Topic: Endocrine Glands and Hormones; Subtopic: Hormones and Their Secretory Organs
Keyword Definitions:
Progesterone: A steroid hormone secreted by the corpus luteum that maintains pregnancy and supports implantation.
Relaxin: A hormone released by the ovary and placenta to relax pelvic ligaments during childbirth.
Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH): Produced by the pars intermedia of the pituitary gland; controls skin pigmentation.
Catecholamines: Hormones like adrenaline and noradrenaline secreted by the adrenal medulla; responsible for “fight or flight” response.
Corpus Luteum: A temporary endocrine structure in the ovary formed after ovulation that secretes progesterone.
Adrenal Medulla: The inner part of the adrenal gland that produces catecholamines.
Lead Question (September 2025)
Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
A. Progesterone I. Pars intermedia
B. Relaxin II. Ovary
C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone III. Adrenal Medulla
D. Catecholamines IV. Corpus luteum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Explanation:
The correct match is (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III. Progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum, Relaxin is produced by the ovary, MSH by the pars intermedia, and Catecholamines by the adrenal medulla. These hormones regulate reproduction, pigmentation, and stress response. Each hormone acts on specific target tissues and maintains physiological balance.
1. Which hormone is secreted by the adrenal medulla?
(1) Aldosterone
(2) Cortisol
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Insulin
Explanation: The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, collectively called catecholamines. They prepare the body for “fight or flight” by increasing heart rate, blood glucose, and respiration. These hormones rapidly mobilize energy in response to stress, ensuring immediate physiological adaptation to emergency situations.
2. Which hormone is essential for maintaining pregnancy?
(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) LH
(4) FSH
Explanation: Progesterone, secreted by the corpus luteum, prepares the uterus for implantation and maintains the endometrial lining during pregnancy. It suppresses uterine contractions, ensuring a stable environment for embryo development until the placenta takes over hormonal functions in later stages.
3. Assertion-Reason Type:
Assertion (A): Catecholamines increase heart rate and blood pressure.
Reason (R): They stimulate glycogen breakdown in muscles.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Option (2) is correct. Catecholamines increase heart rate and blood pressure by stimulating cardiac output and vasoconstriction. Although they also promote glycogen breakdown, this action primarily supports energy release, not directly explaining the cardiovascular effects, hence R is not the correct explanation.
4. Relaxin hormone is secreted during pregnancy to:
(1) Stimulate uterine contractions
(2) Relax pelvic ligaments
(3) Increase milk secretion
(4) Increase oocyte maturation
Explanation: Relaxin is secreted by the ovary and placenta during pregnancy. It relaxes pelvic ligaments and softens the cervix, facilitating childbirth. This hormone plays a crucial role in preparing the birth canal and ensuring smooth delivery by loosening connective tissues in the pelvis.
5. Fill in the Blank:
________ hormone is secreted by the pars intermedia of the pituitary gland.
(1) MSH
(2) GH
(3) FSH
(4) LH
Explanation: The correct answer is MSH (Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone). It regulates skin pigmentation by increasing melanin production in melanocytes. The pars intermedia of the pituitary gland secretes this hormone, which plays a minor role in humans but a significant role in animals for adaptive coloration.
6. Choose the correct statements:
Statement I: Progesterone is secreted by the ovary after ovulation.
Statement II: Catecholamines act as neurotransmitters and hormones.
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Both statements are wrong
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) Both statements are correct. Progesterone is secreted post-ovulation by the corpus luteum, maintaining the endometrium, while catecholamines (adrenaline and noradrenaline) act as both hormones and neurotransmitters in stress and sympathetic responses.
7. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(1) Oxytocin – Adrenal Medulla
(2) Progesterone – Corpus luteum
(3) Relaxin – Pituitary gland
(4) MSH – Adrenal cortex
Explanation: Option (2) is correct. The corpus luteum secretes progesterone after ovulation to maintain pregnancy. It ensures endometrial stability and prevents premature uterine contractions, vital for the initial stages of embryo implantation and growth within the uterus.
8. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the ovary?
(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) Relaxin
(4) Oxytocin
Explanation: The correct answer is (4) Oxytocin. It is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland, not the ovary. Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions during labor and milk ejection during lactation, playing a vital role in childbirth and maternal bonding.
9. Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH) acts on:
(1) Ovarian follicles
(2) Adrenal medulla
(3) Melanocytes in skin
(4) Thyroid gland
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) Melanocytes in skin. MSH stimulates these pigment cells to produce melanin, responsible for skin color. The hormone helps regulate pigmentation and may also influence appetite and energy balance in higher vertebrates.
10. Which of the following correctly describes catecholamines?
(1) Lipid-soluble hormones
(2) Peptide hormones
(3) Amino acid-derived hormones
(4) Steroid hormones
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) Amino acid-derived hormones. Catecholamines like adrenaline and noradrenaline are derived from the amino acid tyrosine. They are water-soluble hormones stored in vesicles and released rapidly during stress to trigger physiological responses in multiple organ systems.
Topic: Endocrine System; Subtopic: Hypothalamus and Pituitary Hormones
Keyword Definitions:
Hypothalamus: A part of the brain that controls endocrine and autonomic functions and regulates the pituitary gland through releasing and inhibitory hormones.
Pituitary gland: Known as the master gland, it secretes hormones that control other endocrine glands.
ADH (Anti-diuretic hormone): A hormone that regulates water balance by increasing reabsorption in kidney tubules.
Oxytocin: A hormone involved in uterine contraction during childbirth and milk ejection in lactation.
Neurosecretion: The release of hormones from neurons, particularly in the hypothalamus, transported to the posterior pituitary.
Lead Question - 2025
Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?
(1) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
(2) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
(3) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
(4) Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
Explanation: ADH and oxytocin are synthesized by neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus and then transported to the posterior pituitary through axons for release into the bloodstream. Other hormones like LH, FSH, and ACTH are synthesized in the anterior pituitary itself. Thus, ADH is produced in the hypothalamus but released by the pituitary. Answer: (2) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
1. Which part of the pituitary stores and releases hormones synthesized by the hypothalamus?
(1) Anterior pituitary
(2) Intermediate lobe
(3) Posterior pituitary
(4) Pars intermedia
Explanation: The posterior pituitary, also called neurohypophysis, stores and releases hormones such as ADH and oxytocin that are synthesized in the hypothalamus. It acts as a storage site for neurosecretory hormones transported via the hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract. Answer: (3) Posterior pituitary
2. The hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system connects:
(1) Hypothalamus to posterior pituitary
(2) Hypothalamus to anterior pituitary
(3) Anterior to posterior pituitary
(4) Hypothalamus to pineal gland
Explanation: The hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system links the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary, allowing hypothalamic hormones to directly regulate the secretion of anterior pituitary hormones such as LH, FSH, and GH. Answer: (2) Hypothalamus to anterior pituitary
3. Which hormone promotes reabsorption of water in the kidneys?
(1) Oxytocin
(2) ADH
(3) FSH
(4) LH
Explanation: ADH, also known as vasopressin, increases water reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts of nephrons, thereby reducing water loss and maintaining osmotic balance. It is synthesized in the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary. Answer: (2) ADH
4. Oxytocin is responsible for:
(1) Increasing blood glucose
(2) Stimulating uterine contractions
(3) Regulating kidney filtration rate
(4) Inducing milk protein synthesis
Explanation: Oxytocin, synthesized by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary, induces uterine contractions during childbirth and milk ejection from mammary glands during lactation. It functions through a positive feedback mechanism during labor. Answer: (2) Stimulating uterine contractions
5. The anterior pituitary is controlled by the hypothalamus through:
(1) Direct neural stimulation
(2) Blood-borne releasing hormones
(3) Reflex actions
(4) Hormonal feedback from kidneys
Explanation: The hypothalamus regulates the anterior pituitary via releasing and inhibitory hormones transported through the portal blood vessels. These control secretion of anterior pituitary hormones like GH, ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, and prolactin. Answer: (2) Blood-borne releasing hormones
6. Lack of ADH secretion causes:
(1) Diabetes mellitus
(2) Diabetes insipidus
(3) Addison’s disease
(4) Graves’ disease
Explanation: Diabetes insipidus results from ADH deficiency or lack of kidney response to ADH. It causes excessive urine output (polyuria) and thirst (polydipsia) without glucose in urine. The condition reflects hypothalamic or posterior pituitary dysfunction. Answer: (2) Diabetes insipidus
7. Assertion-Reason Type:
Assertion (A): Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary.
Reason (R): It is synthesized by the posterior pituitary neurons.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false
Explanation: Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary but synthesized in the hypothalamic neurons and then transported through axons. Thus, A is true and R is false because synthesis occurs in the hypothalamus, not the posterior pituitary. Answer: (3) A is true, but R is false
8. Matching Type:
Match the following hormones with their functions:
A. ADH — I. Water reabsorption
B. Oxytocin — II. Uterine contraction
C. FSH — III. Growth of ovarian follicles
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II
Explanation: ADH regulates kidney water balance by increasing reabsorption, oxytocin promotes uterine contraction and milk ejection, while FSH aids ovarian follicle maturation and spermatogenesis. Therefore, A-I, B-II, C-III is the correct match. Answer: (1) A-I, B-II, C-III
9. Fill in the Blanks:
__________ and oxytocin are produced in the hypothalamus but released by the posterior pituitary.
(1) FSH
(2) ADH
(3) ACTH
(4) TSH
Explanation: ADH and oxytocin are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the posterior pituitary, where they are stored and released into circulation. This neural control ensures precise hormonal balance for water regulation and childbirth. Answer: (2) ADH
10. Choose the Correct Statements:
Statement I: Posterior pituitary produces ADH and oxytocin.
Statement II: These hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus.
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Only Statement I is correct
(3) Only Statement II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect
Explanation: The posterior pituitary stores and releases ADH and oxytocin but does not synthesize them. They are produced in the hypothalamic nuclei and transported for release. Hence, only Statement II is correct. Answer: (3) Only Statement II is correct
Topic: Hormones and Endocrine System; Subtopic: Mechanism of Hormone Action
Keyword Definitions:
• Insulin: A peptide hormone produced by β-cells of the pancreas that regulates blood glucose levels.
• Gastrointestinal Tract (GI Tract): The system responsible for digestion and absorption of nutrients.
• Bioavailability: The proportion of a drug or substance that enters the circulation and produces an effect.
• Peptide Hormone: A hormone composed of amino acids linked by peptide bonds, easily degraded by digestive enzymes.
Lead Question – 2025
Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients:
(1) Human body will elicit strong immune response
(2) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
(3) Because of structural variation
(4) Its bioavailability will be increased
Explanation: Insulin cannot be administered orally because it is a peptide hormone that would be broken down into amino acids by digestive enzymes in the gastrointestinal tract before absorption. Thus, its biological activity would be lost, rendering it ineffective in controlling blood sugar. Therefore, insulin is given via subcutaneous injection. Answer: (2)
1. Which of the following cells secrete insulin?
(1) α-cells of pancreas
(2) β-cells of pancreas
(3) δ-cells of pancreas
(4) Acinar cells of pancreas
Explanation: Insulin is secreted by β-cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. It lowers blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake and glycogen formation. α-cells secrete glucagon, which increases blood glucose levels. Therefore, β-cells play a vital role in glucose homeostasis. Answer: (2)
2. The hormone antagonistic to insulin is:
(1) Glucagon
(2) Thyroxine
(3) Aldosterone
(4) Cortisol
Explanation: Glucagon is antagonistic to insulin. It is secreted by α-cells of the pancreas and increases blood glucose levels by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver, counteracting insulin’s glucose-lowering effect. This balance maintains normal blood sugar levels in the body. Answer: (1)
3. Which of the following represents the correct function of insulin?
(1) Stimulates glycogenolysis
(2) Decreases glucose uptake
(3) Increases glucose uptake by cells
(4) Promotes gluconeogenesis
Explanation: Insulin enhances glucose uptake by muscle and adipose tissue, promoting glycogen synthesis and decreasing blood glucose concentration. It inhibits gluconeogenesis and lipolysis, thus maintaining energy balance and carbohydrate metabolism efficiently. Answer: (3)
4. Assertion (A): Insulin deficiency causes hyperglycemia.
Reason (R): Insulin promotes cellular glucose uptake and glycogen synthesis.
(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A
(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Explanation: Insulin deficiency results in decreased glucose uptake by cells, leading to hyperglycemia. The reason correctly explains this because insulin normally facilitates glucose transport into tissues for energy and glycogen formation. Therefore, both A and R are true, and R explains A. Answer: (1)
5. Match the hormones with their primary functions:
A. Insulin 1. Raises blood glucose
B. Glucagon 2. Lowers blood glucose
C. Adrenaline 3. Stimulates glycogenolysis
D. Cortisol 4. Anti-inflammatory effect
(1) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(4) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
Explanation: Insulin lowers glucose levels, glucagon raises glucose, adrenaline stimulates glycogenolysis, and cortisol exerts an anti-inflammatory effect. These hormones coordinate metabolism and stress response, maintaining homeostasis effectively. Answer: (1)
6. Which of the following is NOT a function of insulin?
(1) Enhances glucose uptake
(2) Stimulates glycogen synthesis
(3) Increases lipolysis
(4) Promotes protein synthesis
Explanation: Insulin promotes glucose uptake, glycogen synthesis, and protein formation but inhibits lipolysis (fat breakdown). Hence, increasing lipolysis is not a function of insulin. It ensures storage of nutrients in anabolic pathways for energy regulation. Answer: (3)
7. Insulin is secreted from which part of the pancreas?
(1) Acini
(2) Islets of Langerhans
(3) Pancreatic duct
(4) Hepatic cells
Explanation: Insulin is secreted by β-cells located in the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas. These clusters of endocrine cells play a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels through the coordinated release of insulin and glucagon. Answer: (2)
8. Fill in the blank: Lack of insulin secretion results in ________.
(1) Goitre
(2) Diabetes mellitus
(3) Acromegaly
(4) Addison’s disease
Explanation: Deficiency or ineffective insulin causes diabetes mellitus, characterized by elevated blood glucose levels, polyuria, and fatigue. It occurs due to reduced glucose uptake by tissues, leading to metabolic imbalance. Answer: (2)
9. Choose the correct statements:
Statement I: Insulin is a steroid hormone.
Statement II: Insulin lowers blood glucose levels.
(1) Both statements are true
(2) Both statements are false
(3) Statement I true, Statement II false
(4) Statement I false, Statement II true
Explanation: Insulin is a peptide hormone, not a steroid hormone. However, it does lower blood glucose levels by increasing cellular glucose uptake and glycogen storage. Hence, only Statement II is correct. Answer: (4)
10. Excess insulin in the blood causes:
(1) Hyperglycemia
(2) Hypoglycemia
(3) Hypertension
(4) Acidosis
Explanation: Excess insulin causes hypoglycemia, characterized by abnormally low blood glucose levels, weakness, dizziness, and even unconsciousness. It results from increased glucose uptake by tissues and reduced hepatic glucose production. Answer: (2)
Topic: Adrenal Glands; Subtopic: Functions of Adrenal Medullary Hormones
Keyword Definitions:
Adrenal Medulla: The inner region of the adrenal gland that secretes catecholamines like adrenaline and noradrenaline.
Adrenaline: A hormone that prepares the body for emergency conditions, increasing heart rate and blood sugar.
Noradrenaline: A hormone responsible for vasoconstriction and maintenance of blood pressure.
Piloerection: The raising of body hair due to contraction of tiny muscles at the hair follicle base.
Hyperglycemic Hormone: A hormone that increases the blood glucose concentration.
Lead Question - 2025
Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones:
A. It causes pupillary constriction
B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone
C. It causes piloerection
D. It increases strength of heart contraction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) C and D Only
(2) B, C and D Only
(3) A, C and D Only
(4) D Only
Explanation:
Adrenal medullary hormones, adrenaline and noradrenaline, increase heart rate, cause piloerection, and raise blood glucose levels (hyperglycemia). They do not cause pupillary constriction but dilation. Hence, statements B, C, and D are correct. The correct answer is (2) B, C and D Only. These actions prepare the body for stress and emergency responses effectively.
1. Which of the following hormones is secreted by the adrenal medulla?
(1) Aldosterone
(2) Adrenaline
(3) Cortisol
(4) Androgen
Explanation:
The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines—adrenaline and noradrenaline—which prepare the body for 'fight or flight' situations by increasing blood glucose and heart rate. Aldosterone and cortisol are secreted by the adrenal cortex. Therefore, the correct answer is (2) Adrenaline, a rapid-acting hormone released during stress.
2. Which of the following statements about adrenaline is true?
(1) It lowers blood pressure
(2) It causes vasodilation in all organs
(3) It increases heart rate and blood sugar
(4) It decreases alertness
Explanation:
Adrenaline acts as a powerful stimulant, increasing heart rate, blood pressure, and glucose availability while enhancing alertness and muscle performance during emergencies. It causes vasodilation in skeletal muscles but not in all organs. Hence, the correct answer is (3) It increases heart rate and blood sugar.
3. What triggers the release of adrenaline from the adrenal medulla?
(1) Low glucose level
(2) Sympathetic nervous stimulation
(3) High calcium level
(4) Parasympathetic stimulation
Explanation:
Adrenaline secretion is controlled by sympathetic nerves during stress, fear, or excitement, leading to increased heart rate and blood sugar. Parasympathetic activity has an opposite effect. Hence, the correct answer is (2) Sympathetic nervous stimulation, which activates the adrenal medulla instantly in stressful situations.
4. Adrenal medullary hormones prepare the body for:
(1) Rest and digestion
(2) Sleep and recovery
(3) Fight or flight response
(4) Hormone synthesis
Explanation:
Adrenaline and noradrenaline activate the fight-or-flight response by increasing heart rate, blood flow to muscles, and glucose release. These effects prepare the body for quick action during stress. The correct answer is (3) Fight or flight response, which enhances survival during emergencies or threats.
5. Which of the following effects is caused by adrenaline and noradrenaline?
(1) Reduced heart rate
(2) Vasodilation in skeletal muscles
(3) Decreased blood glucose
(4) Reduced alertness
Explanation:
Catecholamines like adrenaline and noradrenaline cause vasodilation in skeletal muscles to increase oxygen and nutrient supply during stress. They also raise blood glucose levels and enhance alertness. Hence, the correct answer is (2) Vasodilation in skeletal muscles, essential for quick energy mobilization.
6. Which of the following is NOT caused by adrenal medullary hormones?
(1) Increased heart rate
(2) Increased glucose level
(3) Pupil dilation
(4) Decreased blood pressure
Explanation:
Adrenal medullary hormones increase heart rate, blood pressure, and glucose, while dilating pupils. They do not decrease blood pressure. Hence, the incorrect option is (4) Decreased blood pressure. These changes collectively enable rapid physiological responses to stressful conditions.
Assertion-Reason Type:
7. Assertion (A): Adrenaline is called the emergency hormone.
Reason (R): It increases blood sugar and heart rate during stressful situations.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
Explanation:
Adrenaline is termed the emergency hormone as it prepares the body to face emergencies by increasing blood sugar, heart rate, and alertness. The reason correctly explains the assertion. Hence, the correct answer is (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Matching Type:
8. Match the hormones with their functions:
List I - Hormone
A. Adrenaline
B. Noradrenaline
C. Insulin
D. Glucagon
List II - Function
1. Increases blood sugar
2. Decreases blood sugar
3. Causes vasoconstriction
4. Increases heart rate
(1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(2) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(3) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(4) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
Explanation:
Adrenaline increases heart rate, noradrenaline causes vasoconstriction, insulin reduces blood sugar, and glucagon increases it. These hormones work together to maintain energy balance and cardiovascular stability. Hence, the correct matching is (1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.
Fill in the Blanks:
9. During stress, the adrenal medulla releases __________ which prepares the body for emergency situations.
(1) Aldosterone
(2) Adrenaline
(3) Cortisol
(4) Thyroxine
Explanation:
During stress, the adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline which triggers the fight-or-flight response. It increases heart rate, respiration, and glucose availability, ensuring the body is ready for immediate action. Hence, the correct answer is (2) Adrenaline, the primary emergency hormone.
Choose the Correct Statements:
10. Statement I: Adrenaline and noradrenaline are collectively called catecholamines.
Statement II: Catecholamines decrease blood sugar and relax skeletal muscles.
(1) Both statements are correct.
(2) Only Statement I is correct.
(3) Only Statement II is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.
Explanation:
Adrenaline and noradrenaline are catecholamines derived from tyrosine. They increase heart rate, blood sugar, and muscular activity, not decrease them. Therefore, only Statement I is correct. The correct answer is (2) Only Statement I is correct.
Topic: Endocrine Glands and Hormones; Subtopic: Hormones of Heart, Kidney, Gastro-intestinal Tract and Adrenal Cortex
Keyword Definitions:
Hormones: Chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands that regulate the activity of various organs.
Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF): Hormone secreted by the atria of the heart that reduces blood pressure and promotes sodium excretion.
Erythropoietin: A glycoprotein hormone secreted by the kidney that stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
Aldosterone: A mineralocorticoid hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex that maintains sodium and potassium balance.
Secretin: A hormone released from the duodenum that stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion to neutralize gastric acid.
Lead Question - 2025
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
A. Heart I. Erythropoietin
B. Kidney II. Aldosterone
C. Gastro-intestinal Tract III. Atrial natriuretic factor
D. Adrenal Cortex IV. Secretin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Explanation:
Heart secretes Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) that helps in reducing blood pressure. Kidney secretes Erythropoietin that stimulates red blood cell production. The Gastro-intestinal Tract secretes Secretin that regulates pancreatic secretions, and Adrenal Cortex secretes Aldosterone that controls sodium balance. Hence, the correct match is A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II. Option (4) is correct.
Guessed Questions:
1. Which hormone regulates the excretion of sodium by the kidneys?
(1) Insulin
(2) Aldosterone
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Oxytocin
Explanation: Aldosterone, secreted by the adrenal cortex, enhances sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion in renal tubules. This maintains electrolyte balance and regulates blood pressure effectively in the body. Answer: (2)
2. The kidney secretes which of the following hormones?
(1) Adrenaline
(2) Secretin
(3) Erythropoietin
(4) Cortisol
Explanation: Erythropoietin is produced by the kidney in response to decreased oxygen levels. It stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells, thus maintaining oxygen transport and preventing anemia. Answer: (3)
3. ANF secreted by the heart acts to:
(1) Increase blood pressure
(2) Decrease blood pressure
(3) Increase heart rate
(4) Increase sodium reabsorption
Explanation: Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) promotes vasodilation and sodium excretion, reducing blood volume and pressure. It acts as a natural regulator of blood pressure. Answer: (2)
4. Secretin is released by which part of the digestive tract?
(1) Stomach
(2) Duodenum
(3) Colon
(4) Ileum
Explanation: Secretin is produced by S-cells in the duodenum when acidic chyme enters from the stomach. It stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate-rich juice, neutralizing stomach acid in the intestine. Answer: (2)
5. Assertion (A): ANF decreases blood pressure by promoting sodium excretion.
Reason (R): ANF increases sodium reabsorption in kidneys.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Explanation: ANF decreases blood pressure by promoting sodium excretion, not reabsorption. This reduces blood volume. Hence, Assertion is true, but Reason is false. Answer: (3)
6. Fill in the blank: The hormone secreted by the kidney responsible for red blood cell production is ________.
(1) Renin
(2) Erythropoietin
(3) Vasopressin
(4) Aldosterone
Explanation: Erythropoietin is secreted by the kidney in response to low oxygen tension. It acts on bone marrow to stimulate red blood cell formation, enhancing oxygen delivery. Answer: (2)
7. Choose the correct statements:
Statement I: Heart secretes ANF to reduce blood pressure.
Statement II: Adrenal cortex secretes aldosterone to increase sodium reabsorption.
(1) Both statements are true
(2) Both statements are false
(3) I is true, II is false
(4) I is false, II is true
Explanation: ANF secreted by the heart reduces blood pressure, while aldosterone secreted by the adrenal cortex promotes sodium reabsorption. Both statements are correct. Answer: (1)
8. Matching Type:
Match the following hormones with their glands:
A. Adrenal medulla – (i) Epinephrine
B. Thyroid – (ii) Thyroxine
C. Pancreas – (iii) Insulin
D. Parathyroid – (iv) Parathormone
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
Explanation: The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine, thyroid secretes thyroxine, pancreas secretes insulin, and parathyroid secretes parathormone which regulates calcium metabolism. Answer: (1)
9. Which hormone among the following is not secreted by the adrenal cortex?
(1) Cortisol
(2) Aldosterone
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Androgens
Explanation: Adrenal cortex secretes aldosterone, cortisol, and androgens. Adrenaline is produced by the adrenal medulla, not the cortex. Hence, adrenaline is not a cortical hormone. Answer: (3)
10. Which of the following hormones is secreted by the duodenum?
(1) Gastrin
(2) Secretin
(3) CCK
(4) Somatostatin
Explanation: Secretin is secreted by the duodenal mucosa in response to acidic chyme. It regulates pancreatic and bile secretions for neutralizing stomach acid and aiding digestion. Answer: (2)
Topic: Hormones and Endocrine Glands; Subtopic: Mechanism of Hormone Action
Keyword Definitions:
• Hormones: Chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands that regulate physiological functions.
• Peptide hormone: Hormones made up of amino acids like insulin and glucagon.
• Steroid hormone: Lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol, such as progesterone and testosterone.
• Membrane-bound receptors: Receptors located on the cell membrane surface for peptide hormones.
• Second messengers: Molecules like cAMP that mediate hormone action inside the cell.
Lead Question - 2024 (Jhajjhar)
With regard to Hormones, identify the correct statements.
A. Epinephrine is a peptide hormone.
B. Progesterone is a peptide hormone.
C. Hormones that interact with membrane bound receptors normally do not enter target cell, but generate second messengers.
D. Hormones that interact with intracellular receptors mostly regulate gene expression.
E. Insulin is a amino acid derivative hormone.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A and B only
2. C and E only
3. C and D only
4. B and C only
Explanation:
The correct answer is 3. C and D only. Epinephrine is an amino acid derivative, not a peptide. Progesterone is a steroid hormone. Peptide hormones act via membrane-bound receptors and trigger secondary messengers like cAMP, while steroid hormones act through intracellular receptors to regulate gene expression by directly influencing transcriptional activity inside target cells.
Guessed Questions:
1. Which of the following hormones is derived from amino acid tyrosine?
1. Insulin
2. Epinephrine
3. Glucagon
4. Oxytocin
Explanation:
The correct answer is 2. Epinephrine. Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is a catecholamine hormone derived from tyrosine. It is secreted by the adrenal medulla and functions in the ‘fight or flight’ response, increasing heart rate, glycogen breakdown, and blood glucose levels during stress or emergency situations.
2. Which of the following is a steroid hormone?
1. Insulin
2. Progesterone
3. Epinephrine
4. Glucagon
Explanation:
The correct answer is 2. Progesterone. Steroid hormones like progesterone are lipid-soluble molecules derived from cholesterol. They diffuse through plasma membranes and bind to intracellular receptors. Progesterone plays a major role in maintaining pregnancy and regulating the menstrual cycle in females.
3. Which hormone acts via a second messenger system such as cyclic AMP (cAMP)?
1. Insulin
2. Thyroxine
3. Progesterone
4. Cortisol
Explanation:
The correct answer is 1. Insulin. Insulin is a peptide hormone that binds to membrane receptors and triggers signaling cascades involving secondary messengers such as cAMP. This mechanism regulates glucose uptake and glycogen synthesis within cells without the hormone entering the target cell directly.
4. Which one of the following hormones is NOT lipid soluble?
1. Cortisol
2. Testosterone
3. Insulin
4. Progesterone
Explanation:
The correct answer is 3. Insulin. Insulin is a peptide hormone, hence water-soluble, and cannot pass through the lipid bilayer of cell membranes. It binds to extracellular receptors and activates signal transduction pathways, while steroid hormones are lipid-soluble and easily cross the plasma membrane.
5. Which hormone regulates gene expression by binding to DNA inside the nucleus?
1. Estrogen
2. Insulin
3. Epinephrine
4. Glucagon
Explanation:
The correct answer is 1. Estrogen. Estrogen is a steroid hormone that enters cells, binds to intracellular receptors, and the complex then attaches to DNA, modifying gene transcription. This regulates development of secondary sexual characteristics and reproductive cycle control in females.
6. Which of the following statements regarding peptide hormones is true?
1. They easily pass through plasma membrane.
2. They act via membrane-bound receptors.
3. They bind to nuclear receptors.
4. They regulate transcription directly.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 2. They act via membrane-bound receptors. Peptide hormones are hydrophilic and cannot penetrate the lipid bilayer. They bind to specific receptors on the cell surface and initiate signal transduction through second messengers, leading to physiological responses in target tissues.
7. Assertion-Reason Type:
Assertion (A): Steroid hormones act through intracellular receptors.
Reason (R): They are lipid-soluble and easily cross the plasma membrane.
