symmetry:
(1) Radial symmetry promotes cross-pollination.
(2) Bilateral symmetry restricts pollinator type.
(3) All Fabaceae plants show radial symmetry.
(4) Brassica flowers are radially symmetrical.
(1) 1, 2, and 4 only
(2) 1 and 3 only
(3) 2 and 3 only
(4) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) 1, 2, and 4 only. Radial symmetry aids diverse pollination; bilateral restricts pollinators. Fabaceae like Pisum and Cassia are bilaterally symmetrical; Brassica is radially symmetrical.
Subtopic: Floral Structures and Adaptations
Keyword Definitions:
• Stamens: Male reproductive parts of a flower, consisting of anther and filament.
• Indigofera: A genus of flowering plants known for nitrogen fixation and dye production.
• Sesbania: A genus of leguminous plants, often used as green manure.
• Salvia: A genus of plants in the mint family, known for aromatic properties.
• Allium: Genus including onions, garlic; characterized by bulbous plants.
• Aloe: A genus of succulent plants used for medicinal purposes.
• Mustard: Plants known for producing seeds rich in oil and spice.
• Groundnut: Also called peanut, a legume with underground seed development.
• Radish: Root vegetable with pungent taste, used in salads.
• Gram: Cicer arietinum, a leguminous crop used as a pulse.
• Turnip: Root vegetable cultivated for edible tuber.
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 2):
How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, Mustard, Groundnut, Radish, Gram, and Turnip have stamens with different lengths in their flowers?
(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) Six. Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Mustard, and Gram exhibit stamens of unequal lengths, aiding in cross-pollination by promoting efficient pollen transfer and reducing self-pollination, a key evolutionary trait in many angiosperms for genetic diversity.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
What is the primary function of stamens in a flower?
(1) Protect ovules
(2) Produce pollen
(3) Attract pollinators
(4) Store nutrients
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Produce pollen. Stamens consist of filament and anther where pollen, containing male gametes, is produced. Pollen is essential for sexual reproduction in plants.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which plant is known for its unequal length stamens?
(1) Aloe
(2) Salvia
(3) Turnip
(4) Radish
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Salvia. Salvia exhibits unequal stamens which facilitate precise pollen placement on pollinators, enhancing cross-pollination and reducing self-pollination.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Why do some plants have stamens of unequal length?
(1) Reduce attraction of pollinators
(2) Promote self-pollination
(3) Facilitate cross-pollination
(4) Enhance photosynthesis
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) Facilitate cross-pollination. Unequal stamen lengths ensure pollen from anther contacts pollinators at specific positions, improving cross-pollination efficiency and genetic diversity.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which of these plants typically have equal length stamens?
(1) Indigofera
(2) Mustard
(3) Aloe
(4) Sesbania
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) Aloe. Aloe’s flowers generally possess stamens of equal length, suited to their specific pollination mechanisms involving insects.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ (Clinical Type):
How does understanding floral stamen variation assist in agriculture?
(1) Ensures uniform seed production
(2) Helps develop pest-resistant crops
(3) Guides breeding for cross-pollination traits
(4) Increases water absorption
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) Guides breeding for cross-pollination traits. Knowledge of stamen morphology assists in selecting plants for hybridization programs, improving yield and genetic diversity in crops.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which plant is a leguminous crop with unequal stamens?
(1) Gram
(2) Allium
(3) Aloe
(4) Turnip
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) Gram. Gram (Cicer arietinum) shows stamens of unequal lengths, promoting cross-pollination and enhancing reproductive success.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Unequal stamen length promotes genetic diversity.
Reason (R): It facilitates cross-pollination and reduces self-pollination.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A. Different stamen lengths help avoid self-pollination, promoting cross-pollination and genetic variation.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match the plant to its stamen characteristic:
A. Salvia
B. Mustard
C. Aloe
D. Indigofera
1. Unequal stamens
2. Equal stamens
(1) A-1, B-1, C-2, D-1
(2) A-2, B-1, C-1, D-1
(3) A-1, B-2, C-2, D-1
(4) A-1, B-1, C-1, D-2
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) A-1, B-1, C-2, D-1. Salvia, Mustard, and Indigofera show unequal stamens, whereas Aloe has equal stamens.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
The term ‘polyadelphous’ refers to stamens united by their ______.
(1) Anthers
(2) Filaments
(3) Ovules
(4) Petals
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Filaments. Polyadelphous condition indicates stamens united by their filaments into multiple bundles, aiding in structural support and effective pollen transfer.
10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
Select correct statements regarding plant reproductive structures:
(1) Stamens produce pollen.
(2) Gynoecium contains anthers.
(3) Polyadelphous condition involves multiple stamen bundles.
(4) Unequal stamen lengths aid cross-pollination.
(1) 1, 3, and 4 only
(2) 2 and 3 only
(3) 1 and 2 only
(4) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) 1, 3, and 4 only. Stamens produce pollen, polyadelphous refers to multiple bundles, and unequal stamen lengths promote cross-pollination. Gynoecium contains carpels, not anthers.
Subtopic: Flower Structure and Types
Keyword Definitions:
• Polyadelphous: Condition where stamens are united by their filaments into multiple bundles.
• Calyx: The outermost whorl of a flower, composed of sepals.
• Gynoecium: The female reproductive part of a flower, consisting of one or more carpels.
• Androecium: The male reproductive part of a flower, made up of stamens.
• Corolla: The second whorl of the flower, formed by petals.
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 2):
The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to
(1) Calyx
(2) Gynoecium
(3) Androecium
(4) Corolla
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) Androecium. Polyadelphous refers to the condition where stamens (male parts) are united by their filaments into several groups or bundles. This is a common trait in some plant families, aiding in structural support and efficient pollen dispersal.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
What is the function of the androecium in a flower?
(1) Protect ovules
(2) Produce pollen
(3) Attract pollinators
(4) Support petals
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Produce pollen. The androecium consists of stamens, each having a filament and anther where pollen is produced. Pollen contains male gametes necessary for fertilization.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which floral part collectively forms the male reproductive structure?
(1) Gynoecium
(2) Androecium
(3) Calyx
(4) Corolla
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Androecium. The androecium is composed of stamens that produce pollen, thus constituting the male reproductive part of a flower.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Polyadelphous condition is commonly observed in which family?
(1) Fabaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Poaceae
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) Fabaceae. In Fabaceae (legume family), stamens are often polyadelphous, with their filaments united into several bundles, promoting efficient pollen transfer during pollination.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which plant part is composed of sepals?
(1) Corolla
(2) Calyx
(3) Androecium
(4) Gynoecium
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Calyx. The calyx is the outermost floral whorl, made up of sepals that protect the developing flower bud.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ (Clinical Type):
Polyadelphous stamens in a plant are advantageous because they:
(1) Prevent insect pollination
(2) Facilitate wind dispersal of pollen
(3) Provide structural strength and effective pollen transfer
(4) Inhibit self-pollination
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) Provide structural strength and effective pollen transfer. Polyadelphous stamens, grouped into bundles, ensure stability and efficient delivery of pollen to pollinators, enhancing reproductive success.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which term describes united stamens into a single bundle?
(1) Polyadelphous
(2) Monadelphous
(3) Diadelphous
(4) Syngenesious
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Monadelphous. In monadelphous condition, all stamens are united by their filaments into a single bundle, differing from polyadelphous where they form multiple bundles.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Polyadelphous condition is observed in flowers of family Fabaceae.
Reason (R): Stamens are united into several bundles to improve pollination efficiency.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A. In Fabaceae, polyadelphous stamens promote stability and efficient pollen delivery by grouping filaments into multiple bundles.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match the floral term to its description:
A. Calyx
B. Gynoecium
C. Androecium
D. Corolla
1. Male reproductive part
2. Female reproductive part
3. Petal whorl
4. Sepal whorl
(1) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(2) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(3) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(4) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3. Calyx is sepals, Gynoecium is female reproductive organ, Androecium is male reproductive organ, and Corolla is petal whorl.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
Polyadelphous condition refers to stamens united by their ______.
(1) Anthers
(2) Filaments
(3) Ovules
(4) Sepals
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Filaments. In the polyadelphous condition, stamens are united by their filaments into multiple bundles, aiding structural integrity and effective pollen transfer.
10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
Select correct statements about flower structure:
(1) Androecium consists of stamens.
(2) Gynoecium produces pollen.
(3) Polyadelphous condition involves multiple stamen bundles.
(4) Calyx is made of petals.
(1) 1 and 3 only
(2) 2 and 4 only
(3) 1, 3, and 4 only
(4) All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) 1 and 3 only. Androecium consists of stamens and polyadelphous condition refers to multiple stamen bundles. Gynoecium is female part producing ovules, and calyx consists of sepals, not petals.
Chapter: Plant Physiology
Topic: Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Subtopic: Pollination and Fertilization
Keyword Definitions:
Pollen Grain: Male gametophyte of seed plants involved in sexual reproduction.
Stigma: Part of pistil where pollen lands and germinates.
Pollen Tube: A tube that grows from pollen grain through style to ovule for fertilization.
Pistil: Female reproductive organ of a flower, including stigma, style, and ovary.
Pollinators: Organisms that transfer pollen from male to female floral parts aiding fertilization.