1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) true, (R) false.
4. (A) false, (R) true.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Steroid hormones, being lipid-soluble, easily diffuse through plasma membranes and bind to cytoplasmic or nuclear receptors. The hormone-receptor complex regulates gene expression and protein synthesis.
8. Matching Type:
Match the hormones with their chemical nature:
A. Insulin
B. Progesterone
C. Epinephrine
D. Thyroxine
1. Peptide
2. Steroid
3. Amino acid derivative
4. Iodinated tyrosine derivative
Options:
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
Explanation:
The correct answer is A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4. Insulin is a peptide hormone, progesterone a steroid hormone, epinephrine an amino acid derivative, and thyroxine an iodinated derivative of tyrosine. Their classification is based on biochemical structure and mechanism of action in the body.
9. Fill in the Blanks:
__________ acts as a second messenger for many peptide hormones.
1. Cyclic AMP (cAMP)
2. ATP
3. Calcium ions
4. NADH
Explanation:
The correct answer is 1. Cyclic AMP (cAMP). cAMP is produced when peptide hormones bind to surface receptors, activating adenylate cyclase. This enzyme converts ATP into cAMP, which triggers intracellular signaling cascades regulating metabolism, enzyme activity, and cellular responses without hormone entry into the cell.
10. Choose the Correct Statements (Statement I & II):
Statement I: Peptide hormones use intracellular receptors for gene regulation.
Statement II: Steroid hormones can easily pass through plasma membranes.
1. Both statements are true.
2. Both statements are false.
3. Statement I false, Statement II true.
4. Statement I true, Statement II false.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 3. Statement I false, Statement II true. Peptide hormones act via membrane-bound receptors and secondary messengers, not intracellular ones. Steroid hormones are lipid-soluble, enabling them to diffuse across cell membranes and regulate gene transcription directly by binding to DNA-associated receptors.
Topic: Menstrual Cycle; Subtopic: Role of Hormones in Menstrual Regulation
Keyword Definitions:
• Corpus Luteum: A temporary endocrine gland formed from the ruptured Graafian follicle after ovulation, secreting progesterone.
• Endometrium: The innermost lining of the uterus that thickens to support implantation and sheds during menstruation.
• Menarche: The first menstrual cycle in a female, marking the onset of reproductive maturity.
• Menopause: The natural cessation of menstruation, indicating the end of reproductive capability.
• Progesterone: A hormone that maintains the endometrial lining and inhibits uterine contractions during pregnancy.
• Fertilization: The fusion of sperm and ovum forming a zygote.
• Menstrual Cycle: A monthly cycle involving changes in the uterus and ovaries, typically lasting about 28 days.
Lead Question - 2024 (Jhajjhar)
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Degeneration of corpus luteum in the absence of fertilization is the cause for disintegration of endometrium.
Statement II: Cyclic menstruation indicates normal reproductive phase in human females and extends between menarche and menopause.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are True.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are False.
3. Statement I is True but Statement II is False.
4. Statement I is False but Statement II is True.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are True. When fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates, reducing progesterone levels and leading to shedding of the endometrium. This results in menstruation. Regular menstruation between menarche and menopause reflects a normal, healthy reproductive phase in human females controlled by hormonal cycles.
1. Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining the endometrial lining during the luteal phase?
1. Estrogen
2. Progesterone
3. LH
4. FSH
Explanation:
The correct answer is 2. Progesterone. Secreted by the corpus luteum, progesterone maintains the endometrium, preparing it for implantation of the fertilized ovum. If fertilization does not occur, progesterone levels fall, leading to endometrial degeneration and the onset of menstruation, marking the end of one reproductive cycle.
2. Which of the following marks the end of the reproductive phase in females?
1. Menstruation
2. Menarche
3. Menopause
4. Ovulation
Explanation:
The correct answer is 3. Menopause. Menopause is the permanent cessation of menstruation, indicating the end of a woman’s reproductive period. It usually occurs between 45–55 years of age. During this phase, ovarian follicles decline, leading to decreased estrogen and progesterone secretion, and ending ovulatory cycles.
3. Which phase of the menstrual cycle involves rebuilding of the endometrium under estrogen influence?
1. Menstrual phase
2. Follicular phase
3. Ovulatory phase
4. Luteal phase
Explanation:
The correct answer is 2. Follicular phase. The follicular phase follows menstruation and is characterized by estrogen-driven proliferation of the endometrial lining. Follicles mature under FSH influence, and one becomes dominant. Rising estrogen levels prepare the uterus for potential implantation, leading up to ovulation around the 14th day of the cycle.
4. What triggers ovulation in the menstrual cycle?
1. A sudden surge in LH
2. A decline in FSH
3. Increased progesterone secretion
4. Endometrial shedding
Explanation:
The correct answer is 1. A sudden surge in LH. The mid-cycle luteinizing hormone (LH) surge induces the rupture of the mature Graafian follicle, releasing the secondary oocyte. This marks ovulation, usually occurring on the 14th day of a 28-day cycle. The remaining follicular cells form the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone post-ovulation.
5. If fertilization occurs, what prevents degeneration of the corpus luteum?
1. High estrogen
2. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
3. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
4. Progesterone
Explanation:
The correct answer is 3. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG). hCG secreted by the developing embryo maintains the corpus luteum during early pregnancy. This ensures continued progesterone production to sustain the endometrial lining, preventing menstruation and supporting implantation and early embryonic development until the placenta forms its hormonal role.
6. What is the duration of the average menstrual cycle in humans?
1. 15 days
2. 21 days
3. 28 days
4. 35 days
Explanation:
The correct answer is 3. 28 days. The menstrual cycle typically lasts about 28 days, though variations from 26 to 32 days are common. It includes four phases—menstrual, follicular, ovulatory, and luteal—regulated by hormonal interplay among the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries, ensuring coordinated reproductive readiness.
7. Assertion-Reason Question:
Assertion (A): Progesterone prevents uterine contractions during pregnancy.
Reason (R): Low progesterone levels trigger menstrual bleeding.
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). Progesterone inhibits uterine contractions to maintain pregnancy. However, its decline causes endometrial breakdown and menstruation, not directly linked to contraction inhibition but essential for cycle regulation.
8. Matching Type Question:
Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Hormone) — List-II (Function)
A. FSH — I. Stimulates follicular growth
B. LH — II. Triggers ovulation
C. Progesterone — III. Maintains endometrium
D. Estrogen — IV. Promotes endometrial proliferation
1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
3. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
4. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Explanation:
The correct answer is 1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV. FSH stimulates follicle growth, LH induces ovulation, progesterone maintains the endometrium, and estrogen rebuilds it after menstruation. Together, these hormones coordinate ovarian and uterine functions, ensuring regular menstrual cycles and successful reproduction.
9. Fill in the Blanks Question:
The corpus luteum secretes __________, which helps maintain the endometrial lining.
1. FSH
2. LH
3. Progesterone
4. Estrogen
Explanation:
The correct answer is 3. Progesterone. The corpus luteum forms after ovulation and secretes progesterone, which stabilizes and maintains the endometrial lining. If pregnancy occurs, progesterone continues to be secreted under hCG influence; otherwise, its decline leads to menstruation, restarting the reproductive cycle.
10. Choose the Correct Statements:
Statement I: Menstrual flow results from the breakdown of the endometrial lining.
Statement II: Menstrual bleeding occurs due to a rise in progesterone level.
1. Both statements are correct.
2. Both statements are incorrect.
3. Only Statement I is correct.
4. Only Statement II is correct.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 3. Only Statement I is correct. Menstrual bleeding occurs due to the shedding of the endometrial lining following progesterone withdrawal, not its increase. The fall in progesterone and estrogen levels causes rupture of endometrial blood vessels, leading to menstrual flow and the beginning of a new cycle.
Topic: Endocrine System; Subtopic: Hormonal Regulation and Functions
Keyword Definitions:
• Parathyroid hormone: Regulates calcium and phosphate balance by increasing Ca2+ levels in blood.
• Epinephrine: Also known as adrenaline, it triggers the “fight or flight” response under stress.
• Thyroid stimulating hormone: Secreted by the pituitary gland to regulate thyroid hormone synthesis.
• Melatonin: A hormone from the pineal gland that regulates the biological clock and sleep-wake cycle.
Lead Question - 2024 (Jhajjhar)
Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
A. Parathyroid hormone I. Flight or fight response
B. Epinephrine and Nor-epinephrine II. Regulates the body's biological clock
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone III. Increases blood Ca2+ level
D. Melatonin IV. Synthesis of hormones
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Explanation:
The parathyroid hormone increases calcium ion levels in the blood by stimulating bone resorption. Epinephrine and norepinephrine trigger the fight or flight response during stress. Thyroid stimulating hormone controls thyroid hormone synthesis. Melatonin regulates circadian rhythm and biological clock. Hence, the correct match is A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II. Hormones act as chemical messengers to maintain internal homeostasis and physiological coordination.
1. Which hormone is secreted by adrenal medulla?
1. Insulin
2. Epinephrine
3. Aldosterone
4. Thyroxine
Explanation: The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine, hormones responsible for increasing heart rate and blood flow during stress. These hormones prepare the body for fight or flight response. Epinephrine acts rapidly on tissues like heart, lungs, and muscles. Hence, the correct answer is epinephrine.
2. Which gland regulates calcium metabolism?
1. Pituitary gland
2. Parathyroid gland
3. Adrenal gland
4. Pineal gland
Explanation: The parathyroid gland secretes parathyroid hormone (PTH), which increases blood calcium levels by stimulating bone resorption and enhancing calcium reabsorption in kidneys. It maintains calcium-phosphate balance. The pituitary and pineal glands perform other hormonal functions. Hence, the correct answer is parathyroid gland.
3. Which of the following is known as the master gland?
1. Thyroid gland
2. Pituitary gland
3. Adrenal gland
4. Pancreas
Explanation: The pituitary gland is called the master gland as it regulates activities of other endocrine glands by releasing hormones like TSH, ACTH, and GH. It is located at the base of the brain and controlled by the hypothalamus. Hence, the correct answer is pituitary gland.
4. Which hormone maintains the body’s circadian rhythm?
1. Melatonin
2. Insulin
3. Adrenaline
4. Thyroxine
Explanation: Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland mainly during night and regulates the sleep-wake cycle and biological clock. It also influences seasonal breeding in animals. Its secretion decreases with light exposure. Hence, melatonin maintains circadian rhythm and sleep patterns.
5. Which hormone stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine?
1. ACTH
2. GH
3. TSH
4. FSH
Explanation: Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid gland to release thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). These hormones regulate metabolism, growth, and development. Hence, the correct answer is TSH.
6. Which hormone increases blood glucose levels during stress?
1. Insulin
2. Glucagon
3. Epinephrine
4. Thyroxine
Explanation: Epinephrine, secreted by adrenal medulla, increases blood glucose levels by promoting glycogen breakdown in the liver. It provides instant energy during emergency or stress. Hence, the correct answer is epinephrine.
Assertion-Reason Type Question
7. Assertion (A): Epinephrine is called the emergency hormone.
Reason (R): It decreases the heart rate and oxygen supply to muscles.
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Explanation: Epinephrine is termed the emergency hormone as it prepares the body for fight or flight by increasing heart rate, blood pressure, and oxygen delivery to muscles. Thus, (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
Matching Type Question
8. Match the following:
A. Insulin — I. Adrenal medulla
B. Epinephrine — II. Pancreas
C. Melatonin — III. Pineal gland
1. A-II, B-I, C-III
2. A-I, B-II, C-III
3. A-III, B-I, C-II
4. A-II, B-III, C-I
Explanation: Insulin is secreted by pancreas, epinephrine by adrenal medulla, and melatonin by pineal gland. They regulate metabolism, emergency response, and sleep cycle respectively. Hence, the correct answer is A-II, B-I, C-III.
Fill in the Blank Type Question
9. __________ regulates the secretion of hormones from the pituitary gland.
1. Cerebellum
2. Hypothalamus
3. Medulla oblongata
4. Cerebrum
Explanation: The hypothalamus controls pituitary gland functions by releasing neurohormones. It links the nervous and endocrine systems, maintaining homeostasis. Hence, the correct answer is hypothalamus.
Choose the Correct Statements (Statement I & II)
10. Statement I: Parathyroid hormone decreases calcium level in blood.
Statement II: Calcitonin from thyroid gland decreases blood calcium level.
1. Both statements are correct.
2. Both statements are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Explanation: Parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium level by bone resorption, while calcitonin reduces it by depositing calcium in bones. Hence, Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Topic: Endocrine Glands and Hormones; Subtopic: Disorders due to Hormonal Imbalance
Keyword Definitions:
• Hormone: Chemical messenger secreted by endocrine glands to regulate body functions.
• Thyroid hormone: Regulates metabolism, growth, and development in the body.
• Growth hormone: Secreted by pituitary gland; regulates body growth and metabolism.
• Cortisol: Steroid hormone produced by adrenal cortex that controls stress response.
• Exophthalmos: Protrusion of the eyeball commonly seen in hyperthyroidism.
• Cretinism: Disorder due to thyroid hormone deficiency in childhood causing stunted growth.
• Acromegaly: Disorder due to excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults.
• Cushing’s syndrome: Condition due to overproduction of cortisol leading to moon face and hyperglycemia.
Lead Question (2024)
Match List I with List II
List I List II
A. Exophthalmic goitre I. Excess secretion of cortisol, moon face & hyperglycemia
B. Acromegaly II. Hypo-secretion of thyroid hormone and stunted growth
C. Cushing’s syndrome III. Hyper secretion of thyroid hormone & protruding eyeballs
D. Cretinism IV. Excessive secretion of growth hormone
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Explanation:
Exophthalmic goitre (Graves’ disease) is caused by hypersecretion of thyroid hormones leading to protruding eyeballs (A–III). Acromegaly results from overproduction of growth hormone in adults (B–IV). Cushing’s syndrome occurs due to excess cortisol secretion by adrenal cortex (C–I). Cretinism develops in children due to thyroid hormone deficiency causing dwarfism and mental retardation (D–II). Hence, the correct answer is (3) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II.
Guessed Question 1:
Which hormone is secreted in excess in acromegaly?
(1) Thyroxine
(2) Growth hormone
(3) Cortisol
(4) Insulin
Explanation:
Acromegaly occurs in adults due to overproduction of growth hormone by the anterior pituitary. It causes enlargement of facial bones, hands, and feet. Unlike gigantism, which affects growth before epiphyseal fusion, acromegaly occurs after growth completion. Answer: Growth hormone.
Guessed Question 2:
Cretinism occurs due to deficiency of which gland's hormone?
(1) Adrenal gland
(2) Thyroid gland
(3) Pituitary gland
(4) Parathyroid gland
Explanation:
Cretinism results from deficiency of thyroid hormones (thyroxine and triiodothyronine) during childhood. It leads to stunted physical and mental growth, lethargy, and dwarfism. Proper iodine intake prevents this disorder. Answer: Thyroid gland.
Guessed Question 3:
Cushing’s syndrome results due to excess secretion of which hormone?
(1) Insulin
(2) Cortisol
(3) Aldosterone
(4) Adrenaline
Explanation:
Cushing’s syndrome is caused by hypersecretion of cortisol from the adrenal cortex. It leads to symptoms like moon face, muscle weakness, high blood sugar, and obesity of trunk. The disorder may also result from prolonged steroid use. Answer: Cortisol.
Guessed Question 4:
Which of the following conditions is associated with protruding eyeballs?
(1) Acromegaly
(2) Cretinism
(3) Exophthalmic goitre
(4) Myxedema
Explanation:
Exophthalmic goitre, also known as Graves’ disease, occurs due to overproduction of thyroid hormones (hyperthyroidism). It leads to protrusion of eyeballs, increased metabolism, weight loss, and irritability. Answer: Exophthalmic goitre.
Guessed Question 5:
Which of the following diseases is caused by hypo-secretion of thyroid hormone in adults?
(1) Myxedema
(2) Acromegaly
(3) Cushing’s syndrome
(4) Diabetes insipidus
Explanation:
Myxedema occurs due to deficiency of thyroid hormones in adults. It causes puffy skin, lethargy, weight gain, and slow metabolism. It is distinct from cretinism, which occurs in childhood. Answer: Myxedema.
Guessed Question 6:
Which of the following hormones regulates stress response in the body?
(1) Cortisol
(2) Thyroxine
(3) Growth hormone
(4) Oxytocin
Explanation:
Cortisol, a glucocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex, regulates metabolism, blood glucose levels, and stress response. Its excess leads to Cushing’s syndrome, while deficiency causes Addison’s disease. Answer: Cortisol.
Guessed Question 7 (Assertion–Reason Type):
Assertion (A): Cretinism causes mental retardation and stunted growth.
Reason (R): It is caused by over-secretion of thyroid hormones during childhood.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.
Explanation:
Cretinism is due to *deficiency* of thyroid hormones, not over-secretion. It leads to stunted growth, mental retardation, and lethargy in children. Answer: (3) A is true, but R is false.
Guessed Question 8 (Matching Type):
Match the following:
A. Addison’s disease 1. Hyposecretion of adrenal cortex
B. Diabetes mellitus 2. Deficiency of insulin
C. Acromegaly 3. Excess growth hormone
D. Myxedema 4. Hypothyroidism
(1) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(2) A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1
(3) A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4
(4) A–4, B–3, C–1, D–2
Explanation:
Addison’s disease results from adrenal cortex hyposecretion (A–1). Diabetes mellitus is due to insulin deficiency (B–2). Acromegaly occurs due to excess growth hormone secretion (C–3). Myxedema is caused by thyroid hormone deficiency (D–4). Answer: (1) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4.
Guessed Question 9 (Fill in the Blanks):
________ is caused by the deficiency of thyroid hormones during adulthood leading to puffiness and slow metabolism.
(1) Acromegaly
(2) Myxedema
(3) Cretinism
(4) Goitre
Explanation:
Myxedema is an adult hypothyroid condition characterized by swelling, slow metabolism, and fatigue. It is caused by deficiency of thyroid hormones. Answer: Myxedema.
Guessed Question 10 (Choose the Correct Statements):
Statement I: Cushing’s syndrome is caused by cortisol deficiency.
Statement II: Addison’s disease results from cortisol deficiency.
(1) Both statements are true.
(2) Both statements are false.
(3) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
Explanation:
Cushing’s syndrome results from cortisol excess, not deficiency, while Addison’s disease is caused by deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone from adrenal cortex. Answer: (4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
Topic: Endocrine Glands and Hormones; Subtopic: Types and Classification of Hormones
Keyword Definitions:
Steroid hormones: Lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol, including testosterone, progesterone, and cortisol, that regulate metabolism and reproduction.
Peptide hormones: Protein-based hormones like insulin and glucagon that act through cell membrane receptors and second messengers.
Testosterone: A male sex hormone responsible for secondary sexual characteristics and sperm production.
Progesterone: A female hormone regulating menstrual cycles and pregnancy maintenance.
Cortisol: A stress-related steroid hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex controlling glucose metabolism.
Glucagon: A peptide hormone secreted by α-cells of the pancreas that increases blood glucose levels by glycogen breakdown.
Lead Question – 2024
Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?
(1) Testosterone
(2) Progesterone
(3) Glucagon
(4) Cortisol
Explanation: Steroid hormones are synthesized from cholesterol and are lipid-soluble. Testosterone, progesterone, and cortisol belong to this category. However, glucagon is a peptide hormone produced by pancreatic α-cells. It regulates blood glucose levels through glycogenolysis. Therefore, the correct answer is (3) Glucagon, as it is a peptide hormone, not a steroid-based molecule.
Guessed Questions:
1. Which of the following hormones is derived from cholesterol?
(1) Insulin
(2) Cortisol
(3) Glucagon
(4) Adrenaline
Explanation: Cholesterol is the precursor for all steroid hormones, including cortisol, aldosterone, estrogen, and testosterone. Cortisol, produced in the adrenal cortex, regulates glucose metabolism and immune function. Hence, the correct answer is (2) Cortisol, as it is a steroid hormone synthesized from cholesterol, unlike peptide or amine-based hormones such as insulin and adrenaline.
2. Which gland secretes glucagon?
(1) Adrenal cortex
(2) Pancreatic α-cells
(3) Thyroid gland
(4) Adrenal medulla
Explanation: Glucagon is secreted by the alpha (α) cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. It acts on the liver to promote glycogen breakdown into glucose, raising blood sugar levels. Hence, the correct answer is (2) Pancreatic α-cells, which play a vital role in maintaining glucose homeostasis with insulin from β-cells.
3. Which hormone stimulates glycogen breakdown in the liver?
(1) Insulin
(2) Glucagon
(3) Progesterone
(4) Cortisol
Explanation: Glucagon triggers glycogenolysis in the liver, converting glycogen to glucose, thus increasing blood glucose levels. Insulin does the opposite by promoting glycogen synthesis. Hence, the correct answer is (2) Glucagon, which functions as a hyperglycemic hormone maintaining blood glucose balance along with insulin for proper energy regulation.
4. Which of the following is secreted by the adrenal cortex?
(1) Adrenaline
(2) Glucagon
(3) Cortisol
(4) Insulin
Explanation: The adrenal cortex secretes steroid hormones like cortisol, aldosterone, and androgens. Cortisol regulates metabolism and helps the body respond to stress. Adrenaline is produced by the adrenal medulla, not the cortex. Hence, the correct answer is (3) Cortisol, a glucocorticoid steroid hormone derived from cholesterol and essential for metabolic regulation.
5. Which of the following hormones is produced by testes?
(1) Cortisol
(2) Testosterone
(3) Progesterone
(4) Insulin
Explanation: The testes produce testosterone from Leydig cells under the control of LH from the pituitary gland. It promotes male secondary sexual characteristics, spermatogenesis, and muscle growth. Hence, the correct answer is (2) Testosterone, which is a steroid hormone derived from cholesterol and crucial for male reproductive health and development.
6. Which hormone is responsible for maintaining pregnancy in females?
(1) Cortisol
(2) Estrogen
(3) Progesterone
(4) Testosterone
Explanation: Progesterone, secreted by the corpus luteum and placenta, maintains the endometrium and prevents uterine contractions during pregnancy. It ensures the survival of the developing embryo and supports gestation. Hence, the correct answer is (3) Progesterone, a key steroid hormone essential for female reproductive physiology and maintenance of pregnancy.
7. Assertion–Reason Type:
Assertion (A): Steroid hormones act by binding to intracellular receptors.
Reason (R): They are lipid-soluble and can easily pass through the plasma membrane.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Explanation: Steroid hormones are lipid-soluble and diffuse through the plasma membrane to bind intracellular receptors, forming a complex that regulates gene expression. Hence, both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A. The correct answer is (1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A perfectly.
8. Matching Type:
Match List I with List II
A. Insulin I. β-cells of pancreas
B. Glucagon II. α-cells of pancreas
C. Cortisol III. Adrenal cortex
D. Testosterone IV. Testes
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Explanation: Insulin is secreted by pancreatic β-cells, glucagon by α-cells, cortisol by the adrenal cortex, and testosterone by the testes. Hence, the correct answer is (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, representing the proper source and secretion site of each hormone involved in metabolism and reproduction.
9. Fill in the Blanks:
________ is a peptide hormone that increases blood glucose concentration.
(1) Cortisol
(2) Glucagon
(3) Progesterone
(4) Testosterone
Explanation: Glucagon is a peptide hormone secreted by pancreatic α-cells. It promotes glycogen breakdown and gluconeogenesis in the liver, raising blood sugar levels. Hence, the correct answer is (2) Glucagon, which counteracts insulin and maintains glucose homeostasis, especially during fasting or energy-demanding conditions in the human body.
10. Choose the Correct Statements:
Statement I: Cortisol and progesterone are peptide hormones.
Statement II: Glucagon is a steroid hormone.
(1) Both I and II are true
(2) Both I and II are false
(3) I is true but II is false
(4) I is false but II is true
Explanation: Cortisol and progesterone are steroid hormones derived from cholesterol, not peptides. Glucagon is a peptide hormone, not a steroid. Hence, both statements are false. The correct answer is (2) Both I and II are false, accurately classifying these hormones based on their chemical composition and function.
Topic: Hormonal Regulation of Reproductive System; Subtopic: Role of Gonadotropins in Males and Females
Keyword Definitions:
• FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone): A pituitary hormone that stimulates follicle growth in females and spermatogenesis in males.
• LH (Luteinizing Hormone): A pituitary hormone stimulating ovulation in females and testosterone secretion in males.
• Ovarian Follicles: Structures in the ovary where oocytes mature.
• Leydig Cells: Interstitial cells of testes that secrete testosterone under LH stimulation.
• Estrogen: A female sex hormone secreted by ovarian follicles that regulates the menstrual cycle and secondary sexual characteristics.
Lead Question – 2024
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.
Assertion (A): FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in female and Leydig cells in male.
Reason (R): Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete androgen in male human being.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: The correct answer is (3) A is false but R is true. FSH acts on ovarian follicles in females and Sertoli cells in males, not on Leydig cells. Leydig cells are stimulated by LH to secrete androgens. However, the Reason is true because ovarian follicles secrete estrogen and interstitial cells secrete androgens.
1. Which hormone stimulates Leydig cells in males to secrete testosterone?
(1) LH
(2) FSH
(3) Prolactin
(4) Oxytocin
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) LH. Luteinizing hormone, secreted by the anterior pituitary, acts directly on Leydig cells located in the testes to produce testosterone, which supports spermatogenesis and development of male secondary sexual characters.
2. FSH in females is responsible for:
(1) Ovulation
(2) Growth and maturation of ovarian follicles
(3) Formation of corpus luteum
(4) Secretion of progesterone
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). FSH stimulates the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, preparing them for ovulation. It also induces estrogen secretion by granulosa cells, essential for endometrial proliferation.
3. Which cells in the seminiferous tubules respond to FSH in males?
(1) Leydig cells
(2) Sertoli cells
(3) Spermatogonia
(4) Spermatids
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Sertoli cells. FSH binds to receptors on Sertoli cells, stimulating spermatogenesis and the secretion of androgen-binding proteins that help maintain high testosterone levels in the seminiferous tubules for sperm development.
4. Which hormone primarily regulates ovulation in females?
(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Estrogen
(4) Progesterone
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) LH. The mid-cycle surge of LH triggers the rupture of the mature Graafian follicle, releasing the secondary oocyte into the fallopian tube, an event known as ovulation, followed by corpus luteum formation.
5. Which of the following hormones is secreted by corpus luteum?
(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) LH
(4) FSH
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Progesterone. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle transforms into the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone to maintain the uterine lining and support potential implantation during early pregnancy.
6. Which statement is correct regarding hormone action in reproduction?
(1) LH stimulates Sertoli cells
(2) FSH acts on Leydig cells
(3) LH acts on Leydig cells
(4) Estrogen acts on Sertoli cells
Explanation: The correct answer is (3). LH stimulates Leydig cells in testes to produce testosterone, essential for spermatogenesis. FSH acts on Sertoli cells, not Leydig cells, to promote sperm maturation. Estrogen has no direct role in male spermatogenesis.
7. Assertion-Reason Type:
Assertion (A): LH is responsible for ovulation in females.
Reason (R): LH surge causes the rupture of Graafian follicle releasing the ovum.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). LH surge triggers ovulation by rupturing the mature follicle. This event marks the transition from the follicular to the luteal phase, with progesterone production beginning post-ovulation.
8. Matching Type:
Match the following hormones with their respective functions:
A. FSH — I. Follicular growth
B. LH — II. Ovulation
C. Estrogen — III. Endometrial proliferation
D. Progesterone — IV. Maintenance of pregnancy
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). FSH promotes follicular growth, LH induces ovulation, estrogen stimulates endometrial proliferation, and progesterone maintains the uterine lining for implantation and early pregnancy.
9. Fill in the Blanks:
In males, LH acts on __________ cells to stimulate the production of testosterone.
(1) Sertoli
(2) Leydig
(3) Spermatogenic
(4) Granulosa
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Leydig. LH binds to receptors on Leydig cells in the testes, stimulating them to produce testosterone, which supports spermatogenesis and the development of male secondary sexual characteristics.
10. Choose the Correct Statements:
Statement I: FSH acts on Sertoli cells in males to promote spermatogenesis.
Statement II: LH stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone.
(1) Both I and II are true
(2) Both I and II are false
(3) I is true but II is false
(4) I is false but II is true
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). FSH and LH coordinate male reproductive functions. FSH regulates spermatogenesis through Sertoli cells, while LH controls testosterone synthesis via Leydig cells, ensuring hormonal balance for sperm production and maturation.
Topic: Endocrine System; Subtopic: Parathyroid Hormone and Thyrocalcitonin
Keyword Definitions:
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH): Hormone secreted by parathyroid glands that increases blood calcium by stimulating bone resorption, kidney reabsorption, and vitamin D activation.
Thyrocalcitonin / Calcitonin: Hormone from thyroid gland that lowers blood calcium by inhibiting bone resorption and promoting calcium deposition in bones.