Pollen/Nectar Robbers: Insects that consume resources without aiding pollination.
Reptilian Pollination: Pollination involving reptiles as pollinators in rare plant species.
2016 (Phase 1)
Lead Question: Which of the following statements is not correct :
(1) Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style
(2) Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen/nectar robbers.
(3) Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components pollen interacting with those of the pistil.
(4) Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (1). The statement is incorrect because many pollen tubes from different pollen grains can grow into the style, but generally only one successfully fertilizes the ovule. The other pollen tubes degenerate. This ensures genetic diversity while preventing polyspermy in flowering plants.
Single Correct Answer MCQ: The main role of the pollen tube in plant reproduction is to:
(1) Transport sperm cells to ovule
(2) Produce gametes
(3) Generate energy for pollen
(4) Absorb nutrients from the style
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (1). The pollen tube grows from the stigma through the style and carries sperm cells to the ovule for fertilization. This structure is crucial in sexual reproduction, allowing sperm cells to reach and fertilize the egg cell within the ovule.
Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Pollen germination depends on chemical signaling between pollen and pistil.
Reason (R): Specific interactions ensure compatibility and successful fertilization.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Chemical interactions between the pollen and pistil ensure species-specific compatibility, preventing cross-species fertilization. These molecular signals facilitate recognition and successful pollen tube growth, enabling efficient fertilization.
Matching Type MCQ: Match the Term to its Description:
A. Pollinators 1. Organisms aiding pollen transfer
B. Nectar Robbers 2. Consume nectar without pollinating
C. Pollen Tube 3. Structure transporting sperm cells
D. Pollen Grain 4. Male gametophyte of seed plants
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(3) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(4) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Pollinators aid pollen transfer; nectar robbers consume nectar without aiding pollination; pollen tube transports sperm cells to ovule; pollen grain is the male gametophyte essential for sexual reproduction in plants.
Fill in the Blanks / Completion MCQ: The process where specific pollen and pistil chemical interaction occurs is called ________.
(1) Pollination
(2) Fertilization
(3) Compatibility Reaction
(4) Transpiration
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (3). Compatibility reaction involves molecular communication between pollen and pistil determining whether pollen germination and tube growth proceed, ensuring species-specific fertilization and preventing cross-species fertilization.
Choose the correct statements MCQ:
1. Only one pollen tube usually fertilizes the ovule.
2. Pollen/nectar robbers help in cross-pollination.
3. Chemical components regulate pollen germination.
4. Reptiles can act as pollinators in some cases.
(1) 1, 3, and 4 only
(2) 1 and 2 only
(3) 2 and 3 only
(4) 1, 2, and 4 only
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Only one pollen tube successfully fertilizes the ovule while others degenerate. Chemical interactions regulate pollen germination, and reptiles are occasional pollinators. However, nectar robbers do not contribute to pollination and are detrimental to the process.
Topic: Seed Structure and Germination
Subtopic: Monocot Seed Anatomy
Keyword Definitions:
Cotyledon: Part of the seed that stores food and supports seedling growth.
Plumule: Embryonic shoot present in seed that develops into the plant shoot system.
Coleorhiza: Protective sheath covering the radicle in monocot seeds during germination.
Coleoptile: Protective sheath covering the young shoot in monocot seeds during germination.
Scutellum: Specialized cotyledon in monocots like maize, acting as an absorptive organ.
2016 (Phase 1)
Lead Question: Cotyledon of maize grain is called:
(1) Plumule
(2) Coleorhiza
(3) Coleoptile
(4) Scutellum
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (4). In maize, a monocot plant, the single cotyledon is known as the scutellum. It serves as a specialized organ to absorb nutrients from the endosperm and deliver them to the developing embryo, enabling proper germination and seedling growth.
Keyword Definitions:
Endosperm: Tissue providing stored food for the developing embryo in seeds.
Single Correct Answer MCQ: The primary function of the scutellum in maize is to:
(1) Protect the radicle
(2) Absorb nutrients from endosperm
(3) Develop into first leaves
(4) Store water
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (2). The scutellum absorbs nutrients from the endosperm and transfers them to the embryo during germination. This ensures the seedling develops properly before its own photosynthesis begins, which is crucial for establishing healthy plant growth in agricultural settings.
Keyword Definitions:
Embryo: Young plant within a seed destined to develop into a mature plant.
Single Correct Answer MCQ (Clinical Type): Deficiency of nutrients absorbed by the scutellum may result in:
(1) Normal seedling growth
(2) Delayed or impaired germination
(3) Enhanced photosynthesis
(4) Increased disease resistance
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (2). A scutellum that fails to efficiently absorb nutrients leads to poor seedling vigor or complete failure to germinate. This is critical in agriculture, as unhealthy seedlings reduce crop yield and affect food production, necessitating proper seed treatment practices.