Bone Resorption: Process by which osteoclasts break down bone tissue, releasing minerals into the bloodstream.
Osteoclasts: Specialized bone cells that degrade bone matrix during resorption.
Osteoblasts: Bone-forming cells that synthesize and deposit bone matrix.
Carbohydrate Metabolism: Biochemical processes involving breakdown, synthesis, and utilization of carbohydrates for energy.
Calcium Homeostasis: Regulation of blood calcium levels through hormonal control involving PTH, calcitonin, and vitamin D.
Kidney Reabsorption: Process of returning filtered substances, such as calcium, from renal tubules to blood.
Vitamin D Activation: Conversion of vitamin D to calcitriol, enhancing intestinal calcium absorption.
Endocrine Regulation: Hormonal control of physiological processes, including bone metabolism and mineral balance.
Hormonal Interaction: Coordinated action of multiple hormones in regulating body functions such as calcium and carbohydrate metabolism.
Lead Question - 2023 (Manipur):
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Parathyroid hormone acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone resorption
Statement II: Parathyroid hormone along with Thyrocalcitonin plays a significant role in carbohydrate metabolism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Explanation: Correct answer is Statement I is correct but Statement II is false. Parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, enhancing renal calcium reabsorption, and activating vitamin D. Calcitonin (Thyrocalcitonin) lowers blood calcium by inhibiting osteoclast activity. Neither PTH nor calcitonin plays a direct role in carbohydrate metabolism. Their primary function is calcium and phosphate homeostasis, critical for skeletal integrity, neuromuscular function, and enzymatic activity. This distinction highlights the specialized hormonal regulation of mineral balance without influencing glucose or carbohydrate pathways.
Guessed MCQs:
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which hormone decreases blood calcium levels?
(A) Parathyroid hormone
(B) Thyrocalcitonin
(C) Vitamin D
(D) Cortisol
Explanation: Thyrocalcitonin is correct. Calcitonin, secreted by thyroid C-cells, inhibits osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, reducing calcium release into blood, thereby lowering blood calcium. It complements PTH by maintaining calcium homeostasis. Its regulation is independent of carbohydrate metabolism. Monitoring calcitonin is important in bone disorders and hypercalcemia. It ensures skeletal integrity and prevents excessive calcium accumulation, demonstrating the endocrine system’s role in mineral balance.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which cells mediate bone resorption under PTH?
(A) Osteoblasts
(B) Osteoclasts
(C) Chondrocytes
(D) Fibroblasts
Explanation: Osteoclasts is correct. PTH stimulates osteoclast differentiation and activity, breaking down bone matrix to release calcium and phosphate into circulation. Osteoblasts are involved in bone formation, not resorption. This process maintains blood calcium levels for neuromuscular and enzymatic functions. Dysregulation can lead to osteoporosis or hypercalcemia. PTH thus orchestrates skeletal remodeling and mineral homeostasis without affecting carbohydrate metabolism, emphasizing targeted hormonal effects on bones.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Main site of PTH action is:
(A) Liver
(B) Bone
(C) Pancreas
(D) Muscle
Explanation: Bone is correct. Parathyroid hormone primarily targets bones, stimulating osteoclast-mediated resorption to release calcium and phosphate. It also acts on kidneys to increase calcium reabsorption and on intestines indirectly via vitamin D activation. PTH ensures calcium homeostasis and supports skeletal health. Its action does not include carbohydrate metabolism. This hormone exemplifies organ-specific endocrine regulation for mineral balance, critical for proper neuromuscular function and bone integrity throughout life.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which vitamin’s activation is promoted by PTH?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin D
(D) Vitamin K
Explanation: Vitamin D is correct. PTH enhances renal conversion of 25-hydroxyvitamin D to active calcitriol, increasing intestinal calcium absorption. This synergizes with bone resorption and renal reabsorption to elevate blood calcium. Vitamin D activation is essential for calcium homeostasis and skeletal health. PTH does not regulate carbohydrate metabolism. Its precise endocrine role highlights the interplay between hormones and vitamins in mineral regulation, ensuring systemic stability and preventing hypocalcemia.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which hormone inhibits osteoclast activity?
(A) Parathyroid hormone
(B) Thyrocalcitonin
(C) Glucagon
(D) Adrenaline
Explanation: Thyrocalcitonin is correct. Calcitonin suppresses osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, lowering blood calcium levels. It acts as a counter-regulatory hormone to PTH. Calcitonin does not influence carbohydrate metabolism. Its function is essential in maintaining calcium balance, skeletal density, and preventing hypercalcemia. Endocrine regulation of bone metabolism involves precise hormone interplay to balance bone resorption and formation, ensuring homeostasis without affecting glucose pathways.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Primary function of parathyroid hormone is:
(A) Carbohydrate metabolism
(B) Calcium and phosphate regulation
(C) Protein synthesis
(D) Fat metabolism
Explanation: Calcium and phosphate regulation is correct. PTH increases blood calcium via bone resorption, kidney reabsorption, and vitamin D activation. It also modulates phosphate excretion. Its role in mineral homeostasis is crucial for neuromuscular activity and skeletal integrity. PTH does not directly participate in carbohydrate or fat metabolism. Understanding its specific endocrine function highlights targeted regulation of essential minerals, maintaining systemic physiological stability and supporting multiple organ systems without interfering with glucose metabolism.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): PTH increases blood calcium levels.
Reason (R): It stimulates osteoclasts to resorb bone and enhances renal calcium reabsorption.
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, R is false
(D) A is false, R is true
Explanation: Option (A) is correct. PTH elevates blood calcium by activating osteoclast-mediated bone resorption and promoting renal calcium reabsorption. This maintains calcium homeostasis essential for neuromuscular function and skeletal integrity. The reason correctly explains the mechanism of action. PTH does not regulate carbohydrate metabolism. This illustrates hormone-specific regulation of minerals and the feedback control of endocrine pathways to sustain systemic stability.
8. Matching Type MCQ: Match the hormones with their primary effects:
1. PTH A. Lowers blood calcium
2. Thyrocalcitonin B. Increases blood calcium
3. Vitamin D C. Enhances intestinal calcium absorption
(A) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
(B) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
(C) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
(D) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
Explanation: Correct option is 1-B, 2-A, 3-C. PTH increases blood calcium by bone resorption and renal reabsorption (1-B). Calcitonin reduces blood calcium by inhibiting osteoclasts (2-A). Vitamin D enhances intestinal calcium absorption, complementing PTH (3-C). These coordinated hormonal actions maintain calcium-phosphate balance. They do not directly influence carbohydrate metabolism. This demonstrates integrated endocrine control over mineral homeostasis and skeletal health.
9. Fill in the Blanks / Completion MCQ: PTH increases blood calcium primarily by stimulating _______.
(A) Osteoclasts
(B) Osteoblasts
(C) Chondrocytes
(D) Fibroblasts
Explanation: Osteoclasts is correct. PTH stimulates osteoclasts to resorb bone matrix, releasing calcium and phosphate into blood. It also enhances renal calcium reabsorption and vitamin D activation. Osteoblasts form bone but are not primary targets of PTH for calcium release. This process maintains calcium homeostasis, supports skeletal integrity, and ensures neuromuscular function. PTH does not regulate carbohydrate metabolism. Its precise action illustrates hormone-specific physiological regulation of mineral balance.
10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
Statement I: PTH stimulates bone resorption and increases blood calcium.
Statement II: PTH and calcitonin regulate carbohydrate metabolism.
(A) Both I and II are correct
(B) Only I is correct
(C) Only II is correct
(D) Neither I nor II is correct
Explanation: Option (B) is correct. PTH increases blood calcium by stimulating osteoclast activity, enhancing renal reabsorption, and activating vitamin D. Calcitonin lowers calcium by inhibiting osteoclasts. Neither hormone is directly involved in carbohydrate metabolism. These statements clarify hormone-specific functions in calcium-phosphate regulation, skeletal maintenance, and mineral homeostasis, highlighting the endocrine system’s precision in controlling essential physiological processes without affecting glucose pathways.
Topic: Glands and Secretion; Subtopic: Exocrine and Endocrine Glands
Keyword Definitions:
• Goblet Cells: Unicellular exocrine glands that secrete mucus to protect and lubricate epithelial surfaces.
• Exocrine Glands: Glands that secrete substances through ducts to a body surface or cavity.
• Endocrine Glands: Ductless glands that release hormones directly into the bloodstream.
• Mucus: Viscous secretion that protects and lubricates epithelia.
• Cerumen: Earwax secreted by ceruminous glands in the ear canal.
• Unicellular Glands: Single-cell glands like goblet cells that secrete mucus.
• Multicellular Glands: Glands composed of multiple cells forming ducts or secretory units.
• Duct: A tube through which exocrine secretions are transported.
• Lubrication: The process of secreting mucus or fluid to reduce friction.
• Protection: Function of glandular secretions to prevent damage or infection.
• Secretion: Process of producing and releasing substances by glandular cells.
Lead Question - 2023 (Manipur)
Given below are two statements:
I: Goblet cells are unicellular glands
II: Earwax is the secretion of exocrine gland
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: goblet cells are unicellular exocrine glands that secrete mucus onto epithelial surfaces. Statement II is also correct: earwax or cerumen is secreted by ceruminous glands, which are exocrine in nature, releasing their secretion into the external auditory canal. Both statements accurately describe glandular structures and their secretions. Understanding the differences between unicellular and multicellular exocrine glands, as well as the role of ceruminous glands, is important for studying protective secretions in the human body. Hence, the correct option is 3.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which of the following is a unicellular exocrine gland?
1. Sweat gland
2. Goblet cell
3. Sebaceous gland
4. Salivary gland
Explanation:
Goblet cells are unicellular exocrine glands that secrete mucus to protect epithelial surfaces. Other options are multicellular glands with ducts. Correct answer is 2.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Earwax is secreted by:
1. Sebaceous glands
2. Ceruminous glands
3. Sweat glands
4. Goblet cells
Explanation:
Ceruminous glands are specialized exocrine glands in the ear canal that secrete earwax (cerumen), which protects the ear from dust, insects, and microbes. Correct answer is 2.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which secretion primarily lubricates respiratory epithelial surfaces?
1. Earwax
2. Sweat
3. Mucus
4. Sebum
Explanation:
Mucus secreted by goblet cells lubricates and protects respiratory tract epithelial surfaces from dust, pathogens, and mechanical damage. Correct answer is 3.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which of the following glands are ductless?
1. Salivary glands
2. Sweat glands
3. Endocrine glands
4. Ceruminous glands
Explanation:
Endocrine glands are ductless and secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. Other glands listed are exocrine with ducts. Correct answer is 3.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which gland secretes sebum?
1. Sebaceous gland
2. Goblet cell
3. Ceruminous gland
4. Sweat gland
Explanation:
Sebaceous glands are multicellular exocrine glands that secrete sebum to lubricate skin and hair. Goblet cells secrete mucus, ceruminous glands secrete earwax. Correct answer is 1.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Goblet cells are found in which tissue?
1. Connective tissue
2. Epithelial tissue
3. Muscle tissue
4. Nervous tissue
Explanation:
Goblet cells are unicellular exocrine glands located in epithelial tissue, especially in the lining of respiratory and digestive tracts. Correct answer is 2.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Ceruminous glands are exocrine in nature.
Reason (R): They secrete their product into ducts leading to the external auditory canal.
1. Both A and R are true and R explains A
2. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
3. A is true but R is false
4. Both A and R are false
Explanation:
Ceruminous glands secrete earwax into ducts opening in the ear canal, qualifying them as exocrine glands. Both statements are true, and R explains A. Correct answer is 1.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match the gland type with its secretion:
A. Goblet cell — (i) Mucus
B. Ceruminous gland — (ii) Earwax
C. Sebaceous gland — (iii) Sebum
D. Sweat gland — (iv) Sweat
1. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
2. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
3. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
4. A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
Explanation:
Correct matches: Goblet cell → Mucus, Ceruminous gland → Earwax, Sebaceous gland → Sebum, Sweat gland → Sweat. Correct option is 1.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
The secretion of goblet cells is called ______.
1. Sebum
2. Mucus
3. Cerumen
4. Sweat
Explanation:
Goblet cells secrete mucus, a viscous substance that lubricates and protects epithelial surfaces in the respiratory and digestive tracts. Correct answer is 2.
10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
Statement I: Goblet cells are unicellular exocrine glands.
Statement II: Ceruminous glands secrete their product via ducts.
1. Statement I only
2. Statement II only
3. Both statements are true
4. Both statements are false
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: goblet cells are unicellular exocrine glands. Statement II is correct: ceruminous glands secrete earwax through ducts into the external auditory canal. Hence, both statements are true. Correct answer is 3.
Topic: Endocrine Glands and Hormonal Functions; Subtopic: Hormonal Regulation and Disorders
Keyword Definitions:
Thyrocalcitonin (TCT): A hormone secreted by thyroid gland that lowers blood calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption.
FSH: Follicle Stimulating Hormone that controls gamete production in both sexes.
Glucocorticoids: Hormones secreted by adrenal cortex that help in carbohydrate metabolism and stress response.
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH): Regulates calcium and phosphate balance in the blood, not sodium levels.
Goitre: Enlargement of thyroid gland due to iodine deficiency or abnormal thyroid hormone levels.
Lead Question – 2023 (Manipur)
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the hormone and its function?
A: Thyrocalcitonin (TCT) regulates the blood calcium level
B: In males, FSH and androgens regulate spermatogenesis
C: Hyperthyroidism can lead to goitre
D: Glucocorticoids are secreted in Adrenal Medulla
E: Parathyroid hormone is regulated by circulated levels of sodium ions
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. (C) and (E) only
2. (A) and (B) only
3. (B) and (C) only
4. (A) and (D) only
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) (A) and (B) only. Thyrocalcitonin controls calcium levels, and FSH with androgens regulate spermatogenesis. Hyperthyroidism causes excessive thyroid hormone but not always goitre. Glucocorticoids are secreted by adrenal cortex, not medulla, and PTH is regulated by calcium levels, not sodium. Hence, only A and B are correct.
Guessed Question 1: Which hormone regulates calcium and phosphate metabolism in the human body?
1. Insulin
2. Parathyroid Hormone
3. Glucagon
4. Cortisol
Explanation: The correct answer is Parathyroid Hormone. It maintains calcium and phosphate homeostasis by increasing calcium reabsorption in kidneys, stimulating bone resorption, and enhancing intestinal absorption. Secreted by parathyroid glands, its secretion is regulated by blood calcium levels through negative feedback mechanisms for maintaining bone and neuromuscular functions.
Guessed Question 2: Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults leads to:
1. Gigantism
2. Cretinism
3. Acromegaly
4. Myxedema
Explanation: The correct answer is Acromegaly. Excess growth hormone after epiphyseal closure causes abnormal growth of bones in hands, feet, and face. Gigantism occurs before puberty, while cretinism and myxedema are due to thyroid hormone deficiency. Acromegaly is associated with pituitary adenoma affecting somatotroph cells.
Guessed Question 3: Adrenal medulla secretes:
1. Cortisol and Aldosterone
2. Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
3. Glucagon and Insulin
4. Thyroxine and Calcitonin
Explanation: The correct answer is Epinephrine and Norepinephrine. These are catecholamines that prepare the body for fight or flight response. They increase heart rate, blood pressure, and glucose levels. Cortisol and Aldosterone are secreted by the adrenal cortex, not medulla. Thus, option 2 correctly identifies the medullary hormones.
Guessed Question 4: Which hormone is directly regulated by blood calcium concentration?
1. Thyroxine
2. Parathyroid Hormone
3. Insulin
4. Glucocorticoids
Explanation: The correct answer is Parathyroid Hormone. It is secreted when calcium levels fall below normal. It acts on bones, kidneys, and intestines to increase calcium concentration. This negative feedback system ensures calcium balance essential for nerve transmission and muscle contraction.
Guessed Question 5: Identify the hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary:
1. Oxytocin
2. ADH
3. Prolactin
4. Melatonin
Explanation: The correct answer is Prolactin. Secreted by lactotroph cells of anterior pituitary, prolactin stimulates milk production post childbirth. Oxytocin and ADH are posterior pituitary hormones, while melatonin is secreted by pineal gland. Prolactin also influences immune regulation and reproductive functions.
Guessed Question 6: Which disorder is caused by hyposecretion of insulin?
1. Diabetes insipidus
2. Diabetes mellitus
3. Acromegaly
4. Addison’s disease
Explanation: The correct answer is Diabetes mellitus. It occurs due to reduced insulin production or sensitivity, leading to hyperglycemia, polyuria, and polydipsia. Insulin regulates glucose uptake and glycogen formation. Diabetes insipidus is related to ADH deficiency, while Addison’s disease affects adrenal cortex.
Guessed Question 7 (Assertion-Reason Type):
Assertion (A): Aldosterone helps in maintaining sodium balance.
Reason (R): Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion in distal tubules.
1. (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, (R) is false
4. (A) is false, (R) is true
Explanation: The correct answer is Option 1. Aldosterone secreted by adrenal cortex enhances sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion in renal tubules. This regulates extracellular fluid volume and blood pressure. Both statements are true and reason correctly explains the assertion.
Guessed Question 8 (Matching Type):
Match the hormones with their glands:
A. Insulin — (i) Adrenal cortex
B. Thyroxine — (ii) Thyroid
C. Cortisol — (iii) Pancreas
D. Melatonin — (iv) Pineal
1. A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv
2. A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv
3. A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
4. A–i, B–iv, C–ii, D–iii
Explanation: The correct answer is 1. A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv. Insulin is secreted by pancreas, thyroxine by thyroid, cortisol by adrenal cortex, and melatonin by pineal gland. Each hormone maintains homeostasis and regulates distinct physiological activities like metabolism, stress, and sleep cycle.
Guessed Question 9 (Fill in the Blanks):
______ hormone promotes reabsorption of water in kidney tubules to maintain body fluid balance.
1. Oxytocin
2. ADH
3. Cortisol
4. FSH
Explanation: The correct answer is ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone). Secreted by posterior pituitary, ADH increases water permeability of distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts, thus reducing urine volume and preventing dehydration. Its secretion increases during dehydration or high plasma osmolarity conditions.
Guessed Question 10 (Choose the Correct Statements):
Statement I: Glucagon increases blood glucose levels.
Statement II: Insulin promotes glucose uptake by cells.
1. Both statements are true.
2. Both statements are false.
3. Only Statement I is true.
4. Only Statement II is true.
Explanation: The correct answer is 1. Both statements are true. Glucagon from α-cells increases glucose by glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, while insulin from β-cells lowers glucose by promoting its uptake. Both act antagonistically to maintain glucose homeostasis essential for metabolic stability.
Topic: Gametogenesis and Hormonal Regulation; Subtopic: Hormonal Control of Spermatogenesis
Keyword Definitions:
Gonadotropin: Hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary that regulate the function of gonads (FSH and LH).
FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone): Stimulates Sertoli cells and promotes spermiogenesis in males.
LH (Luteinizing Hormone): Stimulates Leydig cells in testes to produce androgens like testosterone.
GnRH (Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone): Secreted from hypothalamus to regulate release of FSH and LH.
Androgens: Male sex hormones responsible for spermatogenesis and development of secondary sexual characters.
Spermatogenesis: Process of formation of sperm cells from spermatogonia.
Spermiogenesis: Final maturation process of spermatids into spermatozoa.
Lead Question - 2023 (Manipur)
Arrange the sequence of different hormones for their role during gametogenesis:
A. Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and secretion of Androgen
B. Gonadotropin releasing hormone from hypothalamus
C. Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis
D. Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of spermiogenesis
E. Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (E), (A), (D), (B), (C)
2. (C), (A), (D), (E), (B)
3. (B), (E), (A), (C), (D)
4. (D), (B), (A), (C), (E)
Explanation: The hormonal regulation of spermatogenesis begins with GnRH from the hypothalamus (B) which stimulates anterior pituitary (E) to secrete gonadotropins FSH and LH. LH (A) stimulates Leydig cells to secrete androgens that trigger spermatogenesis (C). FSH (D) helps in spermiogenesis. Hence, the correct sequence is (B), (E), (A), (C), (D).
Guessed Question 1: Which hormone stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone?
1. FSH 2. LH 3. GnRH 4. Prolactin
Explanation: Luteinizing Hormone (LH) acts on Leydig cells in the testes to promote the synthesis and secretion of testosterone. Testosterone further stimulates spermatogenesis in seminiferous tubules. FSH acts on Sertoli cells, whereas GnRH from the hypothalamus regulates both FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary gland.
Guessed Question 2: Which of the following is secreted by Sertoli cells?
1. Testosterone 2. Inhibin 3. LH 4. GnRH
Explanation: Sertoli cells secrete inhibin, a hormone that provides negative feedback to the anterior pituitary to regulate FSH secretion. They also help in nurturing developing spermatogenic cells and facilitate spermiogenesis. Testosterone is secreted by Leydig cells under LH stimulation from the anterior pituitary gland.
Guessed Question 3: FSH in males is primarily responsible for:
1. Development of secondary sexual characters
2. Spermatogenesis
3. Spermiogenesis
4. Testosterone secretion
Explanation: Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) acts on Sertoli cells of the seminiferous tubules and promotes spermiogenesis — the final maturation of spermatids into spermatozoa. LH, on the other hand, acts on Leydig cells to produce testosterone. Thus, FSH’s role is crucial in sperm maturation and reproductive function.
Guessed Question 4: Which of the following acts as a feedback regulator of FSH secretion?
1. Inhibin 2. Testosterone 3. Progesterone 4. Estrogen
Explanation: Inhibin, produced by Sertoli cells in males, specifically inhibits FSH secretion from the anterior pituitary gland through a negative feedback mechanism. Testosterone regulates LH secretion, whereas inhibin selectively controls FSH levels, ensuring balanced spermatogenesis and hormonal control of male reproduction.
Guessed Question 5: Identify the correct sequence of spermatogenic stages:
1. Spermatid → Spermatogonia → Spermatozoa
2. Spermatogonia → Spermatocyte → Spermatid → Spermatozoa
3. Spermatocyte → Spermatogonia → Spermatid → Spermatozoa
4. Spermatogonia → Spermatid → Spermatocyte → Spermatozoa
Explanation: Spermatogenesis begins with spermatogonia which divide mitotically to form primary spermatocytes. These undergo meiosis to produce spermatids, which further differentiate into spermatozoa during spermiogenesis. Thus, the correct order of stages is Spermatogonia → Spermatocyte → Spermatid → Spermatozoa.
Guessed Question 6: Which of the following hormones is secreted by the hypothalamus?
1. GnRH 2. LH 3. FSH 4. Testosterone
Explanation: Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH) is secreted by the hypothalamus. It stimulates the anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH, which regulate testicular function. LH acts on Leydig cells, and FSH acts on Sertoli cells, together ensuring proper hormonal control of spermatogenesis in males.
Assertion-Reason Type Question:
Assertion (A): LH stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone.
Reason (R): Testosterone inhibits FSH secretion from the anterior pituitary.
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.
Explanation: LH indeed stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone, which provides negative feedback on LH secretion, not FSH. FSH is mainly regulated by inhibin from Sertoli cells. Hence, Assertion is true, but the Reason is false. The correct answer is option 3.
Matching Type Question:
Match the hormones with their function:
A. LH
B. FSH
C. Testosterone
D. Inhibin
1. Stimulates Sertoli cells
2. Regulates secondary sexual traits
3. Inhibits FSH
4. Stimulates Leydig cells
Codes: A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
Explanation: LH acts on Leydig cells to promote testosterone secretion. FSH stimulates Sertoli cells to support spermatogenesis. Testosterone regulates male secondary sexual traits, and inhibin inhibits FSH. Correct matching is A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3.
Fill in the Blanks Type Question:
________ secreted from Sertoli cells provides negative feedback to control FSH secretion.
1. Testosterone 2. Inhibin 3. Estrogen 4. LH
Explanation: Inhibin is secreted by Sertoli cells and inhibits FSH secretion by acting on the anterior pituitary gland. This feedback mechanism maintains hormonal balance during spermatogenesis. Testosterone mainly regulates LH secretion, while estrogen has a minor role in males.
Choose the Correct Statements Type Question:
Statement I: FSH acts on Leydig cells to produce testosterone.
Statement II: LH acts on Leydig cells to produce testosterone.
1. Both statements are true.
2. Both statements are false.
3. Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
4. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
Explanation: LH, not FSH, acts on Leydig cells to produce testosterone, which promotes spermatogenesis. FSH instead acts on Sertoli cells to assist in spermiogenesis and secretes inhibin. Therefore, Statement I is false and Statement II is true. The correct answer is option 4.
Subtopic: Hormonal Regulation of Gametogenesis
Keyword Definitions:
Gametogenesis: The process by which male and female gametes (sperm and ova) are produced through meiosis and differentiation.
LH (Luteinizing Hormone): Gonadotropin hormone from anterior pituitary stimulating testosterone production in males and ovulation in females.
FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone): Gonadotropin that stimulates spermatogenesis in males and follicular development in females.
GnRH (Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone): Hormone secreted by hypothalamus controlling the release of FSH and LH from anterior pituitary.
Androgen: Male sex hormones like testosterone that stimulate spermatogenesis.
Spermiogenesis: The final stage of spermatogenesis where spermatids differentiate into mature spermatozoa.
Spermatogenesis: Process of formation of sperm cells from spermatogonia under hormonal control.
Anterior Pituitary: Endocrine gland secreting FSH and LH essential for reproductive function.
Lead Question – 2023 (Manipur)
Arrange the sequence of different hormones for their role during gametogenesis:
A. Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and secretion of Androgen
B. Gonadotropin releasing hormone from hypothalamus
C. Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis
D. Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of spermiogenesis
E. Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland
Explanation: The sequence of hormonal events during gametogenesis starts with GnRH from hypothalamus (B), which stimulates gonadotropins release from anterior pituitary (E). LH specifically stimulates androgen synthesis (A), which promotes spermatogenesis (C). FSH helps in spermiogenesis (D). Correct sequential order of hormonal action is: B → E → A → C → D. This pathway ensures proper maturation of gametes through coordinated endocrine control. Correct answer: B, E, A, C, D.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which hormone directly stimulates testosterone production in males?
1. FSH
2. LH
3. GnRH
4. Prolactin
Explanation: Luteinizing Hormone (LH) secreted by anterior pituitary stimulates Leydig cells in testes to produce testosterone, which is essential for spermatogenesis and secondary sexual characteristics. Correct answer: 2. LH.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
FSH primarily supports which stage in male reproduction?
1. Spermatogenesis
2. Spermiogenesis
3. Androgen synthesis
4. Ovulation
Explanation: Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) promotes the final maturation of spermatids into spermatozoa during spermiogenesis by acting on Sertoli cells. Correct answer: 2. Spermiogenesis.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which hormone is secreted by hypothalamus to regulate pituitary gonadotropins?
1. Testosterone
2. FSH
3. LH
4. GnRH
Explanation: Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) from hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH, regulating gametogenesis. Correct answer: 4. GnRH.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Androgens primarily act on:
1. Hypothalamus
2. Pituitary
3. Testes
4. Sertoli cells
Explanation: Androgens, mainly testosterone, act on the testes to promote spermatogenesis and on Sertoli cells indirectly, supporting sperm maturation and male secondary sexual characteristics. Correct answer: 3. Testes.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which hormone triggers both FSH and LH secretion?
1. Testosterone
2. GnRH
3. Inhibin
4. Estrogen
Explanation: GnRH from hypothalamus stimulates anterior pituitary to secrete both FSH and LH, initiating gametogenesis and regulating male reproductive functions. Correct answer: 2. GnRH.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
LH acts mainly on:
1. Sertoli cells
2. Leydig cells
3. Hypothalamus
4. Seminiferous tubules
Explanation: LH binds Leydig cells in the testes, stimulating androgen (testosterone) production crucial for spermatogenesis and male secondary sexual characteristics. Correct answer: 2. Leydig cells.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): GnRH stimulates anterior pituitary to release gonadotropins.
Reason (R): Gonadotropins directly act on hypothalamus.
1. Both A and R true, R explains A
2. Both A and R true, R does not explain A
3. A true, R false
4. A false, R true
Explanation: GnRH stimulates anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH. Gonadotropins act on gonads, not hypothalamus. Correct answer: 3. A true, R false.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match hormone with function:
A. GnRH – (i) Stimulates pituitary
B. LH – (ii) Androgen synthesis
C. FSH – (iii) Spermiogenesis
D. Androgen – (iv) Spermatogenesis
1. A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
2. A–i, B–iii, C–ii, D–iv
3. A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
4. A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii
Explanation: GnRH stimulates pituitary, LH triggers androgen synthesis, FSH promotes spermiogenesis, Androgens stimulate spermatogenesis. Correct answer: 1.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
__________ from hypothalamus controls __________ and LH secretion, which in turn stimulates __________ production.
1. GnRH, FSH, androgen
2. FSH, GnRH, estrogen
3. LH, GnRH, testosterone
4. Androgen, LH, GnRH
Explanation: GnRH from hypothalamus stimulates FSH and LH release from pituitary; LH then triggers androgen production in Leydig cells. Correct answer: 1.
10. Choose the Correct Statements MCQ:
Statement I: FSH helps in spermiogenesis.
Statement II: Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis.
1. Both true
2. Both false
3. I true, II false
4. I false, II true
Explanation: FSH acts on Sertoli cells to promote spermiogenesis; Androgens stimulate spermatogenesis in testes. Both statements are correct. Correct answer: 1.
Topic: Endocrine System; Subtopic: Thyroid Hormone Functions
Keyword Definitions:
Thyroid hormone: Hormones produced by the thyroid gland, mainly thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), regulating metabolism.
Basal metabolic rate (BMR): The rate of energy expenditure of the body at rest.
Sleep-wake cycle: Circadian rhythm regulating periods of sleep and wakefulness.
Water and electrolyte balance: Regulation of fluid and ion concentrations in body.
RBC formation: Production of red blood cells, also called erythropoiesis.
Metabolism: Chemical processes maintaining life and energy production.
Endocrine control: Hormonal regulation of physiological processes.
Triiodothyronine (T3): Active thyroid hormone regulating growth and metabolism.
Thyroxine (T4): Precursor of T3, regulates metabolic activity.
Homeostasis: Maintenance of stable internal environment.
Hormone deficiency: Inadequate secretion of a hormone affecting body function.
Lead Question (2023):
Which of the following are NOT under the control of thyroid hormone?
A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance
B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate
C. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle
D. Support the process of RBC formation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) C and D only
(2) D and E only
(3) A and D only
(4) B and C only
Answer & Explanation: Option 3 is correct. Thyroid hormones regulate basal metabolic rate, energy expenditure, and growth, but they do not directly control water-electrolyte balance (regulated by ADH, aldosterone) or RBC formation (regulated primarily by erythropoietin). Sleep-wake cycles are influenced by melatonin and circadian rhythms. Understanding the specific physiological roles of thyroid hormones is critical in endocrinology, for diagnosing hypo- or hyperthyroidism, and differentiating hormonal effects from those of other endocrine glands in maintaining overall homeostasis in the body.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which hormone primarily regulates basal metabolic rate?
A) Thyroid hormone
B) Insulin
C) Cortisol
D) Growth hormone
Answer & Explanation: Option A is correct. Thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) increase basal metabolic rate by enhancing oxygen consumption, protein synthesis, and energy production. Insulin regulates glucose metabolism, cortisol affects stress response, and growth hormone influences growth and tissue repair. Proper thyroid function is crucial for energy homeostasis, thermogenesis, and maintaining normal metabolism in all tissues.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Excess thyroid hormone causes which condition?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Addison's disease
D) Cretinism
Answer & Explanation: Option B is correct. Hyperthyroidism results from excessive thyroid hormone production, causing weight loss, increased metabolism, heat intolerance, tachycardia, and nervousness. Hypothyroidism is due to deficiency, Addison's disease affects adrenal glands, and cretinism results from congenital thyroid hormone deficiency. Understanding hormone excess or deficiency is key for diagnosing endocrine disorders and managing metabolism-related complications.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which gland secretes thyroid hormones?
A) Pituitary gland
B) Thyroid gland
C) Adrenal gland
D) Parathyroid gland
Answer & Explanation: Option B is correct. The thyroid gland secretes thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), regulating metabolism, growth, and development. Pituitary secretes TSH controlling thyroid function, adrenal glands secrete cortisol and aldosterone, and parathyroid regulates calcium levels. Correct identification of hormone sources is essential for understanding endocrine feedback mechanisms and managing related disorders effectively.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which of the following is a symptom of hypothyroidism?
A) Weight loss
B) Heat intolerance
C) Fatigue and cold intolerance
D) Tachycardia
Answer & Explanation: Option C is correct. Hypothyroidism decreases basal metabolic rate, causing fatigue, lethargy, cold intolerance, weight gain, and bradycardia. Weight loss and tachycardia are features of hyperthyroidism, and heat intolerance is associated with excessive thyroid hormone. Recognizing symptoms is vital for early diagnosis, appropriate hormone replacement therapy, and preventing complications like myxedema or growth retardation in children.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which hormone stimulates RBC formation indirectly?
A) Thyroid hormone
B) Erythropoietin
C) Cortisol
D) Parathyroid hormone
Answer & Explanation: Option B is correct. Erythropoietin, produced by kidneys, stimulates RBC production in bone marrow. Thyroid hormones enhance metabolism but do not directly induce erythropoiesis. Cortisol affects stress response, and parathyroid hormone regulates calcium. Understanding hormone specificity is crucial to distinguish metabolic regulation from hematopoietic control in physiology and clinical medicine.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which hormone regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism?
A) Thyroid hormone
B) Parathyroid hormone
C) TSH
D) Calcitonin
Answer & Explanation: Option B is correct. Parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium by stimulating bone resorption and renal calcium reabsorption. Thyroid hormones regulate metabolism, TSH stimulates thyroid gland, and calcitonin lowers calcium. Knowledge of hormone-specific functions helps in diagnosing endocrine imbalances and managing bone, mineral, and metabolic disorders effectively.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Thyroid hormone does not regulate water-electrolyte balance.
Reason (R): ADH and aldosterone primarily control water and sodium levels.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true
Answer & Explanation: Option A is correct. Thyroid hormones influence metabolism and energy regulation but do not directly control water and electrolyte balance. ADH from the posterior pituitary and aldosterone from adrenal cortex regulate fluid and sodium homeostasis. Understanding distinct hormone roles is critical for differentiating endocrine feedback systems and clinical evaluation of disorders like dehydration, hyponatremia, or thyroid dysfunction.
8. Matching Type MCQ: Match hormones with primary function:
List I - List II
A. Thyroid hormone - I. Regulates metabolism
B. ADH - II. Regulates water balance
C. Aldosterone - III. Regulates sodium reabsorption
Choose correct option:
1) A-I, B-II, C-III
2) A-II, B-I, C-III
3) A-III, B-II, C-I
4) A-I, B-III, C-II
Answer & Explanation: Option 1 is correct. Thyroid hormone regulates metabolism (A-I), ADH controls water balance (B-II), and aldosterone regulates sodium reabsorption (C-III). Matching hormones to their specific physiological roles is essential to understand homeostasis, endocrine regulation, and the differentiation of metabolic versus electrolyte control mechanisms in clinical and physiological contexts.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ: The ________ gland secretes TSH which stimulates thyroid hormone release.
A) Thyroid
B) Pituitary
C) Adrenal
D) Parathyroid
Answer & Explanation: Option B is correct. TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone) is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid to release T3 and T4. The thyroid produces the hormones, adrenal glands secrete cortisol/aldosterone, and parathyroid regulates calcium. Understanding this feedback loop is crucial for managing thyroid disorders and interpreting endocrine physiology.
10. Choose the Correct Statements MCQ:
Statement I: Thyroid hormone regulates basal metabolic rate.
Statement II: Thyroid hormone directly regulates RBC formation.
A) Both statements are correct
B) Both statements are incorrect
C) Only Statement I is correct
D) Only Statement II is correct
Answer & Explanation: Option C is correct. Thyroid hormones increase basal metabolic rate by stimulating energy production and oxygen consumption. They do not directly control RBC formation, which is mainly regulated by erythropoietin from the kidneys. Differentiating these functions is critical in endocrine physiology, disease diagnosis, and understanding hormone-specific systemic effects on metabolism, growth, and homeostasis.
Keyword Definitions:
CCK (Cholecystokinin): A digestive hormone secreted by the small intestine to stimulate the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the gallbladder.
GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide): Hormone released by the small intestine that inhibits gastric motility and stimulates insulin secretion.
ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor): Hormone produced by the atria of the heart to regulate blood pressure by promoting sodium excretion in kidneys.
ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone): Hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary that regulates water balance by acting on the kidneys.
Pancreas: Endocrine and exocrine gland producing insulin, glucagon, and digestive enzymes.
Kidney: Organ responsible for filtering blood, producing urine, and maintaining water and electrolyte balance.
Heart: Muscular organ that pumps blood and produces hormones like ANF for regulating blood pressure.
Gastric Gland: Gastric secretory glands in the stomach producing enzymes and acids for digestion.
Hormone: Chemical messenger secreted by endocrine glands regulating physiological processes.
Target Organ: Specific organ or tissue on which a hormone exerts its effect.
Endocrine System: System of glands secreting hormones directly into the bloodstream to regulate body functions.
Lead Question - 2023
Match List I with List II.
List I | List II
A. CCK | I. Kidney
B. GIP | II. Heart
C. ANF | III. Gastric gland
D. ADH | IV. Pancreas
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Answer & Explanation: (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I.
CCK (Cholecystokinin) is secreted by the small intestine and acts on the gastric glands to stimulate enzyme secretion. GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide) acts on the heart to modulate cardiac functions indirectly. ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor) targets the kidney to increase sodium excretion and lower blood pressure. ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone) also targets the kidney to retain water. Understanding these hormone-target relationships is critical for comprehending physiological regulation of digestion, blood pressure, and water balance. The structural specificity of each hormone ensures precise action on its corresponding target organ.
1. Which hormone primarily regulates water balance in the body?
(1) ANF
(2) ADH
(3) GIP
(4) CCK
ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone) regulates water balance by acting on the kidneys to retain water, reducing urine output. ANF promotes sodium excretion, CCK stimulates digestive enzyme release, and GIP influences insulin secretion. ADH’s role is critical in maintaining osmotic pressure and preventing dehydration, demonstrating hormonal control of homeostasis.
2. Which hormone stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion?
(1) GIP
(2) ADH
(3) CCK
(4) ANF
CCK (Cholecystokinin) stimulates the pancreas to release digestive enzymes and the gallbladder to secrete bile. This process is essential for protein and fat digestion in the small intestine. GIP regulates insulin, ADH affects water retention, and ANF modulates blood pressure, highlighting specific organ-targeted hormonal action.
3. ANF is secreted by which organ?
(1) Kidney
(2) Heart
(3) Pancreas
(4) Stomach
ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor) is secreted by the atria of the heart. It lowers blood pressure by promoting sodium excretion in the kidneys and reducing blood volume. This hormone is part of the cardiovascular-endocrine interaction to maintain homeostasis, in contrast to digestive or water balance hormones like CCK or ADH.
4. Assertion-Reason Type:
Assertion (A): GIP regulates insulin secretion.
Reason (R): GIP is released from the small intestine in response to glucose and fatty acids in the duodenum.
(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A
(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Both A and R are true and R explains A. GIP is secreted by the duodenal mucosa when nutrients enter, particularly glucose and lipids. It stimulates insulin release from pancreatic beta cells, linking nutrient detection to metabolic response. This incretin effect is vital for controlling postprandial blood glucose.
5. Fill in the blanks:
______ stimulates bile and pancreatic enzyme secretion, whereas ______ increases water reabsorption in kidneys.
(1) CCK, ADH
(2) GIP, ANF
(3) ANF, ADH
(4) ADH, CCK
CCK stimulates bile release from the gallbladder and pancreatic enzyme secretion for digestion. ADH acts on the kidney to increase water reabsorption, reducing urine output. This demonstrates hormone-specific targeting and functional specialization within the endocrine system.
6. Which hormone targets the gastric gland to regulate digestion?
(1) ADH
(2) ANF
(3) CCK
(4) GIP
CCK indirectly affects gastric glands by stimulating enzyme release for digestion. While GIP inhibits gastric motility, ADH regulates water, and ANF regulates sodium excretion. CCK coordinates digestive secretions in response to food in the duodenum, facilitating nutrient breakdown efficiently.
7. Which hormone is directly involved in lowering blood pressure?
(1) ADH
(2) ANF
(3) CCK
(4) GIP
ANF lowers blood pressure by promoting sodium and water excretion via the kidneys, reducing blood volume. ADH increases water retention, potentially raising blood pressure. CCK and GIP mainly influence digestion and insulin regulation, highlighting the cardiovascular-specific role of ANF.
8. Matching Type:
Match the hormone with its primary target:
List I | List II
A. ADH | I. Pancreas
B. ANF | II. Kidney
C. CCK | III. Gastric gland
D. GIP | IV. Heart
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Answer: (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I. ADH acts on the kidney to regulate water reabsorption. ANF targets the heart to modulate blood pressure. CCK stimulates gastric glands and pancreas for digestion. GIP affects insulin secretion via the pancreas. This matching illustrates precise hormone-target specificity in human physiology.
9. Choose the correct statements:
Statement I: ADH increases water retention in kidneys.
Statement II: ANF promotes sodium excretion and lowers blood pressure.
(1) Only Statement I is correct
(2) Only Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statements I and II are correct
(4) Both Statements I and II are false
Both statements are correct. ADH increases water reabsorption in renal collecting ducts, conserving body water. ANF promotes natriuresis (sodium excretion) and decreases blood volume, thereby reducing blood pressure. These complementary hormonal mechanisms maintain fluid balance and cardiovascular homeostasis.
10. Single Correct Answer:
Which hormone inhibits gastric motility while stimulating insulin secretion?
(1) CCK
(2) GIP
(3) ANF
(4) ADH
GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide) inhibits gastric motility and stimulates insulin secretion after food intake. This incretin effect coordinates digestion with glucose metabolism. CCK stimulates enzyme secretion, ANF affects sodium excretion, and ADH regulates water retention. GIP thus integrates nutrient sensing with endocrine response.
11. Single Correct Answer:
Which hormone stimulates enzyme secretion from pancreas and bile release from gallbladder?
(1) ADH
(2) ANF
(3) CCK
(4) GIP
CCK stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion and gallbladder contraction to release bile, facilitating fat and protein digestion. ADH and ANF regulate water and sodium balance, respectively, while GIP primarily influences insulin secretion. CCK ensures efficient chemical digestion through coordinated secretory responses.
Topic: Endocrine System; Subtopic: Thyroid Hormone Functions
Keyword Definitions:
Thyroid hormone: Hormones produced by the thyroid gland, mainly thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), regulating metabolism.
Basal metabolic rate (BMR): The rate of energy expenditure of the body at rest.
Sleep-wake cycle: Circadian rhythm regulating periods of sleep and wakefulness.
Water and electrolyte balance: Regulation of fluid and ion concentrations in body.
RBC formation: Production of red blood cells, also called erythropoiesis.
Metabolism: Chemical processes maintaining life and energy production.
Endocrine control: Hormonal regulation of physiological processes.
Triiodothyronine (T3): Active thyroid hormone regulating growth and metabolism.
Thyroxine (T4): Precursor of T3, regulates metabolic activity.
Homeostasis: Maintenance of stable internal environment.
Hormone deficiency: Inadequate secretion of a hormone affecting body function.
Lead Question (2023):
Which of the following are NOT under the control of thyroid hormone?
A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance
B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate
C. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle
D. Support the process of RBC formation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) C and D only
(2) D and E only
(3) A and D only
(4) B and C only
Answer & Explanation: Option 3 is correct. Thyroid hormones regulate basal metabolic rate, energy expenditure, and growth, but they do not directly control water-electrolyte balance (regulated by ADH, aldosterone) or RBC formation (regulated primarily by erythropoietin). Sleep-wake cycles are influenced by melatonin and circadian rhythms. Understanding the specific physiological roles of thyroid hormones is critical in endocrinology, for diagnosing hypo- or hyperthyroidism, and differentiating hormonal effects from those of other endocrine glands in maintaining overall homeostasis in the body.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which hormone primarily regulates basal metabolic rate?
A) Thyroid hormone
B) Insulin
C) Cortisol
D) Growth hormone
Answer & Explanation: Option A is correct. Thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) increase basal metabolic rate by enhancing oxygen consumption, protein synthesis, and energy production. Insulin regulates glucose metabolism, cortisol affects stress response, and growth hormone influences growth and tissue repair. Proper thyroid function is crucial for energy homeostasis, thermogenesis, and maintaining normal metabolism in all tissues.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Excess thyroid hormone causes which condition?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Addison's disease
D) Cretinism
Answer & Explanation: Option B is correct. Hyperthyroidism results from excessive thyroid hormone production, causing weight loss, increased metabolism, heat intolerance, tachycardia, and nervousness. Hypothyroidism is due to deficiency, Addison's disease affects adrenal glands, and cretinism results from congenital thyroid hormone deficiency. Understanding hormone excess or deficiency is key for diagnosing endocrine disorders and managing metabolism-related complications.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which gland secretes thyroid hormones?
A) Pituitary gland
B) Thyroid gland
C) Adrenal gland
D) Parathyroid gland
Answer & Explanation: Option B is correct. The thyroid gland secretes thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), regulating metabolism, growth, and development. Pituitary secretes TSH controlling thyroid function, adrenal glands secrete cortisol and aldosterone, and parathyroid regulates calcium levels. Correct identification of hormone sources is essential for understanding endocrine feedback mechanisms and managing related disorders effectively.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which of the following is a symptom of hypothyroidism?
A) Weight loss
B) Heat intolerance
C) Fatigue and cold intolerance
D) Tachycardia
Answer & Explanation: Option C is correct. Hypothyroidism decreases basal metabolic rate, causing fatigue, lethargy, cold intolerance, weight gain, and bradycardia. Weight loss and tachycardia are features of hyperthyroidism, and heat intolerance is associated with excessive thyroid hormone. Recognizing symptoms is vital for early diagnosis, appropriate hormone replacement therapy, and preventing complications like myxedema or growth retardation in children.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which hormone stimulates RBC formation indirectly?
A) Thyroid hormone
B) Erythropoietin
C) Cortisol
D) Parathyroid hormone
Answer & Explanation: Option B is correct. Erythropoietin, produced by kidneys, stimulates RBC production in bone marrow. Thyroid hormones enhance metabolism but do not directly induce erythropoiesis. Cortisol affects stress response, and parathyroid hormone regulates calcium. Understanding hormone specificity is crucial to distinguish metabolic regulation from hematopoietic control in physiology and clinical medicine.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which hormone regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism?
A) Thyroid hormone
B) Parathyroid hormone
C) TSH
D) Calcitonin
Answer & Explanation: Option B is correct. Parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium by stimulating bone resorption and renal calcium reabsorption. Thyroid hormones regulate metabolism, TSH stimulates thyroid gland, and calcitonin lowers calcium. Knowledge of hormone-specific functions helps in diagnosing endocrine imbalances and managing bone, mineral, and metabolic disorders effectively.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Thyroid hormone does not regulate water-electrolyte balance.
Reason (R): ADH and aldosterone primarily control water and sodium levels.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true
Answer & Explanation: Option A is correct. Thyroid hormones influence metabolism and energy regulation but do not directly control water and electrolyte balance. ADH from the posterior pituitary and aldosterone from adrenal cortex regulate fluid and sodium homeostasis. Understanding distinct hormone roles is critical for differentiating endocrine feedback systems and clinical evaluation of disorders like dehydration, hyponatremia, or thyroid dysfunction.
8. Matching Type MCQ: Match hormones with primary function:
List I - List II
A. Thyroid hormone - I. Regulates metabolism
B. ADH - II. Regulates water balance
C. Aldosterone - III. Regulates sodium reabsorption
Choose correct option:
1) A-I, B-II, C-III
2) A-II, B-I, C-III
3) A-III, B-II, C-I
4) A-I, B-III, C-II
Answer & Explanation: Option 1 is correct. Thyroid hormone regulates metabolism (A-I), ADH controls water balance (B-II), and aldosterone regulates sodium reabsorption (C-III). Matching hormones to their specific physiological roles is essential to understand homeostasis, endocrine regulation, and the differentiation of metabolic versus electrolyte control mechanisms in clinical and physiological contexts.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ: The ________ gland secretes TSH which stimulates thyroid hormone release.
A) Thyroid
B) Pituitary
C) Adrenal
D) Parathyroid
Answer & Explanation: Option B is correct. TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone) is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid to release T3 and T4. The thyroid produces the hormones, adrenal glands secrete cortisol/aldosterone, and parathyroid regulates calcium. Understanding this feedback loop is crucial for managing thyroid disorders and interpreting endocrine physiology.
10. Choose the Correct Statements MCQ:
Statement I: Thyroid hormone regulates basal metabolic rate.
Statement II: Thyroid hormone directly regulates RBC formation.
A) Both statements are correct
B) Both statements are incorrect
C) Only Statement I is correct
D) Only Statement II is correct
Answer & Explanation: Option C is correct. Thyroid hormones increase basal metabolic rate by stimulating energy production and oxygen consumption. They do not directly control RBC formation, which is mainly regulated by erythropoietin from the kidneys. Differentiating these functions is critical in endocrine physiology, disease diagnosis, and understanding hormone-specific systemic effects on metabolism, growth, and homeostasis.
Keyword Definitions:
CCK (Cholecystokinin): A digestive hormone secreted by the small intestine to stimulate the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the gallbladder.
GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide): Hormone released by the small intestine that inhibits gastric motility and stimulates insulin secretion.
ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor): Hormone produced by the atria of the heart to regulate blood pressure by promoting sodium excretion in kidneys.
ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone): Hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary that regulates water balance by acting on the kidneys.
Pancreas: Endocrine and exocrine gland producing insulin, glucagon, and digestive enzymes.
Kidney: Organ responsible for filtering blood, producing urine, and maintaining water and electrolyte balance.
Heart: Muscular organ that pumps blood and produces hormones like ANF for regulating blood pressure.
Gastric Gland: Gastric secretory glands in the stomach producing enzymes and acids for digestion.
Hormone: Chemical messenger secreted by endocrine glands regulating physiological processes.
Target Organ: Specific organ or tissue on which a hormone exerts its effect.
Endocrine System: System of glands secreting hormones directly into the bloodstream to regulate body functions.
Lead Question - 2023
Match List I with List II.
List I | List II
A. CCK | I. Kidney
B. GIP | II. Heart
C. ANF | III. Gastric gland
D. ADH | IV. Pancreas
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Answer & Explanation: (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I.
CCK (Cholecystokinin) is secreted by the small intestine and acts on the gastric glands to stimulate enzyme secretion. GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide) acts on the heart to modulate cardiac functions indirectly. ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor) targets the kidney to increase sodium excretion and lower blood pressure. ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone) also targets the kidney to retain water. Understanding these hormone-target relationships is critical for comprehending physiological regulation of digestion, blood pressure, and water balance. The structural specificity of each hormone ensures precise action on its corresponding target organ.
1. Which hormone primarily regulates water balance in the body?
(1) ANF
(2) ADH
(3) GIP
(4) CCK
ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone) regulates water balance by acting on the kidneys to retain water, reducing urine output. ANF promotes sodium excretion, CCK stimulates digestive enzyme release, and GIP influences insulin secretion. ADH’s role is critical in maintaining osmotic pressure and preventing dehydration, demonstrating hormonal control of homeostasis.
2. Which hormone stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion?
(1) GIP
(2) ADH
(3) CCK
(4) ANF
CCK (Cholecystokinin) stimulates the pancreas to release digestive enzymes and the gallbladder to secrete bile. This process is essential for protein and fat digestion in the small intestine. GIP regulates insulin, ADH affects water retention, and ANF modulates blood pressure, highlighting specific organ-targeted hormonal action.
3. ANF is secreted by which organ?
(1) Kidney
(2) Heart
(3) Pancreas
(4) Stomach
ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor) is secreted by the atria of the heart. It lowers blood pressure by promoting sodium excretion in the kidneys and reducing blood volume. This hormone is part of the cardiovascular-endocrine interaction to maintain homeostasis, in contrast to digestive or water balance hormones like CCK or ADH.
4. Assertion-Reason Type:
Assertion (A): GIP regulates insulin secretion.
Reason (R): GIP is released from the small intestine in response to glucose and fatty acids in the duodenum.
(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A
(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Both A and R are true and R explains A. GIP is secreted by the duodenal mucosa when nutrients enter, particularly glucose and lipids. It stimulates insulin release from pancreatic beta cells, linking nutrient detection to metabolic response. This incretin effect is vital for controlling postprandial blood glucose.
5. Fill in the blanks:
______ stimulates bile and pancreatic enzyme secretion, whereas ______ increases water reabsorption in kidneys.
(1) CCK, ADH
(2) GIP, ANF
(3) ANF, ADH
(4) ADH, CCK
CCK stimulates bile release from the gallbladder and pancreatic enzyme secretion for digestion. ADH acts on the kidney to increase water reabsorption, reducing urine output. This demonstrates hormone-specific targeting and functional specialization within the endocrine system.
6. Which hormone targets the gastric gland to regulate digestion?
(1) ADH
(2) ANF
(3) CCK
(4) GIP
CCK indirectly affects gastric glands by stimulating enzyme release for digestion. While GIP inhibits gastric motility, ADH regulates water, and ANF regulates sodium excretion. CCK coordinates digestive secretions in response to food in the duodenum, facilitating nutrient breakdown efficiently.
7. Which hormone is directly involved in lowering blood pressure?
(1) ADH
(2) ANF
(3) CCK
(4) GIP
ANF lowers blood pressure by promoting sodium and water excretion via the kidneys, reducing blood volume. ADH increases water retention, potentially raising blood pressure. CCK and GIP mainly influence digestion and insulin regulation, highlighting the cardiovascular-specific role of ANF.
8. Matching Type:
Match the hormone with its primary target:
List I | List II
A. ADH | I. Pancreas
B. ANF | II. Kidney
C. CCK | III. Gastric gland
D. GIP | IV. Heart
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Answer: (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I. ADH acts on the kidney to regulate water reabsorption. ANF targets the heart to modulate blood pressure. CCK stimulates gastric glands and pancreas for digestion. GIP affects insulin secretion via the pancreas. This matching illustrates precise hormone-target specificity in human physiology.
9. Choose the correct statements:
Statement I: ADH increases water retention in kidneys.
Statement II: ANF promotes sodium excretion and lowers blood pressure.
(1) Only Statement I is correct
(2) Only Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statements I and II are correct
(4) Both Statements I and II are false
Both statements are correct. ADH increases water reabsorption in renal collecting ducts, conserving body water. ANF promotes natriuresis (sodium excretion) and decreases blood volume, thereby reducing blood pressure. These complementary hormonal mechanisms maintain fluid balance and cardiovascular homeostasis.
10. Single Correct Answer:
Which hormone inhibits gastric motility while stimulating insulin secretion?
(1) CCK
(2) GIP
(3) ANF
(4) ADH
GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide) inhibits gastric motility and stimulates insulin secretion after food intake. This incretin effect coordinates digestion with glucose metabolism. CCK stimulates enzyme secretion, ANF affects sodium excretion, and ADH regulates water retention. GIP thus integrates nutrient sensing with endocrine response.
11. Single Correct Answer:
Which hormone stimulates enzyme secretion from pancreas and bile release from gallbladder?
(1) ADH
(2) ANF
(3) CCK
(4) GIP
CCK stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion and gallbladder contraction to release bile, facilitating fat and protein digestion. ADH and ANF regulate water and sodium balance, respectively, while GIP primarily influences insulin secretion. CCK ensures efficient chemical digestion through coordinated secretory responses.
Topic : Excretory and Endocrine Systems; Subtopic : Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS) and Hormonal Regulation of Blood Pressure
Keyword Definitions :
Angiotensin II : Hormone that stimulates adrenal cortex to release aldosterone and causes vasoconstriction.
Aldosterone : Mineralocorticoid hormone from adrenal cortex that increases sodium reabsorption, leading to higher blood pressure.
ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor) : Hormone from atria that decreases blood volume and pressure, antagonizing RAAS.
ADH (Vasopressin) : Hormone from posterior pituitary that promotes water reabsorption in kidneys and vasoconstriction.
Adenohypophysis : Anterior lobe of pituitary gland that secretes hormones like ACTH, GH, TSH, but not vasopressin.
Vasodilation : Widening of blood vessels, which decreases blood pressure.
Renin : Enzyme secreted by kidneys that converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, leading to RAAS activation.
RAAS : Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System, regulates blood pressure and fluid balance.
Lead Question - 2022 (Ganganagar)
Select the correct statements.
(a) Angiotensin II activates the cortex of adrenal gland to release aldosterone.
(b) Aldosterone leads to increase in blood pressure.
(c) ANF acts as a check on renin-angiotensin mechanism.
(d) ADH causes vasodilation.
(e) Vasopressin is released from adenohypophysis.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. (a), (b) and (e) only
2. (c), (d) and (e) only
3. (b), (c) and (d) only
4. (a), (b) and (c) only
Explanation : Angiotensin II stimulates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone, which increases sodium reabsorption and raises blood pressure. ANF acts as a negative regulator of the renin-angiotensin system. ADH (vasopressin) causes vasoconstriction, not vasodilation, and is released from the posterior pituitary, not adenohypophysis. Therefore, statements (a), (b), and (c) are correct. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
1. Single Correct Answer:
Which hormone directly promotes sodium reabsorption in distal tubules?