Keyword Definitions:
Seedling: Young plant developed from a seed post germination.
Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which structure protects the plumule in monocot seeds?
(1) Coleorhiza
(2) Scutellum
(3) Coleoptile
(4) Endosperm
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (3). The coleoptile is a specialized sheath that protects the plumule during germination. It allows the young shoot to safely pass through the soil, preventing mechanical damage and ensuring proper growth into the plant’s above-ground shoot system.
Keyword Definitions:
Coleoptile: Sheath protecting the emerging shoot in monocot seeds during germination.
Single Correct Answer MCQ: In maize, the number of cotyledons is:
(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) None
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Maize is a monocotyledonous plant, possessing a single cotyledon called the scutellum. This contrasts with dicot plants, which have two cotyledons. The scutellum plays an essential role during germination by absorbing and transferring nutrients from the endosperm to the growing embryo.
Keyword Definitions:
Monocotyledon: Plant class with a single cotyledon in the seed structure.
Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): The scutellum is a specialized cotyledon in monocots.
Reason (R): The scutellum absorbs food from endosperm to nourish the embryo.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (1). The scutellum functions as a specialized cotyledon by absorbing nutrients from the endosperm and delivering them to the embryo during germination. This ensures proper development of the young plant, making the assertion and reason both correct and interdependent.
Keyword Definitions:
Embryo Nourishment: Process supplying essential nutrients for early growth from stored food.
Matching Type MCQ: Match the part with its function:
A. Scutellum 1. Absorbs food from endosperm
B. Coleoptile 2. Protects plumule during germination
C. Coleorhiza 3. Protects radicle during germination
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3
(2) A-2, B-1, C-3
(3) A-3, B-2, C-1
(4) A-1, B-3, C-2
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (1). The scutellum absorbs nutrients from the endosperm, coleoptile protects the plumule, and coleorhiza protects the radicle during germination. These structural adaptations in maize ensure successful early development of the seedling and prevent damage to sensitive tissues.
Keyword Definitions:
Coleorhiza: Sheath protecting the radicle during germination in monocots.
Fill in the Blanks / Completion MCQ: The scutellum of maize primarily functions to __________.
(1) store water
(2) absorb nutrients from endosperm
(3) protect the embryo
(4) develop into leaves
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (2). The scutellum absorbs nutrients from the endosperm and passes them to the embryo during germination. This transfer is vital for the seedling’s initial growth phase before it becomes photosynthetically active and independently sustains its development.
Keyword Definitions:
Endosperm: Nutrient-rich tissue supplying energy to the growing embryo.
Choose the correct statements MCQ:
1. Scutellum acts as nutrient absorber in maize.
2. Coleoptile protects radicle during germination.
3. Maize is a monocotyledonous plant.
4. Plumule becomes the shoot system.
(1) 1, 3, 4 only
(2) 1 and 2 only
(3) 1, 2, 3 only
(4) All statements are correct
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Scutellum absorbs nutrients; coleoptile protects the plumule (not radicle). Maize is a monocot, and the plumule develops into the shoot system. Understanding these facts is essential in botany and agricultural science for correct seed classification and germination practices.
Chapter: Plant Reproduction
Topic: Microsporogenesis and Pollen Biology
Subtopic: Pollen Structure, Function, and Applications
Keyword Definitions:
Tapetum: Nutritive tissue in the anther providing enzymes and materials for pollen development.
Exine: Outer wall of pollen grains composed of sporopollenin, resistant to degradation.
Sporopollenin: Durable biopolymer forming the exine, providing protection to pollen.
Pollen Allergy: Immune reaction caused by pollen proteins in sensitive individuals.
Cryopreservation: Storage of biological material at very low temperatures for future use.
2016 (Phase 1)
Lead Question: Which one of the following statements is not true:
(1) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
(2) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
(3) Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
(4) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in crop breeding programmes
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Tapetum does not directly help in anther dehiscence; its main role is to provide nutrition and materials for pollen development. Exine is composed of sporopollenin, pollen can cause allergies, and cryopreserved pollen is useful in crop breeding, making option (1) incorrect.
Keyword Definitions:
Anther: Male reproductive organ producing pollen in flowering plants.
Pollen Grain: Male gametophyte that fertilizes ovules in plants.
2020
Single Correct Answer MCQ: What is the primary function of the tapetum?
(1) Anther dehiscence
(2) Pollen nourishment
(3) Fertilization of ovule
(4) Pollen dispersal
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Tapetum provides nutrients, enzymes, and materials like sporopollenin precursors for proper development of pollen grains. It is essential for microspore maturation but does not directly aid in anther dehiscence or pollen dispersal.