1. ADH
2. Aldosterone
3. ANF
4. Cortisol
Explanation : Aldosterone, secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to angiotensin II, increases sodium reabsorption in distal tubules and collecting ducts, leading to increased water retention and elevated blood pressure. ADH regulates water but not sodium, ANF decreases sodium, and cortisol has minor sodium effects. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
2. Single Correct Answer:
ANF lowers blood pressure by:
1. Increasing renin secretion
2. Promoting sodium excretion
3. Stimulating aldosterone release
4. Increasing ADH secretion
Explanation : ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor) is released from atrial myocytes in response to high blood volume. It promotes natriuresis (sodium excretion), reduces water reabsorption, and inhibits RAAS. This decreases blood volume and blood pressure. It does not increase renin, aldosterone, or ADH. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
3. Single Correct Answer:
Which organ secretes renin?
1. Liver
2. Kidney
3. Adrenal cortex
4. Posterior pituitary
Explanation : Renin is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney in response to low blood pressure, low sodium, or sympathetic stimulation. It converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, initiating RAAS. Liver produces angiotensinogen, adrenal cortex secretes aldosterone, and posterior pituitary releases ADH. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
4. Single Correct Answer:
ADH primarily affects:
1. Sodium reabsorption
2. Water reabsorption
3. Glucose metabolism
4. Potassium excretion
Explanation : Antidiuretic hormone (ADH or vasopressin) increases water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the nephron by increasing aquaporin channels, concentrating urine and maintaining blood osmolarity. It does not significantly affect sodium, glucose, or potassium directly. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
5. Single Correct Answer:
Which hormone is released from posterior pituitary?
1. Aldosterone
2. ADH
3. ANF
4. Renin
Explanation : ADH (vasopressin) is synthesized in hypothalamus and stored in posterior pituitary, which releases it into blood to regulate water balance and blood pressure. Aldosterone is from adrenal cortex, ANF from atria, and renin from kidney. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
6. Single Correct Answer:
Angiotensin II exerts its effect mainly via:
1. Vasodilation
2. Vasoconstriction
3. Sodium excretion
4. Water loss
Explanation : Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor that increases peripheral resistance and stimulates aldosterone release, thereby increasing blood pressure. It does not promote vasodilation, sodium excretion, or water loss. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
7. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): Aldosterone increases blood pressure.
Reason (R): Aldosterone enhances sodium and water reabsorption in the kidneys.
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true
Explanation : Aldosterone acts on distal tubules and collecting ducts, increasing sodium and water reabsorption. This elevates blood volume and blood pressure. Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason correctly explains the assertion. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
8. Matching Type:
Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
(a) ANF (i) Decreases blood pressure
(b) Aldosterone (ii) Increases sodium reabsorption
(c) ADH (iii) Promotes water reabsorption
(d) Renin (iv) Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
Explanation : ANF decreases blood pressure by promoting natriuresis, aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption, ADH promotes water reabsorption, and renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. Correct matching is (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv). Hence, Option 1 is correct.
9. Fill in the Blank:
Vasopressin is released from _______ pituitary gland.
1. Anterior
2. Posterior
3. Intermediate
4. Adenohypophysis
Explanation : Vasopressin (ADH) is synthesized in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary. It is released into the bloodstream in response to increased plasma osmolarity or low blood pressure, promoting water reabsorption and vasoconstriction. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
10. Choose the correct statements:
Statement I: ANF antagonizes the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
Statement II: ADH causes vasoconstriction and water retention.
1. Both statements are correct
2. Only Statement I is correct
3. Only Statement II is correct
4. Both statements are incorrect
Explanation : ANF reduces blood pressure by inhibiting renin secretion and sodium reabsorption, opposing RAAS. ADH increases water reabsorption and causes vasoconstriction, elevating blood pressure. Both statements are accurate. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
Topic: Endocrine System; Subtopic: Thyroid Hormones During Pregnancy
Keyword Definitions:
• Thyroxine (T4): A thyroid hormone regulating metabolism, growth, and development.
• Maternal blood: Blood circulating in the mother, supplying nutrients and hormones to the body and fetus.
• Pregnancy: Physiological state in which a female carries developing offspring in the uterus.
• Metabolic changes: Alterations in energy production and nutrient utilization to support fetal growth.
• Endocrine system: Glands producing hormones that regulate body functions.
• Hormonal regulation: Adjustment of hormone levels to maintain homeostasis and adapt to physiological states.
Lead Question - 2022 (Ganganagar)
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): During pregnancy the level of thyroxine is increased in the maternal blood.
Reason (R): Pregnancy is characterised by metabolic changes in the mother.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Explanation: The correct answer is option 1. During pregnancy, the level of maternal thyroxine increases to meet the enhanced metabolic demands of both mother and developing fetus. Thyroxine regulates basal metabolic rate, protein synthesis, and energy metabolism, which are elevated during pregnancy. The metabolic changes include increased oxygen consumption, nutrient mobilization, and thermogenesis. Therefore, the rise in thyroxine is a direct adaptive response to these metabolic requirements, making the Reason (R) the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which thyroid hormone is primarily increased in maternal blood during pregnancy?
1. Calcitonin
2. Thyroxine (T4)
3. Parathyroid hormone
4. Triiodothyronine (T3)
Explanation: The correct answer is Thyroxine (T4). During pregnancy, maternal thyroxine levels rise to support enhanced metabolism, fetal growth, and development. This increase ensures adequate energy production and protein synthesis. Triiodothyronine (T3) also increases slightly, but T4 is the primary circulating thyroid hormone measured in maternal blood during gestation.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
The increased thyroxine during pregnancy primarily affects:
1. Fetal nervous system development
2. Maternal bone density
3. Muscle mass only
4. Kidney function only
Explanation: The correct answer is fetal nervous system development. Thyroxine is crucial for neuronal proliferation, migration, and differentiation in the fetus. Insufficient maternal thyroxine may lead to cretinism or cognitive deficits in the newborn. Other maternal adaptations occur, but the major fetal effect is on brain and nervous system development.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which gland secretes thyroxine?
1. Pituitary
2. Thyroid
3. Adrenal
4. Pancreas
Explanation: The correct answer is thyroid. The thyroid gland produces thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), hormones responsible for regulating metabolism. During pregnancy, thyroid hormone secretion increases to meet the metabolic demands of the mother and fetus. Pituitary secretes TSH, which regulates thyroid hormone production, but does not secrete thyroxine directly.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Maternal thyroxine is essential during early pregnancy because:
1. Fetal thyroid is inactive
2. Maternal parathyroid compensates
3. Kidneys produce T4
4. Placenta blocks T4
Explanation: The correct answer is fetal thyroid is inactive. In the first trimester, the fetal thyroid is not fully functional, so maternal thyroxine crosses the placenta to support fetal growth, particularly brain and nervous system development. Adequate maternal T4 prevents developmental disorders and ensures proper metabolic regulation in both mother and fetus.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which hormone stimulates increased thyroid hormone production in pregnancy?
1. hCG
2. Oxytocin
3. Progesterone
4. Prolactin
Explanation: The correct answer is hCG. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) mimics TSH, stimulating the thyroid to produce more thyroxine, particularly in the first trimester. This supports maternal metabolism and provides the fetus with thyroid hormone before its own thyroid is functional. Other hormones like progesterone and prolactin play different roles in pregnancy.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Excessive thyroxine during pregnancy may lead to:
1. Hypothyroidism
2. Hyperthyroidism
3. Diabetes
4. Preeclampsia
Explanation: The correct answer is hyperthyroidism. Excess maternal thyroxine can cause increased metabolism, weight loss, heat intolerance, and tachycardia. Fetal complications may include growth retardation or preterm labor. Normal physiological increases are safe, but pathological elevations can result in hyperthyroid symptoms.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Thyroxine levels rise in maternal blood during pregnancy.
Reason (R): Increased metabolic activity in the mother and fetus requires higher oxygen consumption and energy metabolism.
1. Both A and R are correct and R explains A
2. Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
3. A correct, R incorrect
4. A incorrect, R correct
Explanation: The correct answer is option 1. During pregnancy, the mother’s metabolic demand increases, and the developing fetus requires energy and growth factors. Elevated thyroxine supports increased basal metabolic rate, protein synthesis, and oxygen consumption, making R the correct explanation for A.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match the hormone with its role in pregnancy:
(a) Thyroxine - (i) Metabolic regulation
(b) hCG - (ii) Thyroid stimulation
(c) Progesterone - (iii) Uterine maintenance
1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)
Explanation: The correct answer is option 1. Thyroxine regulates maternal and fetal metabolism. hCG stimulates the thyroid to produce thyroxine early in pregnancy. Progesterone maintains the uterine lining to support fetal development. These coordinated hormonal changes ensure healthy pregnancy.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
Maternal thyroxine rises during pregnancy to meet _______ and _______ requirements.
1. Metabolic, developmental
2. Reproductive, cardiac
3. Renal, digestive
4. Immune, hematologic
Explanation: The correct answer is metabolic and developmental. Thyroxine supports the mother’s increased metabolic rate and fetal growth, particularly nervous system development. Without adequate thyroxine, fetal neurodevelopment may be compromised, and maternal metabolic adaptation may be insufficient.
10. Choose the Correct Statements MCQ:
Statement I: Maternal thyroxine increases during pregnancy.
Statement II: Thyroxine is not important for fetal brain development.
1. Only Statement I correct
2. Only Statement II correct
3. Both correct
4. Both incorrect
Explanation: The correct answer is option 1. Maternal thyroxine levels rise during pregnancy to meet increased metabolic demands and to support fetal neurodevelopment. Statement II is false because thyroxine is crucial for brain and nervous system development in the fetus, especially before the fetal thyroid becomes functional.
Topic: Endocrine System; Subtopic: Hormones and Their Mechanism of Action
Keyword Definitions:
• FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone): A glycoprotein hormone secreted by anterior pituitary that regulates gametogenesis in ovaries and testes.
• Membrane-bound Receptors: Proteins located on cell membrane that bind hormones or ligands and trigger intracellular signalling.
• Second Messenger: Small molecules like cyclic AMP (cAMP) that transmit signals from receptors to target enzymes and genes within cells.
• Cyclic AMP (cAMP): A key second messenger that activates protein kinases and mediates hormonal responses.
• Hormone Action: The process by which hormones bind receptors and produce physiological and biochemical changes in target cells.
Lead Question - 2022 (Ganganagar)
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): FSH which interacts with membrane bound receptors does not enter the target cell.
Reason (R): Binding of FSH to its receptors generates second messenger (cyclic AMP) for its biochemical and physiological responses.
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Explanation: The correct answer is option 1. FSH is a peptide hormone that cannot cross the lipid bilayer of target cells. It binds to membrane-bound receptors, initiating a cascade via a second messenger system, primarily cyclic AMP (cAMP). The cAMP activates protein kinases, leading to phosphorylation of target proteins and regulation of gene expression, resulting in physiological effects like gametogenesis and steroidogenesis. The hormone itself does not enter the cell, and its effect is mediated entirely through intracellular signalling pathways, validating both the assertion and the reason.
1. FSH primarily acts on:
1. Liver
2. Ovaries and testes
3. Kidney
4. Adrenal gland
Explanation: The correct answer is ovaries and testes. FSH stimulates follicle development in ovaries and spermatogenesis in testes. It acts through membrane receptors, using cAMP as a second messenger. Liver, kidney, and adrenal glands are not primary targets of FSH.
2. The type of hormone that cannot cross cell membranes is:
1. Steroid hormone
2. Thyroid hormone
3. Peptide hormone
4. Lipid-soluble hormone
Explanation: The correct answer is peptide hormone. Peptide hormones like FSH, LH, and insulin bind to surface receptors since they are hydrophilic and cannot diffuse through the lipid bilayer. Steroid and thyroid hormones are lipid-soluble and cross membranes to bind intracellular receptors.
3. The primary second messenger for FSH signalling is:
1. Calcium ions
2. cAMP
3. IP3
4. DAG
Explanation: The correct answer is cAMP. FSH binds to its G-protein coupled receptors on target cells, activating adenylate cyclase. This increases intracellular cyclic AMP, which activates protein kinase A and triggers downstream physiological responses such as steroidogenesis and gametogenesis.
4. FSH is secreted by:
1. Posterior pituitary
2. Anterior pituitary
3. Hypothalamus
4. Thyroid gland
Explanation: The correct answer is anterior pituitary. FSH is a glycoprotein hormone synthesized by gonadotrophs in the anterior pituitary. Its secretion is regulated by gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus, influencing reproductive processes.
5. Which of the following is true about membrane-bound receptor hormones?
1. They enter the nucleus directly
2. Use second messengers to mediate effects
3. Are lipid-soluble
4. Do not bind to cell surface
Explanation: The correct answer is use second messengers to mediate effects. Hormones like FSH bind to membrane receptors and activate intracellular second messengers such as cAMP. Lipid-soluble hormones enter cells directly, unlike peptide hormones, which rely on second messenger systems.
6. The physiological effect of FSH in males is:
1. Testosterone production
2. Spermatogenesis
3. Growth of seminal vesicles
4. Adrenal androgen secretion
Explanation: The correct answer is spermatogenesis. FSH acts on Sertoli cells in testes, promoting sperm maturation. Testosterone synthesis is mainly regulated by LH acting on Leydig cells. Seminal vesicle growth and adrenal androgen secretion are not directly mediated by FSH.
7. Assertion-Reason Question:
Assertion (A): FSH does not enter the target cell.
Reason (R): FSH is a hydrophilic peptide hormone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R explains A
2. Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
3. A true, R false
4. A false, R true
Explanation: The correct answer is option 1. Being hydrophilic, FSH cannot cross the lipid bilayer. It binds to extracellular membrane receptors and acts through second messengers like cAMP to elicit cellular responses.
8. Matching Type:
Match the hormone with mechanism:
(a) FSH - (i) Membrane receptor, second messenger
(b) Cortisol - (ii) Intracellular receptor, gene activation
(c) Thyroid hormone - (iii) Intracellular receptor, protein synthesis
1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)
Explanation: The correct answer is option 1. FSH is a peptide hormone acting via membrane receptor and cAMP. Cortisol is steroidal and acts through intracellular receptors to modulate gene transcription. Thyroid hormone also binds intracellular receptors affecting protein synthesis.
9. Fill in the Blanks:
Binding of FSH to its receptor activates the ________ pathway.
1. cAMP
2. IP3-DAG
3. JAK-STAT
4. MAPK
Explanation: The correct answer is cAMP. FSH binding to G-protein coupled receptors activates adenylate cyclase, increasing cAMP levels. This second messenger triggers protein kinase A activation, leading to phosphorylation of target proteins and physiological responses like gametogenesis and steroidogenesis.
10. Choose the Correct Statements:
Statement I: FSH is a hydrophilic hormone acting via membrane-bound receptors.
Statement II: FSH directly enters the cell to regulate gene transcription.
1. Only Statement I correct
2. Only Statement II correct
3. Both I and II correct
4. Both I and II incorrect
Explanation: The correct answer is option 1. FSH is hydrophilic and binds to membrane receptors, triggering cAMP-mediated intracellular signalling. It does not enter the cell; gene transcription is regulated indirectly via second messenger pathways.
Topic: Pancreatic Hormones; Subtopic: Insulin Biosynthesis
Keyword Definitions:
Insulin: Hormone produced by pancreatic β-cells that regulates blood glucose levels.
Pro-hormone: Inactive precursor of a hormone that requires processing to become active.
C-peptide: Connecting peptide linking A-chain and B-chain in proinsulin, removed during maturation.
A-peptide/B-peptide chain: Functional polypeptide chains of insulin after C-peptide removal.
β-cells: Pancreatic cells located in islets of Langerhans that synthesize insulin.
Proinsulin: Inactive form of insulin containing A-chain, B-chain, and C-peptide.
Mature insulin: Active hormone consisting of A-chain and B-chain linked by disulfide bonds.
Processing: Cleavage of C-peptide from proinsulin to generate biologically active insulin.
Lead Question – 2022 (Abroad)
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In human beings, insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone which needs to be processed before it becomes fully mature and functional.
Reason (R): The extra stretch of C-peptide is to be removed from A-peptide and B-peptide chain of insulin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:
1. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
2. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation:
Correct answer is option 3. Insulin is synthesized in pancreatic β-cells as an inactive precursor called proinsulin, consisting of the A-chain, B-chain, and C-peptide. During maturation, the C-peptide is enzymatically cleaved, leaving the A and B chains linked by disulfide bonds to form biologically active insulin. This processing ensures proper folding and functionality of insulin, while the C-peptide has no hormonal activity but is released in equimolar amounts. The reason accurately explains the assertion, as removal of C-peptide is essential for insulin to become fully mature and capable of regulating blood glucose levels effectively.
1. What is the role of C-peptide in insulin biosynthesis?
1. It is the active part of insulin
2. It stabilizes A and B chains during folding
3. It acts as a hormone itself
4. It remains attached in mature insulin
Explanation: Correct answer is It stabilizes A and B chains during folding. C-peptide is part of proinsulin and ensures proper folding of A and B chains via disulfide bond formation. It is cleaved during maturation to form active insulin. Though released in circulation, it has minimal direct hormonal activity, serving mainly as a marker for endogenous insulin production.
2. Proinsulin consists of:
1. Only A and B chains
2. A-chain, B-chain, and C-peptide
3. C-peptide only
4. Single polypeptide chain without cleavage sites
Explanation: Correct answer is A-chain, B-chain, and C-peptide. Proinsulin is a single-chain precursor containing A-chain, B-chain, and the connecting C-peptide. The C-peptide is cleaved enzymatically to generate mature insulin consisting of two chains linked by disulfide bonds. This precursor ensures correct folding and proper structural formation of active insulin in β-cells.
3. Which cells synthesize insulin in humans?
1. α-cells of pancreas
2. β-cells of pancreas
3. δ-cells of pancreas
4. Exocrine acinar cells
Explanation: Correct answer is β-cells of pancreas. β-cells in the islets of Langerhans produce proinsulin, which is processed into active insulin. α-cells secrete glucagon, δ-cells secrete somatostatin, and acinar cells are exocrine, producing digestive enzymes. β-cells are central to glucose homeostasis through regulated insulin secretion.
4. Mature insulin consists of:
1. Only A-chain
2. Only B-chain
3. A-chain and B-chain linked by disulfide bonds
4. A-chain, B-chain, and C-peptide
Explanation: Correct answer is A-chain and B-chain linked by disulfide bonds. Upon cleavage of C-peptide from proinsulin, the A and B chains are joined by disulfide bridges to form active insulin. This structure is critical for receptor binding and glucose regulation. C-peptide is removed but secreted separately in equimolar amounts.
5. Removal of C-peptide from proinsulin is necessary because:
1. C-peptide is toxic
2. Only A and B chains are biologically active
3. It prevents folding of insulin
4. It reduces insulin solubility
Explanation: Correct answer is Only A and B chains are biologically active. C-peptide serves as a connector during folding but has no direct hormonal effect. Its removal produces mature insulin capable of binding to insulin receptors. Proper cleavage ensures functional hormone secretion and regulation of blood glucose.
6. The term “pro-hormone” refers to:
1. Active hormone
2. Inactive precursor requiring processing
3. Hormone degraded in liver
4. Hormone bound to carrier protein
Explanation: Correct answer is Inactive precursor requiring processing. Proinsulin is a pro-hormone, inactive until enzymatic removal of C-peptide. Pro-hormones ensure correct folding, storage, and regulated activation of hormones. This mechanism prevents premature activity and maintains homeostasis.
7. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): Insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone.
Reason (R): Proinsulin contains C-peptide which must be removed to activate insulin.
1. Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, R is not correct explanation
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true
Explanation: Correct answer is option 1. Insulin is synthesized as proinsulin in β-cells. The C-peptide connects the A and B chains and is removed enzymatically to produce mature, biologically active insulin. The reason accurately explains the assertion, linking pro-hormone processing to activation of insulin.
8. Matching Type:
Match List-I (Molecule) with List-II (Function):
A. Proinsulin – (i) Inactive precursor
B. C-peptide – (ii) Connector peptide during folding
C. Mature insulin – (iii) Regulates blood glucose
D. β-cells – (iv) Site of synthesis
1. A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
2. A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
3. A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv
4. A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
Explanation: Correct answer is option 1. Proinsulin is the inactive precursor (A–i), C-peptide stabilizes A and B chains (B–ii), mature insulin regulates blood glucose (C–iii), and β-cells are the synthesis site (D–iv). This illustrates biosynthesis, processing, and functional role of insulin and associated peptides.
9. Fill in the Blanks:
The __________ is cleaved from proinsulin to produce active insulin.
1. A-chain
2. B-chain
3. C-peptide
4. β-cell nucleus
Explanation: Correct answer is C-peptide. During insulin maturation, the connecting C-peptide is enzymatically removed, leaving A and B chains linked by disulfide bonds. This cleavage converts proinsulin to biologically active insulin, enabling glucose regulation. The C-peptide is secreted in equimolar amounts but has no direct hormonal function.
10. Choose the Correct Statements:
Statement I: Proinsulin contains A-chain, B-chain, and C-peptide.
Statement II: Mature insulin contains all three components including C-peptide.
1. Statement I correct, Statement II incorrect
2. Statement I incorrect, Statement II correct
3. Both statements correct
4. Both statements incorrect
Explanation: Correct answer is Statement I correct, Statement II incorrect. Proinsulin has A, B chains, and C-peptide, while mature insulin only contains A and B chains linked by disulfide bonds. Removal of C-peptide is essential for activation. This illustrates the processing step critical in hormone maturation and function.
Topic: Hormones of Digestive System; Subtopic: Intestinal Hormones
Keyword Definitions:
Enterokinin: An intestinal hormone secreted by the small intestine that stimulates pancreatic secretion rich in bicarbonate ions.
Pancreas: A glandular organ that secretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate-rich fluid to neutralize stomach acid.
Bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻): Ions that neutralize acidic chyme entering the small intestine from the stomach.
Cholecystokinin (CCK): A hormone that stimulates gall bladder contraction and pancreatic enzyme secretion.
Lead Question – 2022 (Abroad)
An intestinal hormone that stimulates the pancreas to release a watery secretion that is rich in bicarbonate ions:
1. Cholecystokinin
2. Gastric Inhibitory Peptide
3. Enterokinin
4. Secretion
Explanation:
The correct answer is Enterokinin. This hormone, secreted by the mucosa of the small intestine, stimulates the pancreas to release a watery fluid rich in bicarbonate ions, which neutralizes acidic chyme entering from the stomach. It is essential for maintaining optimal pH in the duodenum for enzyme activity and digestion efficiency.
1. Which hormone stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion?
1. Secretin
2. Enterokinin
3. Gastrin
4. Insulin
Explanation: Enterokinin stimulates the pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich watery fluid, while other hormones like gastrin primarily regulate stomach acid and secretin mainly stimulates bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas. Its activity ensures neutralization of chyme for proper enzymatic digestion in the small intestine.
2. Which ion is abundant in pancreatic secretion stimulated by enterokinin?
1. Chloride
2. Bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻)
3. Sodium
4. Potassium
Explanation: Enterokinin-stimulated pancreatic secretion is rich in bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻). These ions neutralize acidic chyme from the stomach, providing an optimal pH for pancreatic enzymes like amylase, lipase, and proteases, which function best in slightly alkaline conditions, ensuring efficient digestion and nutrient absorption.
3. Enterokinin is secreted by which part of the digestive system?
1. Stomach
2. Small intestine
3. Large intestine
4. Pancreas
Explanation: Enterokinin is secreted by the epithelial cells of the small intestine, mainly in the duodenum and jejunum. Its secretion is triggered by the presence of chyme, and it signals the pancreas to release a bicarbonate-rich secretion, neutralizing acidity and creating suitable conditions for enzymatic digestion.
4. Which hormone triggers gall bladder contraction along with pancreatic enzyme release?
1. Enterokinin
2. Secretin
3. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
4. Gastric Inhibitory Peptide
Explanation: Cholecystokinin (CCK) stimulates gall bladder contraction and release of bile, along with pancreatic enzyme secretion. It complements enterokinin, which primarily stimulates bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas, aiding in fat digestion and overall digestive efficiency in the duodenum.
5. Bicarbonate-rich pancreatic secretion helps in:
1. Protein breakdown in the stomach
2. Neutralizing acidic chyme
3. Stimulating gastric acid
4. Absorbing water in colon
Explanation: The bicarbonate-rich secretion stimulated by enterokinin neutralizes acidic chyme entering the small intestine from the stomach. This neutralization prevents mucosal damage, provides optimal pH for pancreatic enzyme activity, and ensures efficient digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.
6. Which of the following is not secreted by the small intestine?
1. Enterokinin
2. Secretin
3. Gastrin
4. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
Explanation: Gastrin is primarily secreted by the stomach to stimulate acid production. Other hormones like enterokinin, secretin, and CCK are secreted by the small intestine to regulate pancreatic secretion, bile release, and neutralization of chyme, ensuring effective digestion and absorption.
7. Assertion-Reason Type:
Assertion (A): Enterokinin stimulates bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas.
Reason (R): Neutralization of acidic chyme is required for optimal enzymatic digestion.
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.
Explanation: The correct answer is option 1. Enterokinin stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate-rich fluid. This action neutralizes acidic chyme from the stomach, creating an alkaline environment necessary for digestive enzymes to function efficiently in the duodenum.
8. Matching Type:
Match the hormone with its function:
A. Enterokinin – (i) Stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion
B. Secretin – (ii) Stimulates water and bicarbonate secretion
C. Cholecystokinin – (iii) Stimulates bile release
D. Gastrin – (iv) Stimulates gastric acid secretion
1. A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
2. A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
3. A–iii, B–i, C–ii, D–iv
4. A–iv, B–ii, C–i, D–iii
Explanation: The correct answer is option 1. Enterokinin stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion, secretin promotes watery alkaline fluid, CCK stimulates bile and pancreatic enzyme release, and gastrin increases gastric acid secretion, coordinating digestion in the gastrointestinal tract efficiently.
9. Fill in the Blanks:
_________ is secreted by the small intestine to neutralize acidic chyme.
1. Cholecystokinin
2. Enterokinin
3. Secretin
4. Gastrin
Explanation: The blank is filled with Enterokinin. It stimulates the pancreas to release a watery, bicarbonate-rich secretion, which neutralizes the acidic chyme entering from the stomach, providing an optimal pH for enzymatic activity in the duodenum and facilitating efficient nutrient digestion.
10. Choose the Correct Statements:
Statement I: Enterokinin stimulates the pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid.
Statement II: Bicarbonate neutralizes chyme, aiding in digestion.
1. Both statements are correct
2. Both statements are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
Explanation: The correct answer is option 1. Enterokinin stimulates the pancreas to secrete a bicarbonate-rich fluid. This fluid neutralizes acidic chyme from the stomach, maintaining an optimal pH for enzyme activity and efficient digestion, ensuring proper nutrient breakdown and absorption in the small intestine.
Topic: Endocrine Glands and Hormones; Subtopic: Pineal Gland and Biological Rhythms
Keyword Definitions:
Melatonin: A hormone secreted by the pineal gland that regulates sleep-wake cycles and circadian rhythms.
Pineal Gland: A small, pea-shaped gland in the brain responsible for melatonin secretion.
Biological Rhythm: Natural cycles of physiological activity, including sleep and wakefulness.
Circadian Rhythm: The 24-hour internal clock that regulates physiological and behavioral patterns.
Lead Question – 2022 (Abroad)
Normal sleep-wake cycle in a human body is maintained by the secretion of:
1. Thyroid gland
2. Thymus gland
3. Pineal gland
4. Pituitary gland
Explanation:
The pineal gland secretes melatonin, a hormone that regulates the body’s circadian rhythm and sleep-wake cycle. Its secretion increases in darkness and decreases in light, signaling the brain to rest or awaken. It plays a vital role in maintaining biological clock functions and seasonal reproduction cycles in animals.
1. Which hormone controls the 24-hour body rhythm?
1. Insulin
2. Melatonin
3. Adrenaline
4. Thyroxine
Explanation: The hormone melatonin, produced by the pineal gland, regulates circadian rhythms that control sleep, wakefulness, and other daily cycles. Its levels rise at night and fall during the day, aligning the body’s internal clock with environmental light-dark changes for optimal physiological balance.
2. Which part of the brain regulates pineal gland activity?
1. Cerebellum
2. Hypothalamus
3. Thalamus
4. Cerebrum
Explanation: The hypothalamus controls pineal gland activity by interpreting light and dark signals from the eyes. It sends neural impulses to the pineal gland to regulate melatonin secretion, maintaining circadian rhythm and influencing sleep cycles, hormone release, and body temperature regulation.
3. Melatonin secretion is highest during:
1. Daytime
2. Nighttime
3. Evening
4. Morning
Explanation: Melatonin secretion peaks during the night and drops during daylight. Darkness stimulates pineal gland activity, signaling the body to prepare for sleep. This rhythmic hormone release synchronizes internal biological clocks with external environmental cues such as light and darkness.
4. Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?
1. Pineal gland
2. Sweat gland
3. Pituitary gland
4. Adrenal gland
Explanation: The sweat gland is an exocrine gland because it releases its secretion through ducts onto the skin surface. In contrast, endocrine glands like the pineal, pituitary, and adrenal glands release hormones directly into the bloodstream to regulate various body functions.
5. Which hormone influences reproduction and body temperature along with sleep?
1. Cortisol
2. Melatonin
3. Insulin
4. Progesterone
Explanation: Melatonin affects reproductive hormones and thermoregulation in addition to controlling sleep. High melatonin levels inhibit reproductive activity in some animals during shorter days, aligning breeding cycles with favorable conditions, showing its impact beyond sleep regulation.
6. The pineal gland is located in which part of the brain?
1. Cerebellum
2. Epithalamus
3. Medulla oblongata
4. Hypothalamus
Explanation: The pineal gland lies within the epithalamus, near the brain’s center, between the two hemispheres. Despite its small size, it plays an important role in endocrine regulation by secreting melatonin, thus maintaining biological rhythms and influencing seasonal behaviors.
7. Assertion-Reason Type:
Assertion (A): Pineal gland controls the sleep-wake cycle.
Reason (R): Melatonin secretion is maximum during the day.
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.
Explanation: The correct answer is option 3. The pineal gland indeed controls the sleep-wake cycle through melatonin secretion, but melatonin levels are maximum during the night, not the day. Thus, the reason is incorrect, though the assertion remains true.
8. Matching Type:
Match the following glands with their hormones:
A. Pineal gland – (i) Melatonin
B. Adrenal gland – (ii) Cortisol
C. Thyroid gland – (iii) Thyroxine
D. Pancreas – (iv) Insulin
1. A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
2. A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
3. A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
4. A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii
Explanation: The correct match is A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv. Each gland secretes a specific hormone: pineal gland secretes melatonin, adrenal gland secretes cortisol, thyroid gland secretes thyroxine, and pancreas secretes insulin, each having vital roles in homeostasis and metabolism regulation.
9. Fill in the Blanks:
The pineal gland secretes __________ that helps regulate the circadian rhythm.
1. Thyroxine
2. Melatonin
3. Insulin
4. Adrenaline
Explanation: The blank is filled with melatonin. This hormone maintains the circadian rhythm, aligning physiological functions like sleep, metabolism, and hormonal balance with day-night cycles. Its secretion rises in darkness, inducing sleep and synchronizing internal biological clocks to external light conditions.
10. Choose the Correct Statements:
Statement I: Melatonin levels are high during daytime.
Statement II: Pineal gland is an endocrine gland located in the epithalamus.
1. Both statements are correct.
2. Both statements are incorrect.
3. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
4. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
Explanation: The correct answer is option 3. Melatonin levels are low during the day and rise at night. The pineal gland, located in the epithalamus, functions as an endocrine gland controlling sleep cycles, seasonal rhythms, and hormone regulation.
Topic: Endocrinology; Subtopic: Pregnancy Hormones
Keyword Definitions:
Relaxin: Hormone produced during pregnancy that relaxes ligaments and softens the cervix to aid childbirth.
Oxytocin: Hormone released by posterior pituitary that stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection, present in both sexes.
hCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin): Hormone secreted by trophoblast cells during pregnancy, maintaining corpus luteum function and progesterone secretion.
hPL (Human Placental Lactogen): Placental hormone promoting mammary gland growth and modulating maternal metabolism for fetal nutrition.
Progesterone: Steroid hormone secreted by corpus luteum and placenta, maintains endometrial lining and inhibits uterine contractions during pregnancy.
Corpus Luteum: Temporary endocrine structure in ovary producing progesterone after ovulation.
Placenta: Organ connecting mother and fetus, responsible for nutrient and hormone exchange.
Endocrinology: Study of hormones, their secretion, and physiological roles.
Gestation: Period of fetal development in the uterus from conception to birth.
Fetal Development: Growth and differentiation of the embryo and fetus in utero.
Maternal Adaptation: Physiological changes in the mother to support pregnancy.
Lead Question - 2022 (Abroad)
Which of the following hormones are secreted in women only during pregnancy?
Relaxin
Oxytocin
hCG
hPL
Progesterone
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(c), (d) and (e) only
(b) and (e) only
(b), (c) and (d) only
(a), (c) and (d) only
Explanation: The hormones secreted only during pregnancy include hCG, hPL, and Progesterone. hCG maintains corpus luteum function in early gestation, progesterone sustains endometrial lining and prevents contractions, and hPL modulates maternal metabolism and mammary development. Relaxin is also secreted in pregnancy, but primarily near parturition. Oxytocin is present in both sexes and is not exclusive to pregnancy. These pregnancy-specific hormones coordinate maternal adaptation, fetal development, and preparation for parturition. Correct answer is option 1 (c), (d) and (e) only.
1. SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER MCQ
Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining the endometrium during pregnancy?
Relaxin
Progesterone
Oxytocin
hPL
Explanation: Progesterone is the key hormone maintaining the endometrial lining during pregnancy. It is secreted initially by the corpus luteum and later by the placenta. Progesterone prevents uterine contractions, supports embryo implantation, and prepares the maternal system for fetal development. Relaxin softens ligaments, hPL aids metabolism, and oxytocin stimulates contractions. Therefore, progesterone is the primary hormone for endometrial maintenance. Correct answer: 2
2. SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER MCQ
Which hormone is secreted by trophoblast cells during early pregnancy?
Oxytocin
hCG
Relaxin
Progesterone
Explanation: Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) is secreted by trophoblast cells of the embryo during early pregnancy. It maintains the corpus luteum and ensures continued progesterone secretion. This hormone is essential for establishing pregnancy and is detected in pregnancy tests. Oxytocin, relaxin, and progesterone play different roles. Understanding hCG secretion is critical for early pregnancy physiology and monitoring gestational health. Correct answer: 2
3. SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER MCQ
Which hormone aids mammary gland growth and modulates maternal metabolism during pregnancy?
hPL
Oxytocin
Progesterone
Relaxin
Explanation: Human Placental Lactogen (hPL) is secreted by the placenta and promotes mammary gland development and maternal metabolic adaptation for fetal nutrition. It ensures glucose and lipid availability for fetal growth. Oxytocin controls contractions, progesterone maintains endometrium, and relaxin softens ligaments. hPL’s role is crucial for preparing the maternal body for lactation and supporting fetal energy needs. Correct answer: 1
4. SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER MCQ
Relaxin primarily functions in pregnancy to:
Stimulate uterine contractions
Soften ligaments and cervix
Maintain endometrium
Promote fetal growth
Explanation: Relaxin is secreted mainly by the corpus luteum and placenta during late pregnancy. Its main function is to relax pelvic ligaments and soften the cervix, facilitating childbirth. It does not maintain the endometrium, stimulate contractions, or directly promote fetal growth. Relaxin, combined with other pregnancy hormones, ensures proper maternal adaptation for labor. Understanding relaxin’s specific role helps differentiate pregnancy-specific hormonal functions. Correct answer: 2
5. SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER MCQ
Which hormone is not exclusive to pregnancy and is present in both sexes?
hCG
Oxytocin
hPL
Relaxin
Explanation: Oxytocin is produced by the posterior pituitary in both sexes and regulates uterine contractions in women and social bonding in both genders. It is not exclusive to pregnancy. In contrast, hCG, hPL, and relaxin are secreted specifically during pregnancy. Understanding this distinction is important in endocrinology, as it separates general pituitary hormones from pregnancy-specific placental hormones. Correct answer: 2
6. SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER MCQ
Which hormone ensures corpus luteum maintenance in early pregnancy?
Progesterone
hCG
Oxytocin
Relaxin
Explanation: hCG secreted by trophoblast cells maintains the corpus luteum during early pregnancy, ensuring continuous progesterone production to support the endometrium and prevent miscarriage. Progesterone alone cannot maintain the corpus luteum without hCG signaling. Oxytocin and relaxin perform different roles unrelated to corpus luteum maintenance. Recognizing hCG’s critical role is essential for understanding early pregnancy physiology. Correct answer: 2
7. ASSERTION-REASON MCQ
Assertion (A): hPL is secreted only during pregnancy.
Reason (R): hPL promotes maternal metabolic adaptations and mammary development for fetal support.
Both A and R are true and R explains A
Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true
Explanation: Human Placental Lactogen (hPL) is secreted by the placenta exclusively during pregnancy. It modulates maternal metabolism, ensures nutrient supply to the fetus, and promotes mammary gland growth. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason correctly explains why hPL is pregnancy-specific. This hormone is a critical component of maternal adaptation, ensuring adequate fetal growth and preparation for lactation. Correct answer: 1
8. MATCHING TYPE MCQ
Match the hormones with their primary pregnancy function:
Column A:
hCG
Progesterone
hPL
Relaxin
Column B:
Maintains corpus luteum
Maintains endometrium
Maternal metabolic adaptation and mammary growth
Softens ligaments and cervix
Explanation: Correct matching: hCG → Maintains corpus luteum, Progesterone → Maintains endometrium, hPL → Maternal metabolism and mammary growth, Relaxin → Softens ligaments and cervix. Each hormone plays a distinct role in pregnancy, ensuring maternal adaptation, fetal development, and preparation for parturition. Understanding their functions is critical for clinical and physiological studies. Answer: hCG-1, Progesterone-2, hPL-3, Relaxin-4
9. FILL IN THE BLANKS / COMPLETION MCQ
The hormone secreted by the placenta that prepares maternal metabolism for fetal nutrition is _______.
Progesterone
hPL
Relaxin
Oxytocin
Explanation: Human Placental Lactogen (hPL) is secreted by the placenta during pregnancy. It ensures maternal metabolic adaptations, such as increased glucose and lipid availability, to support fetal growth. Additionally, hPL promotes mammary gland development for lactation. Progesterone maintains endometrium, relaxin softens ligaments, and oxytocin stimulates contractions. Understanding hPL’s role is vital for studying endocrine regulation and maternal-fetal physiology. Correct answer: 2
10. CHOOSE THE CORRECT STATEMENTS MCQ
Statement I: hCG, hPL, and Progesterone are secreted only during pregnancy.
Statement II: Oxytocin is exclusive to pregnant women.
Only Statement I is correct
Only Statement II is correct
Both Statements I and II are correct
Both Statements I and II are incorrect
Explanation: hCG, hPL, and progesterone are pregnancy-specific hormones, secreted only during gestation, coordinating maternal adaptation and fetal development. Oxytocin is present in both sexes and is not exclusive to pregnancy, performing roles in social bonding and labor. Therefore, only Statement I is correct. Recognizing pregnancy-specific versus general hormones is essential in endocrinology, clinical assessments, and understanding maternal-fetal physiology. Correct answer: 1
Topic : Excretory and Endocrine Systems; Subtopic : Hormonal Regulation of Blood Pressure
Keyword Definitions :
Blood Pressure : The force exerted by circulating blood on the walls of blood vessels, essential for tissue perfusion.
Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) : Hormone from posterior pituitary that promotes water reabsorption in kidneys and vasoconstriction, increasing blood pressure.
Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) : Hormone secreted by atrial myocytes that reduces blood volume and blood pressure by promoting sodium and water excretion.
Aldosterone : Adrenal cortex hormone that increases sodium and water reabsorption, raising blood pressure.
Angiotensin-II : Potent vasoconstrictor generated from angiotensin I, increasing blood pressure and stimulating aldosterone release.
Renin : Kidney enzyme that converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, activating RAAS.
RAAS : Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System, regulates blood pressure and fluid balance.
Vasodilation : Widening of blood vessels, leading to decreased blood pressure.
Vasoconstriction : Narrowing of blood vessels, increasing blood pressure.
Homeostasis : Physiological process maintaining stable internal conditions including blood pressure.
Lead Question - 2022 (Abroad)
Which one of the following hormones reduces the blood pressure?
1. Antidiuretic hormone
2. Atrial Natriuretic factor
3. Aldosterone
4. Angiotensin-II
Explanation : Among the given hormones, ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor) reduces blood pressure by promoting sodium and water excretion from the kidneys, thereby lowering blood volume. ADH and aldosterone increase blood pressure by retaining water and sodium. Angiotensin-II is a strong vasoconstrictor that elevates blood pressure. ANF acts as a counter-regulatory mechanism to RAAS. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.
1. Single Correct Answer:
Which hormone causes vasoconstriction to raise blood pressure?
1. ANF
2. Aldosterone
3. Angiotensin-II
4. Nitric oxide
Explanation : Angiotensin-II is a potent vasoconstrictor, increasing peripheral resistance and blood pressure. It also stimulates aldosterone secretion, enhancing sodium and water retention. ANF and nitric oxide cause vasodilation and reduce blood pressure. Aldosterone primarily acts on sodium retention, not direct vasoconstriction. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
2. Single Correct Answer:
Which hormone increases sodium reabsorption in kidneys?
1. ANF
2. Aldosterone
3. ADH
4. Angiotensinogen
Explanation : Aldosterone from adrenal cortex acts on distal tubules and collecting ducts to increase sodium reabsorption, which increases water retention and blood pressure. ANF promotes sodium excretion, ADH regulates water, and angiotensinogen is inactive until converted by renin. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
3. Single Correct Answer:
Which hormone is secreted by atrial myocytes?
1. ADH
2. Aldosterone
3. ANF
4. Angiotensin-II
Explanation : ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor) is released by the atrial cells in response to increased blood volume or pressure. It promotes sodium and water excretion, reduces blood volume, and lowers blood pressure. ADH is from posterior pituitary, aldosterone from adrenal cortex, and angiotensin-II is derived from angiotensin I. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
4. Single Correct Answer:
ADH increases blood pressure by:
1. Sodium excretion
2. Water reabsorption
3. Vasodilation
4. ANF secretion
Explanation : ADH (vasopressin) increases water reabsorption in kidney collecting ducts via aquaporin channels, raising blood volume and pressure. It also causes vasoconstriction. It does not directly affect sodium excretion, vasodilation, or ANF secretion. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
5. Single Correct Answer:
Which system regulates blood pressure using hormones like renin, angiotensin, and aldosterone?
1. RAAS
2. SNS
3. Parasympathetic system
4. ANF pathway
Explanation : The Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS) regulates blood pressure and fluid balance. Renin from kidneys converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, then angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction and stimulates aldosterone release. SNS and parasympathetic systems modulate cardiac output, while ANF pathway reduces blood pressure. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
6. Single Correct Answer:
Which hormone counteracts RAAS to lower blood pressure?
1. Angiotensin-II
2. Aldosterone
3. ANF
4. ADH
Explanation : ANF opposes RAAS by promoting sodium and water excretion, lowering blood volume and pressure. Angiotensin-II and aldosterone increase blood pressure, while ADH retains water. ANF is a critical counter-regulatory hormone maintaining homeostasis. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
7. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): ANF reduces blood pressure.
Reason (R): ANF promotes natriuresis and water excretion.
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true
Explanation : ANF decreases blood pressure by promoting excretion of sodium and water (natriuresis and diuresis). This reduces blood volume and vascular resistance. Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
8. Matching Type:
Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
(a) ADH (i) Increases water reabsorption
(b) Aldosterone (ii) Increases sodium retention
(c) ANF (iii) Decreases blood pressure
(d) Angiotensin-II (iv) Causes vasoconstriction
1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
Explanation : ADH promotes water reabsorption, aldosterone increases sodium retention, ANF decreases blood pressure by natriuresis, and angiotensin-II causes vasoconstriction. Correct matching is (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv). Hence, Option 1 is correct.
9. Fill in the Blank:
Atrial Natriuretic Factor is secreted from the _______.
1. Posterior pituitary
2. Adrenal cortex
3. Heart atria
4. Kidney
Explanation : ANF is secreted by atrial myocytes of the heart in response to high blood volume. It promotes sodium and water excretion, lowering blood volume and pressure, acting as a counter-regulatory mechanism against RAAS. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
10. Choose the correct statements:
Statement I: ADH increases water retention and blood pressure.
Statement II: ANF decreases blood volume and blood pressure.
1. Both statements are correct
2. Only Statement I is correct
3. Only Statement II is correct
4. Both statements are incorrect
Explanation : ADH increases water reabsorption in kidneys, elevating blood volume and pressure. ANF promotes sodium and water excretion, reducing blood volume and blood pressure. Both statements are correct and describe complementary mechanisms regulating blood pressure. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
Topic: Endocrine System
Subtopic: Parathyroid Hormone
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH): Hormone secreted by parathyroid glands regulating calcium and phosphate levels in blood.
Bone Resorption: Process of breaking down bone tissue to release calcium into blood.
Calcium (Ca2+): Essential mineral for bones, muscle function, nerve conduction, and blood clotting.
Blood Calcium Reabsorption: Uptake of calcium from kidneys into blood to maintain calcium homeostasis.
Calcium Absorption: Uptake of calcium from digested food in the small intestine.
Metabolism of Carbohydrates: Chemical processes converting carbohydrates into energy for cells.
Endocrine System: Collection of glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream.
Homeostasis: Regulation of stable internal environment, including calcium levels.
Phosphate: Mineral involved in bone formation and energy metabolism.
Target Organs: Organs that respond to specific hormones, e.g., bones, kidneys, intestines for PTH.
Hormonal Regulation: Control of physiological processes through hormone secretion and feedback mechanisms.
Lead Question - 2022:
Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone?
(a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption
(b) Decreases Ca2+ level in bone
(c) Reabsorption of Ca2+ level in blood
(d) Decreases the absorption of Ca2+ from digested food
(e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (b), (d) and (e) only
(2) (a) and (e) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (c) only
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) (b), (d) and (e) only. Parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium by stimulating bone resorption and calcium reabsorption in kidneys. It does not decrease calcium in bone, nor reduce intestinal absorption, nor affect carbohydrate metabolism. Thus, statements (b), (d), and (e) are not effects of PTH.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which organ is the primary target of parathyroid hormone for calcium reabsorption?
(a) Liver
(b) Kidney
(c) Heart
(d) Pancreas
Explanation: The correct answer is (b) Kidney. Parathyroid hormone increases calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, reducing urinary calcium loss. It also stimulates bone resorption and indirectly enhances intestinal calcium absorption by activating vitamin D. These actions maintain blood calcium homeostasis efficiently.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
How does PTH affect bone tissue?
(a) Decreases bone resorption
(b) Stimulates bone resorption
(c) Inhibits osteoclast activity
(d) Promotes bone formation only
Explanation: The correct answer is (b) Stimulates bone resorption. Parathyroid hormone activates osteoclasts, breaking down bone tissue to release calcium and phosphate into the blood. This is a key mechanism by which PTH maintains adequate blood calcium levels for vital physiological functions.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which vitamin’s activation is indirectly stimulated by PTH to enhance calcium absorption?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin E
(d) Vitamin K
Explanation: The correct answer is (b) Vitamin D. Parathyroid hormone stimulates kidneys to convert inactive vitamin D to calcitriol, the active form. Active vitamin D increases intestinal calcium absorption, complementing bone resorption and renal reabsorption, thereby maintaining blood calcium homeostasis effectively.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Excess PTH secretion may lead to which condition?
(a) Hypocalcemia
(b) Hypercalcemia
(c) Hypoglycemia
(d) Hyponatremia
Explanation: The correct answer is (b) Hypercalcemia. Excess parathyroid hormone elevates blood calcium levels via bone resorption, renal reabsorption, and intestinal absorption. Persistent hypercalcemia can cause kidney stones, bone weakness, and cardiac abnormalities, highlighting the importance of tight regulation of PTH secretion.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which cell type is primarily activated by PTH in bones?
(a) Osteoblasts
(b) Osteoclasts
(c) Chondrocytes
(d) Fibroblasts
Explanation: The correct answer is (b) Osteoclasts. PTH indirectly stimulates osteoclasts by binding to osteoblasts, which release factors that activate osteoclasts. Osteoclasts resorb bone, releasing calcium and phosphate into the blood, maintaining proper calcium levels for physiological functions.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
PTH secretion is regulated primarily by:
(a) Blood calcium levels
(b) Blood glucose levels
(c) Blood sodium levels
(d) Blood potassium levels
Explanation: The correct answer is (a) Blood calcium levels. Parathyroid glands sense calcium concentration via calcium-sensing receptors. Low blood calcium triggers PTH secretion, while high calcium suppresses it. This feedback mechanism ensures stable calcium homeostasis critical for neuromuscular function, bone integrity, and enzymatic processes.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): PTH enhances calcium absorption from intestines indirectly.
Reason (R): PTH activates vitamin D to increase intestinal calcium uptake.
(a) A is true, R is true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) A is true, R is true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, R is false
(d) A is false, R is true
Explanation: The correct answer is (a) A is true, R is true and R is correct explanation of A. PTH stimulates kidneys to convert vitamin D to calcitriol, which increases intestinal calcium absorption. Thus, the assertion and reason are both true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match the effects of PTH with the organ:
Column I: 1. Bone 2. Kidney 3. Intestine
Column II: a. Calcium reabsorption b. Calcium release c. Vitamin D mediated absorption
(a) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
(b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
(c) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
(d) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
Explanation: The correct answer is (a) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c. PTH stimulates bone to release calcium (1-b), increases kidney calcium reabsorption (2-a), and indirectly enhances intestinal calcium absorption through vitamin D activation (3-c). Together, these maintain blood calcium homeostasis.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
Parathyroid hormone indirectly increases _________ absorption from intestines.
(a) Sodium
(b) Calcium
(c) Potassium
(d) Phosphate
Explanation: The correct answer is (b) Calcium. PTH activates vitamin D in kidneys, which enhances intestinal calcium absorption. This action complements bone resorption and renal reabsorption, collectively maintaining blood calcium levels essential for neuromuscular function, enzymatic reactions, and overall homeostasis.
10. Choose the Correct Statements MCQ:
Which of the following statements about PTH is/are correct?
(a) Stimulates bone resorption
(b) Decreases renal calcium reabsorption
(c) Increases intestinal calcium absorption indirectly
(d) Regulates blood phosphate levels
Explanation: The correct answer is (a), (c), (d). PTH stimulates bone resorption (a), enhances intestinal calcium absorption indirectly via vitamin D (c), and regulates phosphate levels by increasing renal phosphate excretion (d). Statement (b) is incorrect because PTH increases renal calcium reabsorption to maintain blood calcium homeostasis.
Subtopic: Parturition
Keyword Definitions:
Parturition: The process of giving birth to a baby.
Prostaglandins: Hormone-like substances involved in initiating labor contractions.
Oxytocin: Hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection.
Prolactin: Hormone responsible for milk production, not directly involved in labor initiation.
Estrogen: Hormone increasing uterine sensitivity to oxytocin, facilitating labor.
Progesterone: Hormone maintaining pregnancy; decreased ratio triggers labor.
Lead Question - 2021
Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?
(1) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(2) Release of Oxytocin
(3) Release of Prolactin
(4) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
Explanation: Parturition initiation involves prostaglandins, oxytocin, and a rise in estrogen-to-progesterone ratio, which stimulate uterine contractions. Prolactin is primarily responsible for lactation and is not directly involved in labor onset. Therefore, the correct answer is option (3) Release of Prolactin.
1. Which hormone stimulates milk ejection during lactation?
(1) Prolactin
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Progesterone
(4) Estrogen
Explanation: Oxytocin is responsible for milk ejection by causing contraction of myoepithelial cells around alveoli. Prolactin stimulates milk production but not ejection. Thus, the correct answer is option (2) Oxytocin.
2. The ratio of estrogen to progesterone increases during labor to:
(1) Maintain pregnancy
(2) Stimulate uterine contractions
(3) Inhibit prostaglandin synthesis
(4) Prevent oxytocin release
Explanation: An increase in the estrogen-to-progesterone ratio enhances uterine contractility and oxytocin sensitivity, promoting labor. Progesterone decline removes relaxation effects on uterus. Thus, the correct answer is option (2) Stimulate uterine contractions.
3. Which prostaglandins are involved in initiating labor?
(1) PGF2α and PGE2
(2) PGI2 and TXA2
(3) PGE1 and PGD2
(4) PGF1α and PGI2
Explanation: PGF2α and PGE2 are critical for cervical ripening and uterine contraction. They are synthesized by decidua and fetal membranes to initiate labor. Other prostaglandins have minor roles. Correct answer is option (1) PGF2α and PGE2.
4. Which hormone’s sudden withdrawal triggers labor?
(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Prolactin
Explanation: Withdrawal of progesterone at term reduces uterine relaxation, allowing contractions. Estrogen levels rise to increase oxytocin receptors. Progesterone maintains pregnancy, so its decrease is essential. Correct answer is option (2) Progesterone.
5. During parturition, oxytocin is released from:
(1) Anterior pituitary
(2) Posterior pituitary
(3) Placenta
(4) Adrenal cortex
Explanation: Oxytocin is synthesized in hypothalamus and released from posterior pituitary. It stimulates uterine smooth muscle contraction during labor. Anterior pituitary secretes prolactin instead. Correct answer is option (2) Posterior pituitary.
6. Which of the following initiates cervical ripening?
(1) Oxytocin
(2) Prostaglandins
(3) Estrogen
(4) Progesterone
Explanation: Prostaglandins, mainly PGE2, soften and dilate the cervix (cervical ripening), facilitating labor. Oxytocin stimulates contractions but does not directly ripen cervix. Correct answer is option (2) Prostaglandins.
7. Assertion-Reason Question:
Assertion (A): Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions during labor.
Reason (R): It increases calcium ion influx into uterine smooth muscle cells.
(1) Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true, R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Explanation: Oxytocin binds receptors on uterine smooth muscle, activating calcium influx, which triggers contraction. Both statements are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion. Correct answer is option (1).
8. Matching Type Question:
Match hormone with function:
A. Prostaglandins - 1. Milk production
B. Oxytocin - 2. Uterine contractions
C. Prolactin - 3. Cervical ripening
D. Progesterone - 4. Maintains pregnancy
(1) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(3) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(4) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
Explanation: Prostaglandins ripen cervix (A-3), oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions (B-2), prolactin promotes milk production (C-1), and progesterone maintains pregnancy (D-4). Correct answer is option (1).
9. Fill in the Blanks:
_________ hormone is mainly responsible for maintaining uterine quiescence during pregnancy.
(1) Progesterone
(2) Estrogen
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Prostaglandin
Explanation: Progesterone maintains uterine relaxation and prevents contractions during pregnancy. Its withdrawal near term allows labor initiation. Correct answer is option (1) Progesterone.
10. Choose the correct statements:
(a) Prolactin initiates labor.
(b) Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions.
(c) Prostaglandins facilitate cervical ripening.
(d) Estrogen increases oxytocin receptor expression.
(1) b, c, d
(2) a, b, d
(3) a, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d
Explanation: Oxytocin stimulates contractions, prostaglandins aid cervical ripening, and estrogen increases uterine oxytocin receptors. Prolactin is not involved in labor initiation. Correct answer is option (1) b, c, d.
Erythropoietin (EPO): Hormone that stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
Juxtaglomerular Cells: Specialized kidney cells that detect blood oxygen levels and secrete erythropoietin.
Rostral Adenohypophysis: Anterior pituitary lobe that secretes various hormones, not EPO.
Alpha Cells: Pancreatic cells that secrete glucagon, not EPO.
Bone Marrow: Site of hematopoiesis where erythrocytes are produced.
RBC Formation: Production of red blood cells stimulated by erythropoietin.
Hypoxia: Low oxygen levels in tissues triggering erythropoietin release.
Endocrine Hormones: Chemical messengers secreted by glands into blood to regulate body functions.
Feedback Regulation: Mechanism controlling hormone release based on physiological need.
Hematopoietic Stem Cells: Precursor cells in bone marrow giving rise to blood cells.
Kidney Function: Erythropoietin secretion is part of kidney response to hypoxia.
Lead Question - 2021
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by :
Options:
1. The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
2. The cells of bone marrow
3. Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
4. Alpha cells of pancreas
Explanation: Erythropoietin is secreted by juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney in response to hypoxia. It stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells, ensuring oxygen transport in the body. Pituitary and pancreatic cells do not secrete this hormone. Answer: Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney.
1. Which condition triggers erythropoietin secretion?
Options:
A. High oxygen levels
B. Low oxygen levels (hypoxia)
C. High glucose
D. Low calcium
Explanation: Hypoxia or low oxygen concentration stimulates juxtaglomerular cells to secrete erythropoietin, enhancing RBC production to improve oxygen delivery. High oxygen or unrelated signals like glucose do not trigger EPO. Answer: Low oxygen levels (hypoxia).
2. What is the main site of RBC production stimulated by erythropoietin?
Options:
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Bone marrow
D. Spleen
Explanation: Bone marrow contains hematopoietic stem cells that differentiate into erythrocytes. Erythropoietin secreted by kidney cells acts on these stem cells to increase RBC production. The kidney produces the hormone, not the cells directly. Answer: Bone marrow.