Keyword Definitions:
Pollen Wall: Multi-layered structure with exine and intine protecting male gametophytes.
2019
Single Correct Answer MCQ: Exine of pollen is resistant because it contains:
(1) Cellulose
(2) Sporopollenin
(3) Lignin
(4) Pectin
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Exine is made of sporopollenin, a highly durable and chemically inert biopolymer. This provides mechanical strength and protection against UV radiation, desiccation, and microbial attack, allowing pollen grains to survive adverse environmental conditions.
Keyword Definitions:
Allergenic Pollen: Pollen proteins that trigger immune responses in humans.
2018
Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which of the following causes seasonal allergies?
(1) Tapetum
(2) Sporopollenin
(3) Pollen grains
(4) Anther wall
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (3). Pollen grains of many plant species contain proteins that act as allergens, triggering immune reactions in sensitive individuals, causing symptoms like sneezing, watery eyes, and asthma. Tapetum and sporopollenin are not allergenic, serving structural and nutritive roles.
Keyword Definitions:
Cryopreservation: Storage of gametes or pollen at very low temperatures for future use in breeding.
2021
Single Correct Answer MCQ (Clinical Type): Why is stored pollen useful in crop breeding programs?
(1) To increase allergenicity
(2) To facilitate controlled cross-pollination
(3) To promote tapetum activity
(4) To replace ovules
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Cryopreserved pollen can be stored long-term in liquid nitrogen and used for controlled cross-pollination in breeding programs. This ensures genetic diversity and hybrid development, without relying on synchronous flowering times.
Keyword Definitions:
Microspore: Haploid cell that develops into a male gametophyte (pollen grain).
2017
Single Correct Answer MCQ: Microspores develop into:
(1) Tapetum cells
(2) Pollen grains
(3) Ovules
(4) Sepals
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Microspores are haploid cells formed in the anther by meiosis of pollen mother cells. They undergo mitotic divisions and differentiate into male gametophytes (pollen grains), essential for sexual reproduction in flowering plants.
Keyword Definitions:
Anther Dehiscence: Release of pollen from anthers for fertilization.
2016
Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which structure releases pollen during anther dehiscence?
(1) Tapetum
(2) Epidermis
(3) Anther wall
(4) Pollen tube
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (3). The anther wall undergoes mechanical and enzymatic changes to open and release mature pollen grains. Tapetum degenerates to provide nutrients but does not directly aid in dehiscence.
Keyword Definitions:
Pollen Tube: Structure growing from pollen grain to ovule for sperm delivery.
2015
Single Correct Answer MCQ: The pollen tube is essential for:
(1) Nutrient supply to tapetum
(2) Sperm delivery to ovule
(3) Pollen grain formation
(4) Anther dehiscence
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (2). The pollen tube grows from a germinating pollen grain through the style to reach the ovule, delivering male gametes for fertilization. It enables sexual reproduction without requiring direct contact between pollen and ovule.
Keyword Definitions:
Exine Layer: Protective outer layer of pollen composed of sporopollenin.
2019
Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Exine is chemically resistant and protects pollen grains.
Reason (R): It is composed of sporopollenin, a durable biopolymer.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (1). The exine's sporopollenin composition makes it resistant to UV radiation, enzymes, and desiccation, protecting pollen grains during transport and ensuring reproductive success. This chemical durability is key for survival in adverse environments.
Keyword Definitions:
Allergenicity: The potential of pollen proteins to cause allergic reactions.
2018
Fill in the Blanks MCQ: Pollen grains causing allergies contain __________.
(1) Sporopollenin
(2) Proteins
(3) Lipids
(4) DNA
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Pollen allergens are mainly proteins present in pollen cytoplasm, triggering immune responses in sensitive individuals. Sporopollenin forms the exine and is inert, while lipids and DNA are not primary allergenic components.
Keyword Definitions:
Crop Breeding: Controlled reproduction in plants to select desirable traits.
2021
Choose the correct statements MCQ:
1. Tapetum supports pollen development but not dehiscence.
2. Exine is made of sporopollenin.
3. Stored pollen can be used in breeding programs.
4. Pollen grains are harmless to humans.
(1) 1, 2, 3 only
(2) 2 and 4 only
(3) 1 and 4 only
(4) All statements are correct
Answer & Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Tapetum nourishes pollen, exine is sporopollenin, and cryopreserved pollen aids breeding programs. Pollen grains, however, can trigger allergies in humans, making statement 4 incorrect.
Keywords:
Stamen: Male reproductive organ of a flower, consisting of filament and anther.
Filament: Stalk of stamen supporting the anther.
Anther: Pollen-producing part of stamen, contains microsporangia.
Connective: Tissue connecting two lobes of an anther.
Placenta: Part of ovary where ovules are attached.
Thalamus: Receptacle of flower where floral organs attach.
Attachment: Point where filament joins anther or other floral structure.
Microsporangia: Pollen sacs in anther producing microspores.
Pollination: Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma.
Bisporangiate: Anther with two lobes, each containing microsporangia.
Floral morphology: Study of form and structure of flowers.
Chapter: Angiosperm Morphology
Topic: Flower Structure
Subtopic: Stamen Morphology
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 1): Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the:
(1) Anther
(2) Connective
(3) Placenta
(4) Thalamus or petal
Answer: 4
Explanation: The proximal end of the stamen filament is attached to the thalamus (receptacle) or petal. The filament supports the anther, which is the pollen-producing structure. The connective is part of the anther, while the placenta is part of the ovary, not associated with filament attachment.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which part of stamen produces pollen?
(A) Filament
(B) Anther
(C) Connective
(D) Thalamus
Answer: B
Explanation: The anther is the pollen-producing part of the stamen, containing microsporangia where microspores develop into pollen grains, essential for sexual reproduction in angiosperms.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Connective tissue in an anther connects:
(A) Filament to thalamus
(B) Two lobes of anther
(C) Ovary to ovule
(D) Stigma to style
Answer: B
Explanation: The connective is a sterile tissue that joins the two pollen-bearing lobes of an anther, helping maintain structural integrity of the stamen.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Filament of stamen is generally:
(A) Photosynthetic
(B) Non-photosynthetic stalk
(C) Part of ovary
(D) Nectar-producing
Answer: B
Explanation: The filament is a slender, non-photosynthetic stalk that supports the anther at an optimal position for pollen dispersal and effective pollination.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ: The anther contains:
(A) Ovules
(B) Microsporangia
(C) Pollen tubes
(D) Style
Answer: B
Explanation: Anthers contain microsporangia, which produce microspores. These microspores develop into pollen grains, the male gametophytes, essential for fertilization in flowering plants.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which floral part filament is attached to?
(A) Ovary
(B) Thalamus
(C) Style
(D) Stigma
Answer: B
Explanation: The filament’s proximal end is attached to the thalamus or petal base, positioning the anther for optimal pollen release. It is not attached to ovary, style, or stigma.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ: In bisporangiate anther, number of pollen sacs is:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6
Answer: C
Explanation: A bisporangiate anther has two lobes, each containing two microsporangia, making a total of four pollen sacs where pollen grains develop.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Filament supports the anther for effective pollination.
Reason (R): Filament is photosynthetic and produces pollen.
(A) Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, R is NOT correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, R is false
(D) A is false, R is true
Answer: C
Explanation: Filament supports the anther, but it is non-photosynthetic and does not produce pollen. The anther is responsible for pollen production.
8. Matching Type MCQ: Match floral part with function:
1. Filament A. Pollen production
2. Anther B. Supports anther
3. Connective C. Connects anther lobes
4. Thalamus D. Base of flower
(A) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
(B) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
(C) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
(D) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
Answer: A
Explanation: Filament supports the anther, anther produces pollen, connective joins lobes of anther, and thalamus is the floral base where organs are attached.
9. Fill in the Blanks: The ________ is the pollen-producing part, and the ________ is the stalk supporting it.
(A) Filament; Anther
(B) Anther; Filament
(C) Connective; Thalamus
(D) Ovary; Style
Answer: B
Explanation: Anther is the pollen-producing part of the stamen. Filament is the slender stalk supporting the anther at an optimal position for pollination.
10. Choose the Correct Statements:
(A) Filament attaches to thalamus or petal
(B) Connective connects ovary to style
(C) Anther contains microsporangia
(D) Filament produces pollen
(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) A, B, C
(4) C and D
Answer: 1
Explanation: Statement A is correct; the filament attaches to thalamus or petal. Statement C is correct; anther contains microsporangia. Statements B and D are incorrect as connective joins anther lobes, and filament does not produce pollen.
Keywords:
Gynoecium: The female reproductive part of a flower consisting of carpels.
Carpel: The basic unit of gynoecium, containing ovary, style, and stigma.
Syncarpous: Gynoecium with two or more carpels fused together.
Tricarpellary: Composed of three carpels.
Liliaceae: Monocot family with flowers often having trimerous symmetry.
Solanaceae: Dicot family including tomato, potato, mostly with syncarpous ovary.
Fabaceae: Legume family with papilionaceous flowers.
Poaceae: Grass family, generally with monocarpellary ovary.
Ovary: Part of carpel containing ovules.