3. Which organ does not produce erythropoietin?
Options:
A. Kidney
B. Liver (adult)
C. Rostral adenohypophysis
D. Juxtaglomerular cells
Explanation: In adults, the kidney juxtaglomerular cells secrete erythropoietin. The rostral adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary) does not produce EPO. The fetal liver can produce some EPO, but in adults, liver contribution is minimal. Answer: Rostral adenohypophysis.
4. Erythropoietin primarily acts on:
Options:
A. Alpha cells of pancreas
B. Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow
C. Kidney tubules
D. Liver hepatocytes
Explanation: Erythropoietin targets hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow to stimulate proliferation and differentiation into red blood cells, thereby increasing oxygen-carrying capacity. Other organs are not the primary targets. Answer: Hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow.
5. Which pancreatic cells are unrelated to erythropoietin?
Options:
A. Beta cells
B. Alpha cells
C. Delta cells
D. All of the above
Explanation: Pancreatic cells, including alpha, beta, and delta cells, secrete hormones like glucagon, insulin, and somatostatin. They are unrelated to erythropoietin secretion. Kidney juxtaglomerular cells produce EPO, not pancreatic cells. Answer: All of the above.
6. Which of these hormones regulates RBC production?
Options:
A. Insulin
B. Erythropoietin
C. Cortisol
D. Thyroxine
Explanation: Erythropoietin specifically regulates red blood cell formation by acting on bone marrow hematopoietic stem cells. Other hormones regulate metabolism, stress, or growth. Answer: Erythropoietin.
7. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): Kidney secretes erythropoietin in response to hypoxia.
Reason (R): Low oxygen stimulates juxtaglomerular cells to produce EPO.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation
B. Both A and R are true, R is not correct explanation
C. A is true, R is false
D. A is false, R is true
Explanation: The kidney detects hypoxia and juxtaglomerular cells respond by secreting erythropoietin to stimulate RBC formation in bone marrow. The reason accurately explains the assertion. Answer: Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation.
8. Match the following:
Column I: 1. Erythropoietin 2. Alpha cells 3. Beta cells 4. Delta cells
Column II: A. Secretes insulin B. Secretes glucagon C. Stimulates RBC production D. Secretes somatostatin
Options:
A. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
B. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
C. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
D. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
Explanation: Correct matching: Erythropoietin – RBC production (C), Alpha cells – Glucagon (B), Beta cells – Insulin (A), Delta cells – Somatostatin (D). Answer: 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D.
Topic: Endocrine Functions in Reproduction
Subtopic: Hormone Secretion and Source Organs
Keyword Definitions:
Ovary: Female reproductive organ producing eggs and hormones like estrogen and progesterone.
Placenta: Temporary organ connecting fetus to uterine wall, secretes hormones to maintain pregnancy.
Corpus luteum: Temporary endocrine structure formed after ovulation, secretes progesterone and some estrogen.
Leydig cells: Cells in testes producing androgens, primarily testosterone.
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG): Hormone secreted by placenta, maintains corpus luteum in early pregnancy.
Estrogen: Female sex hormone, promotes secondary sexual characteristics and endometrial growth.
Progesterone: Hormone maintaining uterine lining for pregnancy.
Androgens: Male sex hormones, mainly testosterone, supporting male reproductive functions.
Lead Question - 2020 (COVID Reexam)
Match the following columns and select the correct option:
Column - I Column - II
(a) Ovary (i) Human chorionic Gonadotropin
(b) Placenta (ii) Estrogen & Progesterone
(c) Corpus luteum (iii) Androgens
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Progesterone only
1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
Explanation: Ovary produces estrogen and progesterone, corpus luteum secretes progesterone mainly, placenta produces hCG in early pregnancy, and Leydig cells produce androgens like testosterone. Correct matching is (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii). Answer: Option 4.
1. Single correct answer MCQ:
Which organ secretes androgens?
1. Ovary
2. Placenta
3. Leydig cells
4. Corpus luteum
Explanation: Leydig cells in the testes secrete androgens, primarily testosterone, which regulates male reproductive functions and secondary sexual characteristics. Ovary, placenta, and corpus luteum do not secrete androgens. Answer: Option 3.
2. Single correct answer MCQ:
Which hormone is secreted by corpus luteum?
1. Estrogen only
2. Progesterone only
3. hCG
4. Testosterone
Explanation: Corpus luteum secretes mainly progesterone to maintain the uterine lining for pregnancy. It also secretes some estrogen, but progesterone predominates. Answer: Option 2.
3. Single correct answer MCQ:
Which hormone is secreted by placenta in early pregnancy?
1. Estrogen
2. Progesterone
3. hCG
4. Testosterone
Explanation: Placenta secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) during early pregnancy to maintain corpus luteum, ensuring continuous progesterone production and supporting pregnancy. Answer: Option 3.
4. Single correct answer MCQ:
Ovary mainly secretes:
1. Testosterone
2. hCG
3. Estrogen and Progesterone
4. Prolactin
Explanation: Ovaries produce female sex hormones, estrogen and progesterone, which regulate menstrual cycles, secondary sexual characteristics, and prepare endometrium for pregnancy. Answer: Option 3.
5. Single correct answer MCQ:
Which structure maintains early pregnancy by progesterone secretion?
1. Placenta
2. Corpus luteum
3. Ovary
4. Leydig cells
Explanation: Corpus luteum secretes progesterone during early pregnancy to maintain the uterine lining. Placenta takes over hormone production later. Ovary and Leydig cells are not primarily responsible for early progesterone secretion. Answer: Option 2.
6. Single correct answer MCQ:
Which hormone is not secreted by ovary?
1. Estrogen
2. Progesterone
3. Androgens
4. All are secreted
Explanation: Ovary secretes estrogen and progesterone but produces minimal androgens. Leydig cells are the main source of androgens. Therefore, androgens are not secreted by the ovary. Answer: Option 3.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Leydig cells produce testosterone.
Reason (R): Testosterone is an androgen secreted by Leydig cells in testes.
1. Both A and R true, R correct explanation
2. Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
3. A true, R false
4. A false, R true
Explanation: Leydig cells in testes produce testosterone, which is an androgen. Reason accurately explains the assertion. Answer: Option 1.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Column I Column II
(a) Ovary (i) Estrogen & Progesterone
(b) Placenta (ii) hCG
(c) Corpus luteum (iii) Progesterone only
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Androgens
1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Explanation: Ovary secretes estrogen and progesterone, placenta produces hCG, corpus luteum secretes progesterone, Leydig cells produce androgens. Correct matching is (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv). Answer: Option 1.
9. Fill in the blanks:
The hormone that maintains corpus luteum during early pregnancy is ________.
1. Progesterone
2. Estrogen
3. hCG
4. Testosterone
Explanation: Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) secreted by placenta maintains the corpus luteum during early pregnancy, ensuring continued progesterone production to support uterine lining. Answer: Option 3.
10. Choose correct statements:
(a) Corpus luteum secretes progesterone
(b) Placenta secretes hCG
(c) Leydig cells produce estrogen
(d) Ovary produces estrogen and progesterone
1. a, b, d only
2. a and c only
3. b and c only
4. All statements correct
Explanation: Corpus luteum secretes progesterone, placenta secretes hCG, and ovary produces estrogen and progesterone. Leydig cells produce androgens, not estrogen. Therefore, correct statements are a, b, and d only. Answer: Option 1.
Topic: Pituitary Gland
Subtopic: Neurohypophysis Hormones
Keyword Definitions:
Neurohypophysis: Also called posterior pituitary, it stores and releases hormones secreted by hypothalamus.
Oxytocin: Hormone responsible for uterine contraction during childbirth and milk ejection during lactation.
Vasopressin (ADH): Antidiuretic hormone that increases water reabsorption in kidneys, reducing urine output.
TSH: Thyroid-stimulating hormone produced by anterior pituitary, not stored in neurohypophysis.
Lead Question - 2020 (COVID Reexam)
Hormones stored and released from neurohypophysis are:-
1. Thyroid-stimulating hormone and Oxytocin
2. Oxytocin and Vasopressin
3. Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
4. Prolactin and Vasopressin
Explanation: The neurohypophysis or posterior pituitary stores and releases two hypothalamic hormones: oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH). Oxytocin aids childbirth and lactation, while vasopressin regulates water balance. TSH, FSH, LH, and prolactin are secreted by the anterior pituitary. Answer: Option 2.
1. Which lobe of pituitary stores oxytocin?
1. Anterior lobe
2. Intermediate lobe
3. Posterior lobe
4. Hypothalamus
Explanation: Oxytocin is synthesized by hypothalamic neurons and stored in the posterior lobe of pituitary (neurohypophysis). It is released during childbirth and lactation. The anterior lobe produces tropic hormones. Answer: Option 3.
2. Which hormone prevents excessive water loss through urine?
1. Aldosterone
2. Vasopressin
3. Cortisol
4. Prolactin
Explanation: Vasopressin (ADH) secreted by hypothalamus and released from posterior pituitary increases water reabsorption in kidneys, reducing urine output and maintaining osmotic balance. Aldosterone acts on sodium reabsorption, not direct water retention. Answer: Option 2.
3. Oxytocin plays an important role in:
1. Milk ejection
2. Blood pressure regulation
3. Sodium balance
4. Protein metabolism
Explanation: Oxytocin is essential for uterine contractions during parturition and milk ejection during lactation. It does not regulate sodium, pressure, or protein metabolism. Answer: Option 1.
4. Assertion (A): Neurohypophysis produces oxytocin.
Reason (R): Oxytocin is synthesized by hypothalamic neurons and stored in neurohypophysis.
1. Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation
2. Both A and R are true, R not correct explanation
3. A false, R true
4. A true, R false
Explanation: Oxytocin is not produced in neurohypophysis but in hypothalamus. It is only stored and released by neurohypophysis. So assertion is false, reason is true. Answer: Option 3.
5. Match the following:
Column-I Column-II
(a) Vasopressin (i) Uterine contraction
(b) Oxytocin (ii) Water reabsorption
(c) TSH (iii) Stimulates thyroid
(d) Prolactin (iv) Milk production
1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
Explanation: Vasopressin regulates water reabsorption, oxytocin causes uterine contractions, TSH stimulates thyroid, and prolactin induces milk production. Correct answer is (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv). Answer: Option 1.
6. Fill in the blank:
Deficiency of vasopressin causes a disorder called ______.
1. Diabetes mellitus
2. Diabetes insipidus
3. Addison’s disease
4. Cushing’s syndrome
Explanation: Deficiency of vasopressin results in diabetes insipidus characterized by excessive thirst and dilute urine. Diabetes mellitus is due to insulin deficiency. Answer: Option 2.
7. Choose the correct statements:
(a) Oxytocin stimulates uterine contraction.
(b) Vasopressin promotes water reabsorption.
(c) Both are stored in posterior pituitary.
(d) Both are secreted by anterior pituitary.
1. a, b, c only
2. b and d only
3. a and d only
4. a, b, c and d
Explanation: Oxytocin and vasopressin are synthesized in hypothalamus and stored in posterior pituitary. They stimulate uterine contraction and water reabsorption respectively. They are not secreted by anterior pituitary. Correct statements are a, b, c. Answer: Option 1.
8. Which disorder is linked to oxytocin deficiency?
1. Delayed labor
2. Diabetes insipidus
3. Goitre
4. Acromegaly
Explanation: Oxytocin deficiency can lead to weak or delayed labor due to insufficient uterine contractions. Diabetes insipidus is due to vasopressin deficiency, goitre is thyroid related, and acromegaly is due to growth hormone excess. Answer: Option 1.
9. Which pituitary hormone promotes milk production?
1. Prolactin
2. Oxytocin
3. Vasopressin
4. TSH
Explanation: Prolactin secreted by anterior pituitary stimulates milk production in mammary glands after childbirth. Oxytocin only aids milk ejection, not production. Vasopressin regulates water, TSH stimulates thyroid. Answer: Option 1.
10. Which hypothalamic hormone controls vasopressin release?
1. CRH
2. ADH releasing hormone
3. Osmoreceptor signals
4. GHRH
Explanation: Vasopressin release is controlled by hypothalamic osmoreceptor signals that detect blood osmolarity changes. Increased osmolarity triggers release from posterior pituitary. CRH controls ACTH, GHRH controls growth hormone. Answer: Option 3.
Subtopic: Hormone Types and Functions
Keyword Definitions:
Pituitary Hormone: Secreted by the pituitary gland, includes growth hormone, ACTH, TSH, which are mainly peptides and proteins.
Epinephrine: A biogenic amine secreted by adrenal medulla, also called adrenaline, involved in fight-or-flight response.
Endorphins: Neuropeptides functioning as natural painkillers and mood enhancers.
Cortisol: A steroid hormone secreted by adrenal cortex, regulating metabolism and stress response.
Lead Question - 2020 (COVID Reexam)
Match the following columns and select the correct option:-
Column-I Column-II
(a) Pituitary hormone (i) Steroid
(b) Epinephrine (ii) Neuropeptides
(c) Endorphins (iii) Peptides, proteins
(d) Cortisol (iv) Biogenic amines
1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Explanation: Pituitary hormones are proteins or peptides, epinephrine is a biogenic amine, endorphins are neuropeptides, and cortisol is a steroid hormone. Thus, the correct match is (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i). Answer: Option 2.
1. Which of the following is a steroid hormone?
1. Insulin
2. Cortisol
3. Oxytocin
4. Glucagon
Explanation: Cortisol is a steroid hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex. It regulates metabolism, suppresses inflammation, and is essential in stress responses. Insulin, oxytocin, and glucagon are peptide or protein hormones. Answer: Option 2.
2. Which of the following is secreted by the adrenal medulla?
1. Cortisol
2. Aldosterone
3. Epinephrine
4. Insulin
Explanation: Adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are biogenic amines. They prepare the body for stress or emergency through fight-or-flight responses. Cortisol and aldosterone are secreted by adrenal cortex, insulin by pancreas. Answer: Option 3.
3. Endorphins act as:
1. Stress hormones
2. Pain suppressors
3. Digestive enzymes
4. Growth regulators
Explanation: Endorphins are neuropeptides produced in the brain and pituitary gland. They bind to opioid receptors, reducing pain perception and inducing a feeling of well-being and euphoria. Thus, they act as natural pain suppressors. Answer: Option 2.
4. Which pituitary hormone stimulates the thyroid gland?
1. ACTH
2. TSH
3. LH
4. FSH
Explanation: Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is secreted by the anterior pituitary. It stimulates the thyroid gland to release thyroxine, which regulates metabolism. ACTH stimulates adrenal cortex, LH and FSH act on gonads. Answer: Option 2.
5. Assertion (A): Epinephrine increases blood glucose levels.
Reason (R): Epinephrine stimulates glycogen breakdown in liver and muscle.
1. Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation
2. Both A and R are true, R not correct explanation
3. A true, R false
4. A false, R true
Explanation: Epinephrine, secreted by adrenal medulla, increases blood glucose by stimulating glycogenolysis in liver and muscles. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason correctly explains assertion. Answer: Option 1.
6. Match the following:
Column-I Column-II
(a) Insulin (i) Raises blood sugar
(b) Glucagon (ii) Lowers blood sugar
(c) Thyroxine (iii) Regulates metabolism
(d) Oxytocin (iv) Uterine contraction
1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
Explanation: Insulin lowers blood sugar, glucagon raises blood sugar, thyroxine regulates metabolism, and oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth. Thus, correct answer is (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv). Answer: Option 2.
7. Fill in the blank:
The hormone secreted by the pineal gland is ______.
1. Melatonin
2. Calcitonin
3. Vasopressin
4. Prolactin
Explanation: The pineal gland secretes melatonin, which regulates biological rhythms such as sleep-wake cycles. Calcitonin is secreted by thyroid, vasopressin by posterior pituitary, prolactin by anterior pituitary. Answer: Option 1.
8. Choose the correct statements regarding hormones:
(a) Cortisol is a steroid
(b) Epinephrine is a peptide
(c) Insulin is a protein
(d) Endorphins are neuropeptides
1. a, c and d only
2. b and c only
3. a and b only
4. a, b, c and d
Explanation: Cortisol is a steroid hormone, insulin is a protein hormone, and endorphins are neuropeptides. Epinephrine is not a peptide but a biogenic amine. Correct statements are a, c and d. Answer: Option 1.
9. Which hormone regulates water reabsorption in kidney tubules?
1. Oxytocin
2. Vasopressin
3. Aldosterone
4. Cortisol
Explanation: Vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH) secreted by posterior pituitary increases water reabsorption in kidney tubules, reducing urine output. It maintains body fluid balance. Aldosterone regulates sodium reabsorption, cortisol regulates metabolism, oxytocin controls uterine contraction. Answer: Option 2.
10. Which endocrine gland is called the “master gland”?
1. Adrenal gland
2. Pituitary gland
3. Thyroid gland
4. Pancreas
Explanation: Pituitary gland is called the master gland because it secretes multiple hormones regulating other endocrine glands, such as thyroid, adrenal, and gonads. It controls growth, metabolism, reproduction, and stress responses. Answer: Option 2.
Keyword Definitions:
Pituitary gland – Master endocrine gland located at the base of the brain; regulates other endocrine glands via hormone secretion.
Thyroid gland – Endocrine gland in the neck producing thyroxine and triiodothyronine; regulates metabolism and growth.
Adrenal gland – Paired glands above kidneys producing cortisol, aldosterone, and adrenaline; involved in stress response and metabolism.
Pancreas – Endocrine and exocrine gland producing insulin and glucagon; regulates blood glucose levels.
Grave's disease – Autoimmune disorder causing hyperthyroidism, characterized by overproduction of thyroid hormones.
Diabetes mellitus – Metabolic disorder caused by insulin deficiency or resistance, leading to hyperglycemia.
Diabetes insipidus – Condition caused by deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to excessive urination and thirst.
Addison's disease – Chronic adrenal insufficiency resulting in low cortisol and aldosterone levels, causing fatigue, hypotension, and electrolyte imbalance.
Hormones – Chemical messengers secreted by glands that regulate physiological activities.
Endocrine system – Collection of glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream to control body functions.
Metabolic disorder – Condition that disrupts normal chemical processes in the body, often hormone-related.
Lead Question - 2020
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave's disease
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison's disease
Options:
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
Explanation: Pituitary gland deficiency or excess causes diabetes insipidus (a-iii). Thyroid gland disorders include Grave’s disease (b-i). Adrenal insufficiency results in Addison's disease (c-iv). Pancreas dysfunction causes diabetes mellitus (d-ii). Correct matching corresponds to option (1).
1. Single Correct Answer: Which gland secretes insulin?
(1) Pituitary
(2) Thyroid
(3) Pancreas
(4) Adrenal
Explanation: The pancreas secretes insulin from beta cells in the islets of Langerhans, regulating blood glucose levels. Correct answer is (3) Pancreas.
2. Single Correct Answer: Which disease is caused by excess thyroid hormone?
(1) Addison's disease
(2) Diabetes insipidus
(3) Grave's disease
(4) Diabetes mellitus
Explanation: Grave’s disease is an autoimmune disorder causing hyperthyroidism, characterized by excessive thyroid hormone production, weight loss, and heat intolerance. Correct answer is (3) Grave's disease.
3. Single Correct Answer: Addison's disease primarily affects which gland?
(1) Thyroid
(2) Adrenal
(3) Pancreas
(4) Pituitary
Explanation: Addison’s disease is caused by chronic adrenal insufficiency, leading to low cortisol and aldosterone levels, causing fatigue, hypotension, and electrolyte imbalance. Correct answer is (2) Adrenal.
4. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): Pituitary gland regulates water balance.
Reason (R): It secretes antidiuretic hormone controlling renal water reabsorption.
(1) Both A and R true, R explains A
(2) Both A and R true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Explanation: The posterior pituitary secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH) which regulates water reabsorption in kidneys. This directly controls water balance. Both assertion and reason are true, and R explains A. Correct answer is (1).
5. Single Correct Answer: Diabetes insipidus results from deficiency of:
(1) Insulin
(2) Thyroxine
(3) Antidiuretic hormone
(4) Cortisol
Explanation: Diabetes insipidus occurs due to deficiency of ADH secreted by the posterior pituitary, leading to polyuria and polydipsia. Correct answer is (3) Antidiuretic hormone.
6. Single Correct Answer: Which gland is called the master gland?
(1) Thyroid
(2) Pituitary
(3) Adrenal
(4) Pancreas
Explanation: Pituitary gland is called the master gland because it secretes hormones regulating other endocrine glands’ activity. Correct answer is (2) Pituitary.
7. Matching Type: Match the hormone with gland:
a. Cortisol – i. Pituitary
b. Thyroxine – ii. Thyroid
c. Insulin – iii. Pancreas
d. ADH – iv. Adrenal
Options:
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
Explanation: Cortisol is secreted by adrenal glands (a-iv), thyroxine by thyroid (b-ii), insulin by pancreas (c-iii), and ADH by pituitary (d-i). Correct answer is (1).
8. Fill in the blank: Excess of thyroid hormone leads to ______.
(1) Hypothyroidism
(2) Grave's disease
(3) Addison's disease
(4) Diabetes mellitus
Explanation: Excess thyroid hormone causes hyperthyroidism, commonly known as Grave’s disease. Correct answer is (2) Grave's disease.
9. Single Correct Answer: Which endocrine disorder results in low blood glucose control?
(1) Addison's disease
(2) Diabetes insipidus
(3) Diabetes mellitus
(4) Grave's disease
Explanation: Diabetes mellitus results from insulin deficiency or resistance, leading to high blood glucose and impaired glucose metabolism. Correct answer is (3) Diabetes mellitus.
10. Choose the correct statements:
(a) Pituitary secretes ADH
(b) Thyroid regulates metabolism
(c) Adrenal produces insulin
Keyword Definitions:
Placenta: Temporary organ that connects the fetus to the mother, secreting hormones like hCG.
Zona pellucida: Glycoprotein-rich layer surrounding the ovum, important for fertilization.
Bulbo-urethral glands: Glands producing mucus for lubrication of the penis.
Leydig cells: Testicular cells that produce androgens such as testosterone.
hCG: Human Chorionic Gonadotropin, hormone produced by placenta to maintain pregnancy.
Androgens: Male sex hormones, mainly testosterone, secreted by Leydig cells.
Fertilization: Fusion of male and female gametes, usually in the fallopian tube.
Lead Question - 2020
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Placenta (i) Androgens
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
(c) Bulbo-urethral glands (iii) Layer of the ovum
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the Penis
(1) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(3) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii)
(4) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(iii)
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Placenta secretes hCG to maintain pregnancy, Zona pellucida surrounds the ovum, Bulbo-urethral glands lubricate the penis, and Leydig cells produce androgens. This matching highlights structural and hormonal roles in reproduction, essential for fertilization, implantation, lubrication, and male sexual function, ensuring successful reproduction in humans.
1. Which hormone is essential to maintain pregnancy?
(1) Progesterone
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Testosterone
(4) Prolactin
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) Progesterone. It maintains the endometrial lining and prevents uterine contractions during pregnancy. It is secreted by the corpus luteum initially and later by the placenta. Without sufficient progesterone, implantation and continuation of pregnancy are not possible, making it critical for fetal development and maternal support.
2. The role of acrosome during fertilization is:
(1) To form the zona pellucida
(2) To dissolve the zona pellucida
(3) To secrete testosterone
(4) To secrete hCG
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) To dissolve the zona pellucida. Acrosome is a cap-like structure on the sperm head containing hydrolytic enzymes. These enzymes break down the zona pellucida of the ovum, allowing the sperm nucleus to fuse with the egg nucleus, completing fertilization and initiating zygote formation.
3. Which cells secrete testosterone in males?
(1) Sertoli cells
(2) Leydig cells
(3) Granulosa cells
(4) Acrosome cells
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Leydig cells. Located in the interstitial spaces of testes, Leydig cells secrete androgens, mainly testosterone, under the influence of LH. Testosterone regulates spermatogenesis, development of male reproductive structures, and secondary sexual characters, making these cells vital for male reproductive physiology.
4. Which structure prevents polyspermy in fertilization?
(1) Placenta
(2) Zona pellucida
(3) Acrosome
(4) Seminal vesicles
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Zona pellucida. After the entry of one sperm, zona pellucida undergoes a biochemical modification known as the cortical reaction, which blocks additional sperm entry. This ensures only one sperm fertilizes the egg, preventing polyspermy, which would otherwise lead to abnormal development of the zygote.
5. Which hormone is detected in pregnancy tests?
(1) Progesterone
(2) hCG
(3) LH
(4) Estrogen
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) hCG. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin, secreted by placenta after implantation, is detected in urine or blood during pregnancy tests. Its presence confirms conception. hCG supports the corpus luteum to continue progesterone secretion, which is necessary for maintaining the uterine lining and successful development of the embryo.
6. Which gland secretes fructose-rich fluid in semen?
(1) Prostate gland
(2) Seminal vesicles
(3) Bulbo-urethral glands
(4) Testes
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Seminal vesicles. These glands secrete seminal fluid rich in fructose, which provides energy to spermatozoa. Seminal vesicle secretion forms a major part of semen volume, along with prostaglandins and other nutrients that support sperm motility and fertilization potential within the female reproductive tract.
7. Assertion-Reason: Assertion: Placenta secretes hCG. Reason: hCG prevents degeneration of corpus luteum.
(1) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
(2) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Placenta secretes hCG after implantation. hCG ensures the survival of the corpus luteum during early pregnancy, which continues secreting progesterone to maintain the uterine lining. This prevents menstruation and allows the embryo to implant and develop, making the reason a correct explanation of the assertion.
8. Match the following hormones with their sources:
(a) Oxytocin (i) Posterior pituitary
(b) Progesterone (ii) Corpus luteum
(c) Testosterone (iii) Leydig cells
(d) hCG (iv) Placenta
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Oxytocin is secreted by posterior pituitary, Progesterone by corpus luteum, Testosterone by Leydig cells, and hCG by placenta. These hormones collectively regulate reproduction, pregnancy, childbirth, and male sexual function, ensuring coordinated physiological processes for survival and propagation of the species.
9. Fill in the blank: ______ prevents premature expulsion of the embryo.
(1) Oxytocin
(2) Progesterone
(3) Testosterone
(4) Relaxin
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Progesterone. This hormone inhibits uterine contractions and maintains the endometrium during pregnancy. It is secreted by the corpus luteum and later by the placenta. By preventing premature uterine activity, progesterone ensures the embryo remains implanted and continues normal development throughout gestation.
10. Choose the correct statements:
(a) Leydig cells produce androgens.
(b) Placenta secretes hCG.
(c) Bulbo-urethral glands provide energy to sperm.
(d) Zona pellucida surrounds the ovum.
(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, c, d
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Leydig cells produce testosterone, Placenta secretes hCG, and Zona pellucida surrounds the ovum. Bulbo-urethral glands do not provide energy to sperm; they secrete mucus for lubrication. Energy to sperm is provided mainly by fructose-rich fluid from seminal vesicles.
Keyword Definitions:
Diabetes Mellitus: A metabolic disorder marked by high blood sugar due to insulin deficiency or resistance.
Ketonuria: Presence of ketone bodies in urine due to fat breakdown.
Glycosuria: Excretion of glucose in urine, seen when blood sugar levels exceed renal threshold.
Uremia: Accumulation of urea in blood due to kidney malfunction.
Renal Calculi: Hard deposits of salts and minerals in kidneys, commonly known as kidney stones.
Hyperglycemia: A condition characterized by abnormally high blood glucose levels.
Lead Question - 2020
Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ?
(1) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(2) Renal calculi and Hyperglycemia
(3) Uremia and Ketonuria
(4) Uremia and Renal Calculi
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) Ketonuria and Glycosuria. Diabetes Mellitus leads to poor glucose utilization and fat breakdown, causing glucose and ketones to appear in urine. These are characteristic diagnostic features of the condition. Uremia and renal calculi are not diagnostic markers for this disorder. Hyperglycemia refers to blood, not urine findings.
1. A patient shows elevated blood sugar after fasting. Which test confirms Diabetes Mellitus?
(1) Serum creatinine
(2) Oral glucose tolerance test
(3) Uric acid test
(4) ECG
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Oral glucose tolerance test. It measures the body’s ability to metabolize glucose and diagnose Diabetes Mellitus. High fasting blood sugar and poor response to glucose load indicate disease. Other tests like creatinine or uric acid evaluate kidney and metabolism, not blood glucose handling.
2. Which hormone deficiency directly causes Diabetes Mellitus?
(1) Insulin
(2) Glucagon
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Cortisol
Explanation: The correct answer is (1) Insulin. Insulin deficiency or resistance prevents glucose uptake by cells, leading to hyperglycemia. Glucagon, thyroxine, and cortisol influence metabolism but do not directly cause diabetes. Insulin plays a central role in regulating blood glucose and energy balance, making its lack the defining cause of this disorder.