Clinical relevance: Understanding floral structures aids in taxonomy, plant breeding, and pharmacognosy.
Floral morphology: Study of flower structure and arrangement of reproductive parts.
Chapter: Angiosperm Morphology
Topic: Gynoecium Structure
Subtopic: Syncarpous and Apocarpous Flowers
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 1): Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of:
(1) Liliaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Fabaceae
(4) Poaceae
Answer: 2
Explanation: Solanaceae flowers typically have a tricarpellary, syncarpous ovary, meaning three carpels are fused. Liliaceae are monocots with trimerous flowers, Fabaceae have papilionaceous flowers, and Poaceae are mostly monocarpellary. Syncarpy ensures proper fertilization and development of fruits like tomato and brinjal.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ: The fusion of carpels in a flower is called:
(A) Apocarpy
(B) Syncarpy
(C) Polycarpy
(D) Monocarpy
Answer: B
Explanation: Syncarpy refers to the fusion of two or more carpels in a flower, forming a compound ovary, which is essential for coordinated development of ovules and fruit formation.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ: A monocarpellary ovary is characteristic of which family?
(A) Poaceae
(B) Solanaceae
(C) Fabaceae
(D) Liliaceae
Answer: A
Explanation: Poaceae (grasses) have a single carpel forming the ovary. This simple ovary structure contrasts with tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium found in Solanaceae.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ: The gynoecium of tomato is:
(A) Monocarpellary
(B) Tricarpellary syncarpous
(C) Tricarpellary apocarpous
(D) Bicarpellary syncarpous
Answer: B
Explanation: Tomato belongs to Solanaceae with a tricarpellary, syncarpous ovary, where three carpels fuse to form a single compound ovary enclosing ovules.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Fusion of carpels ensures:
(A) Independent ovule development
(B) Coordinated fertilization and fruit formation
(C) Reduced ovule number
(D) Dispersal of seeds by wind
Answer: B
Explanation: Syncarpy allows carpels to form a single ovary, ensuring coordinated fertilization, proper seed arrangement, and development of a uniform fruit structure.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Number of carpels in a typical Solanaceae flower is:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: C
Explanation: Solanaceae flowers are usually tricarpellary, with three carpels fused into a syncarpous ovary, forming fruit structures like capsules in brinjal or tomato.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Fabaceae flowers have gynoecium type:
(A) Tricarpellary syncarpous
(B) Bicarpellary syncarpous
(C) Monocarpellary
(D) Tricarpellary apocarpous
Answer: C
Explanation: Fabaceae flowers generally have a monocarpellary ovary enclosed within the keel, as in peas and beans, contrasting with tricarpellary, syncarpous ovary of Solanaceae.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Syncarpous ovary ensures proper seed arrangement.
Reason (R): Fusion of carpels forms a single compound ovary with coordinated ovule development.
(A) Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, R is NOT correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, R is false
(D) A is false, R is true
Answer: A
Explanation: The fusion of carpels in a syncarpous ovary ensures uniform ovule arrangement and coordinated fertilization, facilitating the development of a well-formed fruit.
8. Matching Type MCQ: Match families with their gynoecium type:
1. Solanaceae A. Monocarpellary
2. Poaceae B. Tricarpellary syncarpous
3. Fabaceae C. Monocarpellary
4. Liliaceae D. Tricarpellary syncarpous
(A) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
(B) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(C) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
(D) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
Answer: A
Explanation: Solanaceae: tricarpellary syncarpous; Poaceae: monocarpellary; Fabaceae: monocarpellary; Liliaceae: tricarpellary syncarpous. These structural differences help in classification and fruit development studies.
9. Fill in the Blanks: A flower with three fused carpels forming a single ovary has a _______ gynoecium which is _______.
(A) Tricarpellary; Syncarpous
(B) Bicarpellary; Apocarpous
(C) Monocarpellary; Syncarpous
(D) Tricarpellary; Apocarpous
Answer: A
Explanation: Tricarpellary refers to three carpels, and syncarpous indicates that these carpels are fused, forming a single compound ovary as seen in Solanaceae flowers.
10. Passage-based MCQ:
Passage: A botanist observes a flower with three carpels fused into a single ovary. The ovules are arranged in locules within the ovary. Fruits like tomato and brinjal develop from such flowers.
Question: The gynoecium type of this flower is:
(A) Monocarpellary
(B) Tricarpellary syncarpous
(C) Tricarpellary apocarpous
(D) Bicarpellary syncarpous
Answer: B
Explanation: The passage describes a tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium, where three carpels are fused forming a single ovary, as observed in Solanaceae, facilitating coordinated fruit and seed development.
Keywords:
Papilionaceous corolla: A butterfly-shaped flower structure typical of Fabaceae family.
Standard petal: The large, uppermost petal in a papilionaceous flower.
Carina: The two fused lower petals forming a keel in papilionaceous flowers.
Vexillum: Another name for the standard petal in papilionaceous corolla.
Pappus: Modified calyx of Asteraceae aiding in seed dispersal.
Corona: Crown-like structure present in some flowers like Narcissus.
Floral morphology: Study of flower structures and arrangements.
Keel: Structure formed by fusion of lower petals in papilionaceous corolla.
Fabaceae: Legume family of plants showing papilionaceous flowers.
Pollination: Transfer of pollen, often aided by corolla shape.
Clinical relevance: Understanding floral morphology aids in taxonomy and medicinal plant identification.
Chapter: Angiosperm Morphology
Topic: Flower Structure
Subtopic: Papilionaceous Flowers
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 1): The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called :
(1) Carina
(2) Pappus
(3) Vexillum
(4) Corona
Answer: 3
Explanation: In papilionaceous flowers, the large uppermost petal is called the standard or vexillum. The two fused lower petals form the keel (carina). Pappus and corona are unrelated floral structures seen in other plant families, hence Vexillum is correct.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ: The two fused lower petals of a papilionaceous corolla form the:
(A) Standard
(B) Carina
(C) Vexillum
(D) Corona
Answer: B
Explanation: The lower petals fuse to form the keel or carina, which encloses reproductive organs, aiding in efficient pollination in Fabaceae family flowers.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which plant family commonly shows papilionaceous flowers?
(A) Solanaceae
(B) Fabaceae
(C) Asteraceae
(D) Liliaceae
Answer: B
Explanation: Papilionaceous corolla is characteristic of the Fabaceae (legume) family, with butterfly-shaped flowers adapted for insect pollination.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ: In a papilionaceous flower, the lateral petals are called:
(A) Vexillum
(B) Wings
(C) Carina
(D) Pappus
Answer: B
Explanation: Lateral petals are termed wings, which assist in guiding pollinators toward the reproductive organs and protecting the keel.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ: The floral structure aiding in seed dispersal in Asteraceae is called:
(A) Carina
(B) Vexillum
(C) Pappus
(D) Corona
Answer: C
Explanation: Pappus is a modified calyx in Asteraceae family flowers that helps in wind dispersal of seeds, not found in Fabaceae flowers.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which corolla type helps in specialized insect pollination?
(A) Papilionaceous
(B) Regular
(C) Actinomorphic
(D) Sympetalous
Answer: A
Explanation: Papilionaceous flowers have a bilaterally symmetrical corolla with standard, wings, and keel, specialized for pollinator-guided reproduction.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ: The uppermost petal of a Fabaceae flower is called:
(A) Corona
(B) Carina
(C) Vexillum
(D) Pappus
Answer: C
Explanation: Vexillum is the uppermost, large standard petal in papilionaceous corolla, serving as a visual cue for pollinators.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Papilionaceous flowers show bilateral symmetry.
Reason (R): The standard petal, wings, and keel are arranged asymmetrically.
(A) Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, R is NOT correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, R is false
(D) A is false, R is true
Answer: A
Explanation: Papilionaceous corolla is bilaterally symmetrical due to asymmetric arrangement of standard, wings, and keel, ensuring directional pollination by insects.
8. Matching Type MCQ: Match floral parts with their description:
1. Vexillum A. Standard petal
2. Wings B. Lateral petals
3. Carina C. Fused lower petals
4. Pappus D. Seed dispersal structure
(A) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(B) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
(C) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
(D) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
Answer: A
Explanation: The standard petal is Vexillum, lateral petals are wings, fused lower petals form carina, and Pappus is unrelated, aiding seed dispersal in other plant families.
9. Fill in the Blanks: The large uppermost petal of a papilionaceous flower is called _______ and the fused lower petals are called _______.
(A) Vexillum; Carina
(B) Carina; Vexillum
(C) Wings; Pappus
(D) Corona; Keel
Answer: A
Explanation: The uppermost standard petal is Vexillum; the lower fused petals form the keel or carina, enclosing reproductive organs and facilitating pollination.
10. Passage-based MCQ:
Passage: A botanist observes a legume flower. The upper petal is large and showy, lateral petals are small, and two fused lower petals form a protective structure around stamens. This arrangement facilitates insect pollination.
Question: What is the name of the upper petal?
(A) Carina
(B) Pappus
(C) Vexillum
(D) Corona
Answer: C
Explanation: The passage describes papilionaceous floral structure; the large upper petal is the Vexillum (standard petal), lateral petals are wings, and fused lower petals form the keel for effective pollination.