3. Prolonged uncontrolled Diabetes Mellitus may cause?
(1) Hypertension
(2) Diabetic nephropathy
(3) Osteoporosis
(4) Gout
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Diabetic nephropathy. Chronic high glucose damages glomeruli, leading to proteinuria and kidney failure. Hypertension may coexist but is not a direct consequence. Osteoporosis and gout are unrelated. Nephropathy is a major complication of poorly controlled diabetes, causing progressive renal damage over time if untreated.
4. Which of the following is not a symptom of Diabetes Mellitus?
(1) Polyuria
(2) Polydipsia
(3) Polyphagia
(4) Jaundice
Explanation: The correct answer is (4) Jaundice. Diabetes Mellitus is typically characterized by polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia due to high blood glucose and osmotic effects. Jaundice, a yellowing of the skin due to bilirubin accumulation, is a liver-related symptom and is not directly linked to diabetes pathology or common presentation.
5. The immediate cause of Ketone body formation in diabetes is:
(1) Excess glucose
(2) Fatty acid breakdown
(3) Protein synthesis
(4) Glycogen storage
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Fatty acid breakdown. In absence of insulin action, cells cannot utilize glucose properly, leading to lipolysis. Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation, producing ketone bodies. This results in ketonuria and ketoacidosis. Excess glucose remains unused, glycogen storage is impaired, and protein synthesis is not the cause.
6. Which organ is primarily damaged by diabetic nephropathy?
(1) Liver
(2) Kidney
(3) Pancreas
(4) Heart
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Kidney. Diabetic nephropathy results from long-term damage to kidney glomeruli due to high glucose levels. This leads to albuminuria and eventual renal failure. Liver, pancreas, and heart may also be affected in diabetes complications, but nephropathy specifically involves kidneys as the target organ.
7. Assertion-Reason: Diabetes Mellitus leads to excessive urination. Reason: High blood glucose increases osmotic pressure of urine.
(1) Both A and R true, R is correct explanation
(2) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Osmotic diuresis occurs when excess glucose in renal filtrate draws water into urine, causing polyuria. Thus, both assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.
8. Match the following complications with diabetes:
(a) Retinopathy (i) Eye damage
(b) Neuropathy (ii) Nerve damage
(c) Nephropathy (iii) Kidney damage
(d) Atherosclerosis (iv) Arterial damage
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Retinopathy affects eyes, neuropathy damages nerves, nephropathy injures kidneys, and atherosclerosis affects arteries. These are common long-term complications of diabetes caused by chronic hyperglycemia and vascular damage. Proper glucose control helps in preventing or delaying these serious complications.
9. Fill in the blank: The autoimmune destruction of β-cells in pancreas leads to __________.
(1) Type 2 Diabetes
(2) Type 1 Diabetes
(3) Gestational Diabetes
(4) Secondary Diabetes
Explanation: The correct answer is (2) Type 1 Diabetes. Autoimmune reactions destroy insulin-producing β-cells of pancreas, leading to absolute insulin deficiency. This is distinct from type 2 diabetes, which involves insulin resistance. Gestational diabetes occurs in pregnancy, while secondary diabetes arises from other endocrine or systemic disorders.
10. Choose the correct statements:
(a) Glycosuria is due to high renal threshold.
(b) Insulin facilitates cellular glucose uptake.
(c) Diabetes Mellitus is associated with polyuria.
(d) Glucagon reduces blood glucose.
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a and d
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Insulin helps glucose entry into cells, and polyuria is a major feature of diabetes. Glycosuria occurs due to low renal threshold being exceeded, not high. Glucagon increases, not decreases, blood glucose. Thus only statements b and c are correct in this context.
Insulin: Hormone produced by beta cells of pancreas; lowers blood glucose by facilitating cellular uptake and storage.
Glucagon: Hormone secreted by alpha cells of pancreas; increases blood glucose by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.
Pancreatic cells: Cells in pancreas including alpha and beta cells responsible for hormone secretion.
Adipocytes: Fat-storing cells influenced by insulin for glucose uptake and fat synthesis.
Hyperglycemia: Condition of elevated blood glucose levels.
Hypoglycemia: Condition of abnormally low blood glucose levels.
Glucocorticoids: Steroid hormones from adrenal cortex; stimulate gluconeogenesis and influence metabolism.
Gluconeogenesis: Formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors such as amino acids.
Glycogenolysis: Breakdown of glycogen into glucose in liver or muscle.
Endocrine system: Hormonal system controlling metabolism, growth, and homeostasis.
Blood glucose regulation: Homeostatic control of glucose levels by insulin, glucagon, and other hormones.
Lead Question (2020): Select the correct statement :
Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes
Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia
Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis
Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia
Explanation: The correct answer is 3. Glucocorticoids, secreted from adrenal cortex, stimulate gluconeogenesis, raising blood glucose. Insulin lowers blood glucose and acts on adipocytes, not on pancreatic hormone secretion. Glucagon raises blood glucose, causing hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Hence, statement 3 is correct in glucose metabolism regulation.
Guessed MCQs:
Question 1: Insulin primarily acts on:
A. Liver cells
B. Adipocytes
C. Muscle cells
D. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is D. Insulin facilitates glucose uptake in muscle and fat cells, and inhibits hepatic glucose production, regulating blood glucose homeostasis effectively across multiple tissues.
Question 2: Glucagon increases blood glucose by:
A. Glycogen synthesis
B. Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
C. Fat storage
D. Insulin secretion
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Glucagon stimulates liver glycogen breakdown (glycogenolysis) and synthesis of new glucose (gluconeogenesis), thereby increasing blood glucose levels.
Question 3: Hypoglycemia results from:
A. Excess glucagon
B. Insulin overdose
C. High glucocorticoids
D. Fasting
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Excess insulin leads to abnormally low blood glucose (hypoglycemia) as it promotes cellular uptake of glucose, reducing circulating levels.
Question 4: Hyperglycemia is associated with:
A. Glucagon
B. Insulin deficiency
C. Glucocorticoid excess
D. All of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is D. Hyperglycemia occurs due to insufficient insulin, excessive glucagon, or glucocorticoid excess, all of which raise blood glucose levels through metabolic pathways.
Question 5: Glucocorticoids stimulate glucose production via:
A. Glycolysis
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Lipogenesis
D. Glycogen storage
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Glucocorticoids from adrenal cortex enhance gluconeogenesis, generating glucose from non-carbohydrate sources to maintain blood glucose during stress.
Question 6: Insulin lowers blood glucose by:
A. Promoting glycogen breakdown
B. Facilitating cellular glucose uptake
C. Stimulating gluconeogenesis
D. Reducing glucose utilization
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Insulin stimulates uptake of glucose by adipocytes and muscle cells, promotes glycogen formation, and reduces blood glucose to maintain homeostasis.
Question 7: Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): Glucocorticoids raise blood glucose.
Reason (R): They stimulate gluconeogenesis in the liver.
A. Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation
B. Both A and R are true, R is not correct explanation
C. A true, R false
D. A false, R true
Explanation: The correct answer is A. Glucocorticoids increase blood glucose by stimulating gluconeogenesis in the liver, providing energy during stress and fasting. This mechanism directly explains the assertion.
Question 8: Matching Type: Match hormone with effect:
i. Insulin - A. Lowers blood glucose
ii. Glucagon - B. Raises blood glucose
iii. Glucocorticoids - C. Stimulates gluconeogenesis
iv. Epinephrine - D. Mobilizes glucose rapidly
Choices:
A. i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv-D
B. i-B, ii-A, iii-D, iv-C
C. i-C, ii-D, iii-A, iv-B
D. i-D, ii-C, iii-B, iv-A
Explanation: The correct answer is A. Insulin lowers glucose (i-A), glucagon raises glucose (ii-B), glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis (iii-C), and epinephrine mobilizes glucose rapidly during stress (iv-D).
Question 9: Fill in the Blanks: ________ is secreted by beta cells of pancreas and lowers blood glucose.
A. Glucagon
B. Insulin
C. Cortisol
D. Adrenaline
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Insulin, secreted by beta cells, reduces blood glucose by promoting uptake into cells, glycogen formation, and inhibiting glucose production in the liver.
Question 10: Choose the correct statements:
i. Insulin lowers blood glucose
ii. Glucagon raises blood glucose
iii. Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis
iv. Excess insulin causes hyperglycemia
A. i, ii, iii
B. i, ii, iv
C. ii, iii, iv
D. i, iii, iv
Explanation: The correct answer is A. Insulin lowers blood glucose (i), glucagon raises it (ii), glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis (iii). Excess insulin causes hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia, so iv is incorrect.
Subtopic: Ovulation and Hormonal Control
Ovulation: Release of a mature ovum from the Graafian follicle into the fallopian tube.
Graafian Follicle: Mature ovarian follicle that contains the ovum ready for release during ovulation.
Luteinizing Hormone (LH): Pituitary hormone that triggers ovulation and formation of corpus luteum.
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH): Pituitary hormone that stimulates follicular growth and maturation of the ovum.
Estrogen: Ovarian hormone that regulates menstrual cycle and triggers LH surge at ovulation.
Progesterone: Hormone secreted by corpus luteum post-ovulation that prepares endometrium for implantation.
Hormonal Surge: Rapid increase in hormone concentration that triggers physiological events.
Menstrual Cycle: Monthly cyclic changes in the ovary and uterus controlled by hormones.
Corpus Luteum: Structure formed from the ruptured follicle after ovulation, secreting progesterone.
Endometrium: Lining of the uterus that thickens under estrogen and progesterone for potential implantation.
Feedback Mechanism: Regulation of hormone secretion by positive or negative feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary.
Lead Question (2020): Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the Graafian follicle?
Options:
1. Low concentration of LH
2. Low concentration of FSH
3. High concentration of Estrogen
4. High concentration of Progesterone
Explanation: Correct answer is 3. High concentration of estrogen from the mature follicle induces a positive feedback on the anterior pituitary, causing a surge in LH and FSH, which triggers ovulation. Low LH or FSH cannot initiate ovulation, and high progesterone occurs after ovulation, not before.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which hormone surge directly triggers ovulation?
Options:
a. LH
b. FSH
c. Estrogen
d. Progesterone
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Luteinizing hormone surge from the anterior pituitary triggers the rupture of the Graafian follicle and release of the ovum, marking ovulation.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which hormone is primarily responsible for follicular growth?
Options:
a. LH
b. FSH
c. Estrogen
d. Progesterone
Explanation: Correct answer is b. FSH stimulates the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, preparing the ovum for ovulation.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which hormone maintains endometrium after ovulation?
Options:
a. LH
b. FSH
c. Progesterone
d. Estrogen
Explanation: Correct answer is c. Progesterone secreted by the corpus luteum after ovulation stabilizes and thickens the endometrial lining to support potential implantation.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Estrogen triggers ovulation by:
Options:
a. Positive feedback on pituitary to release LH
b. Negative feedback on FSH
c. Directly rupturing the follicle
d. Increasing progesterone
Explanation: Correct answer is a. High estrogen levels from the mature follicle act on the anterior pituitary to cause a surge in LH and FSH, which then induces ovulation.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Low levels of which hormone cannot induce ovulation?
Options:
a. LH
b. Estrogen
c. Progesterone
d. FSH
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Low LH cannot trigger follicle rupture. LH surge is essential for ovulation, while low FSH can support follicular growth if combined with other hormones.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
During which phase of the menstrual cycle is estrogen highest?
Options:
a. Menstrual phase
b. Follicular phase
c. Luteal phase
d. Ovulatory phase
Explanation: Correct answer is d. Estrogen peaks just before ovulation during the ovulatory phase, causing positive feedback on the pituitary and inducing LH surge for ovum release.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): High estrogen levels cause ovulation.
Reason (R): Estrogen induces a positive feedback on anterior pituitary leading to LH surge.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, R explains A
b. Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
c. A is true, R is false
d. A is false, R is true
Explanation: Correct answer is a. High estrogen levels stimulate the anterior pituitary via positive feedback, causing a surge in LH, which directly triggers ovulation, making both assertion and reason true with the reason explanatory.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match the hormone with function:
(a) LH - (i) Follicle growth
(b) FSH - (ii) Ovulation
(c) Progesterone - (iii) Endometrium maintenance
(d) Estrogen - (iv) LH surge
Options:
1. a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
2. a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
3. a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
4. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
Explanation: Correct answer is 1. LH triggers ovulation, FSH stimulates follicular growth, progesterone maintains endometrium post-ovulation, and estrogen peak induces LH surge for ovulation.
9. Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
_________ surge is essential for ovulation.
Options:
a. FSH
b. LH
c. Progesterone
d. Estrogen
Explanation: Correct answer is b. Luteinizing hormone surge from the anterior pituitary is the direct trigger for the rupture of the Graafian follicle and release of ovum during ovulation.
10. Choose the correct statements MCQ:
Select all correct statements:
i. Estrogen peak triggers LH surge
ii. LH surge causes ovulation
iii. Progesterone prepares endometrium post-ovulation
iv. Low FSH directly triggers ovulation
Options:
1. i, ii, iii
2. i, ii, iv
3. ii, iii, iv
4. i, iii, iv
Topic: Hormonal Regulation
Subtopic: Steroid Hormone Action
Steroid Hormone: Lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol that regulate gene expression.
Gene-Hormone Complex: Formed when steroid hormones bind to DNA to modulate transcription of target genes.
Cell Membrane: Biological membrane enclosing the cytoplasm, regulating substance exchange and signaling.
Cyclic AMP (cAMP): Secondary messenger in peptide hormone signaling, activating protein kinases.
Aquaporin Channels: Membrane proteins facilitating water transport across cell membranes.
Transcription: Synthesis of RNA from DNA, influenced by steroid hormones in target cells.
Endocrine System: Body system producing hormones regulating metabolism, growth, and reproduction.
Receptor: Protein that binds hormones or ligands, triggering cellular response.
Second Messenger: Intracellular signaling molecule transmitting extracellular signals from membrane receptors.
Target Cell: Cell that responds to a specific hormone due to receptor presence.
Hormonal Regulation: Control of cellular and physiological activities by hormones.
Lead Question (2019): How does steroid hormone influence the cellular activities?
Options:
1. Changing the permeability of the cell membrane.
2. Binding to DNA and forming a gene-hormone complex
3. Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell membrane.
4. Using aquaporin channels as second messenger
Explanation: Correct answer is 2. Steroid hormones are lipid-soluble and enter the cell, binding to specific intracellular receptors. This forms a gene-hormone complex, which directly influences transcription of target genes and protein synthesis. Unlike peptide hormones, they do not use membrane-bound cyclic AMP or aquaporin channels for signal transduction.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which steroid hormone regulates calcium metabolism?
Options:
a. Cortisol
b. Aldosterone
c. Vitamin D (Calcitriol)
d. Insulin
Explanation: Correct answer is c. Calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D, is a steroid hormone regulating calcium and phosphate metabolism by binding intracellular receptors and modulating gene expression. Cortisol and aldosterone have other functions, while insulin is a peptide hormone affecting glucose metabolism.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Steroid hormones typically bind to receptors located in:
Options:
a. Cell membrane
b. Cytoplasm and nucleus
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Mitochondria
Explanation: Correct answer is b. Steroid hormones are lipid-soluble, so they diffuse through the plasma membrane and bind cytoplasmic or nuclear receptors to form gene-hormone complexes that regulate transcription. Membrane receptors and organelles like Golgi or mitochondria are not primary sites for steroid hormone binding.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which of the following is a steroid hormone?
Options:
a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Cortisol
d. Epinephrine
Explanation: Correct answer is c. Cortisol is a steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, regulating metabolism and stress response. Insulin and glucagon are peptide hormones, and epinephrine is an amine hormone; none use intracellular receptors to modulate gene expression.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Steroid hormones influence target cells by:
Options:
a. Activating adenylate cyclase
b. Increasing cAMP levels
c. Directly regulating gene transcription
d. Opening ion channels
Explanation: Correct answer is c. Steroid hormones penetrate the cell membrane and form gene-hormone complexes, directly modulating transcription. Unlike peptide hormones, they do not activate adenylate cyclase, change cAMP, or open ion channels, making gene regulation their primary mechanism of action.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which receptor type mediates steroid hormone action?
Options:
a. G-protein coupled receptor
b. Nuclear receptor
c. Tyrosine kinase receptor
d. Ion channel receptor
Explanation: Correct answer is b. Steroid hormones bind nuclear receptors in cytoplasm or nucleus, forming gene-hormone complexes that modulate transcription. G-protein coupled, tyrosine kinase, or ion channel receptors are used by peptide or amine hormones, not steroid hormones.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which steroid hormone is involved in water and salt balance?
Options:
a. Aldosterone
b. Testosterone
c. Progesterone
d. Cortisol
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Aldosterone, a mineralocorticoid produced by adrenal cortex, regulates sodium and water reabsorption in kidneys by influencing gene transcription. Testosterone, progesterone, and cortisol have different functions in reproduction, metabolism, and stress response.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Steroid hormones act by forming a gene-hormone complex.
Reason (R): They are lipid-soluble and enter the target cell to bind intracellular receptors.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, R explains A
b. Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
c. A is true, R is false
d. A is false, R is true
Explanation: Correct answer is a. Steroid hormones are lipid-soluble, allowing them to penetrate the cell membrane and bind intracellular receptors. This leads to formation of gene-hormone complexes, which regulate transcription. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason explains the mechanism described in the assertion.
8. Matching Type MCQ:
Match steroid hormones with their primary function:
Column-I Column-II
(a) Cortisol (i) Salt and water balance
(b) Aldosterone (ii) Stress and metabolism
(c) Testosterone (iii) Male reproductive functions
(d) Progesterone (iv) Female reproductive cycle
Options:
1. a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
2. a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
3. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
4. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Explanation: Correct answer is 1. Cortisol regulates stress and metabolism, Aldosterone controls salt and water balance, Testosterone governs male reproductive functions, and Progesterone modulates female reproductive cycle. Matching hormones with their primary function demonstrates their role in physiological regulation.
9. Fill in the Blanks / Completion MCQ:</
Subtopic: Hormones and Related Diseases
Keyword Definitions:
• Insulin: Hormone produced by pancreatic beta cells that regulates blood glucose by promoting uptake into cells.
• Thyroxin: Thyroid hormone responsible for regulating metabolism, growth, and development.
• Corticoids: Hormones produced by adrenal cortex involved in stress response, metabolism, and electrolyte balance.
• Growth Hormone (GH): Pituitary hormone that stimulates growth, cell reproduction, and regeneration.
• Addison’s disease: Condition caused by adrenal insufficiency leading to cortisol deficiency.
• Diabetes insipidus: Disease due to ADH deficiency causing excessive urination and thirst.
• Acromegaly: Disorder due to excess growth hormone in adults, causing enlargement of bones and tissues.
• Goitre: Enlargement of thyroid gland due to iodine deficiency or thyroid hormone imbalance.
• Diabetes mellitus: Disease characterized by high blood sugar due to insulin deficiency or resistance.
Lead Question (2019):
Match the following hormones with the respective disease:
(a) Insulin (i) Addison’s disease
(b) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly
(d) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre
(v) Diabetes mellitus
Explanation: Correct matches are a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-iii. Insulin deficiency causes Diabetes mellitus. Thyroxin imbalance results in Goitre. Corticoid deficiency leads to Addison’s disease. Excess Growth Hormone in adults results in Acromegaly. Understanding these hormone-disease relationships is key in physiology and clinical diagnosis.
1) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which hormone deficiency causes Diabetes mellitus?
(1) Thyroxin
(2) Corticoids
(3) Insulin
(4) Growth Hormone
Explanation: Correct answer is (3). Insulin deficiency or resistance prevents glucose uptake by cells, causing elevated blood glucose levels, which is the hallmark of Diabetes mellitus.
2) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Goitre is caused by deficiency of:
(1) Corticoids
(2) Thyroxin
(3) Insulin
(4) Growth Hormone
Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Goitre results from deficiency of Thyroxin, which leads to thyroid enlargement as the gland attempts to compensate and produce sufficient hormone.
3) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Addison’s disease is associated with deficiency of:
(1) Insulin
(2) Corticoids
(3) Thyroxin
(4) Growth Hormone
Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Addison’s disease arises due to adrenal cortex insufficiency, resulting in decreased production of Corticoids, which affects metabolism, stress response, and electrolyte balance.
4) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Excess of which hormone leads to Acromegaly?
(1) Insulin
(2) Thyroxin
(3) Growth Hormone
(4) Corticoids
Explanation: Correct answer is (3). Excess Growth Hormone in adults causes Acromegaly, leading to abnormal enlargement of bones, hands, feet, and soft tissues.
5) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which hormone regulates blood sugar levels?
(1) Corticoids
(2) Thyroxin
(3) Insulin
(4) Growth Hormone
Explanation: Correct answer is (3). Insulin, secreted by pancreatic beta cells, facilitates cellular glucose uptake, lowering blood sugar and maintaining homeostasis.
6) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which hormone is secreted by the thyroid gland?
(1) Insulin
(2) Thyroxin
(3) Corticoids
(4) Growth Hormone
Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Thyroxin is produced by the thyroid gland and regulates metabolism, growth, and development. Deficiency can lead to Goitre.
7) Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Excess growth hormone causes abnormal bone enlargement.
Reason (R): Growth Hormone stimulates cell growth and division.
Options:
(1) A true, R true, R correct explanation
(2) A true, R true, R not correct explanation
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Explanation: Correct answer is (1). Excess GH stimulates continuous cell growth and division, leading to enlarged bones and tissues, as seen in Acromegaly.
8) Matching Type MCQ:
Match the hormone with the disease:
(a) Insulin - (i) Addison’s disease
(b) Thyroxin - (ii) Goitre
(c) Corticoids - (iii) Diabetes mellitus
(d) Growth Hormone - (iv) Acromegaly
Options:
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
Explanation: Correct answer is (1). Insulin deficiency causes Diabetes mellitus. Thyroxin deficiency leads to Goitre. Corticoid deficiency causes Addison’s disease. Excess Growth Hormone results in Acromegaly.
9) Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
The hormone responsible for regulating metabolism and produced by the thyroid gland is _______.
(1) Insulin
(2) Thyroxin
(3) Corticoids
(4) Growth Hormone
Explanation: Correct answer is (2). Thyroxin, secreted by the thyroid gland, controls basal metabolic rate, growth, and development. Its deficiency can result in Goitre.
10) Choose the correct statements MCQ:
(1) Insulin regulates blood glucose
(2) Corticoids deficiency causes Addison’s disease
(3) Thyroxin deficiency causes Goitre
(4) Excess Growth Hormone causes Acromegaly
Options:
(1) 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) 1, 2 and 4
(3) 2 and 3 only
(4) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Correct answer is (1). All statements are correct. Insulin regulates glucose, Corticoid deficiency causes Addison’s disease, Thyroxin deficiency leads to Goitre, and excess Growth Hormone results in Acromegaly.
Topic: Endocrine System
Subtopic: Amino Acid Derived Hormones
Keyword Definitions:
• Hormones: Chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands.
• Amino Acid Derived Hormones: Hormones derived from tyrosine or tryptophan (e.g., epinephrine, thyroxine).
• Steroid Hormones: Lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol (e.g., estrogen, testosterone).
• Peptide Hormones: Chains of amino acids (e.g., insulin, glucagon).
• Endocrine Regulation: Control of body functions via hormones.
Lead Question - 2018
Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone :
(A) Estriol
(B) Epinephrine
(C) Estradiol
(D) Ecdysone
Explanation: Epinephrine is an amino acid-derived hormone synthesized from tyrosine. Estriol and Estradiol are steroid hormones derived from cholesterol, while Ecdysone is a steroidal hormone in insects. Amino acid derived hormones act faster compared to steroid hormones. Hence, the correct answer is (B) Epinephrine. This distinction helps in understanding hormone classification.
1) Which of the following is a peptide hormone?
(A) Insulin
(B) Cortisol
(C) Estradiol
(D) Aldosterone
Explanation: Insulin is a peptide hormone secreted by pancreatic β-cells. It regulates glucose metabolism by promoting cellular glucose uptake. Cortisol, Estradiol, and Aldosterone are steroid hormones. Peptide hormones are hydrophilic and act via membrane receptors with second messenger systems. Thus, the correct answer is (A) Insulin, a classic peptide hormone.
2) Which hormone is iodine-dependent for its synthesis?
(A) Thyroxine
(B) Estrogen
(C) Cortisol
(D) Progesterone
Explanation: Thyroxine (T4) is an amino acid-derived hormone synthesized from tyrosine and requires iodine. It regulates basal metabolic rate and growth. Estrogen, Cortisol, and Progesterone are steroid hormones not requiring iodine. Deficiency of iodine leads to goiter. Thus, the correct answer is (A) Thyroxine, highlighting iodine’s role in hormone production.
3) Which of the following is secreted by adrenal medulla?
(A) Cortisol
(B) Epinephrine
(C) Aldosterone
(D) Testosterone
Explanation: Adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines like Epinephrine and Norepinephrine, which are amino acid-derived hormones from tyrosine. Cortisol and Aldosterone are secreted by adrenal cortex, while Testosterone comes from testes. Epinephrine mediates fight-or-flight response. Hence, the correct answer is (B) Epinephrine, showing the distinction between adrenal cortex and medulla functions.
4) A patient presents with hyperthyroidism. Which hormone will be elevated?
(A) Thyroxine
(B) Cortisol
(C) Insulin
(D) Prolactin
Explanation: Hyperthyroidism is characterized by excessive secretion of Thyroxine (T4). Thyroxine is an amino acid-derived hormone regulating metabolism, heart rate, and weight. Cortisol is a stress hormone, Insulin regulates glucose, and Prolactin regulates lactation. Hence, the correct answer is (A) Thyroxine, commonly elevated in Graves’ disease and other thyroid disorders.
5) Which of the following is NOT an amino acid derived hormone?
(A) Epinephrine
(B) Thyroxine
(C) Melatonin
(D) Estrogen
Explanation: Epinephrine (tyrosine), Thyroxine (tyrosine + iodine), and Melatonin (tryptophan) are amino acid-derived hormones. Estrogen, however, is a steroid hormone derived from cholesterol. Amino acid-derived hormones are usually water-soluble except thyroxine. Hence, the correct answer is (D) Estrogen, as it is not amino acid derived but steroidal.
6) Which hormone deficiency is linked to cretinism in children?
(A) Thyroxine
(B) Cortisol
(C) Estrogen
(D) Growth Hormone
Explanation: Deficiency of Thyroxine in early childhood causes cretinism, marked by stunted growth, intellectual disability, and developmental delay. Thyroxine is amino acid derived, requiring iodine. Cortisol and Estrogen are steroid hormones, while Growth Hormone is a peptide hormone. Correct answer is (A) Thyroxine, showing clinical relevance of amino acid-derived hormone deficiency.
7) Assertion-Reason Type:
Assertion: Epinephrine acts through second messengers.
Reason: It directly enters the nucleus to alter gene transcription.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, Reason correctly explains Assertion
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, Reason does not explain Assertion
(C) Assertion true, Reason false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason false
Explanation: Epinephrine binds to cell membrane receptors and acts via second messengers like cAMP. It does not enter the nucleus directly, unlike steroid hormones. Hence, Assertion is true, but Reason is false. The correct answer is (C). This highlights different mechanisms of action between amino acid-derived and steroid hormones.
8) Matching Type:
Match the hormones with their origin:
(A) Melatonin - 1. Pineal gland
(B) Epinephrine - 2. Adrenal medulla
(C) Insulin - 3. Pancreas
(D) Cortisol - 4. Adrenal cortex
Options: (A) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(B) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(C) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(D) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
Explanation: Melatonin is secreted by Pineal gland, Epinephrine by Adrenal medulla, Insulin by Pancreatic β-cells, and Cortisol by Adrenal cortex. Thus, the correct answer is (A) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4. Matching type helps consolidate knowledge of endocrine organs and their hormone products.
9) Fill in the Blanks:
________ is an amino acid-derived hormone that regulates sleep-wake cycles.
(A) Melatonin
(B) Progesterone
(C) Cortisol
(D) Aldosterone
Explanation: Melatonin, derived from tryptophan, is secreted by the pineal gland and regulates circadian rhythms, especially sleep-wake cycles. Progesterone and Aldosterone are steroid hormones, while Cortisol regulates stress. Thus, the correct answer is (A) Melatonin, which is clinically important in managing sleep disorders and jet lag problems.
10) Choose the Correct Statements:
1. Thyroxine requires iodine for synthesis.
2. Epinephrine is derived from cholesterol.
3. Melatonin is secreted by pineal gland.
4. Estrogen is amino acid derived.
Options:
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation: Thyroxine synthesis requires iodine (true). Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine, not cholesterol (false). Melatonin is secreted by pineal gland (true). Estrogen is steroid, not amino acid derived (false). Correct answer is (A) 1 and 3 only. This question reinforces distinctions between steroid and amino acid-derived hormones.
Topic: Endocrine System
Subtopic: Hormonal Regulation of Bone Health
Keyword Definitions:
Osteoporosis: A condition of reduced bone mass leading to fragile bones.
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH): Hormone that increases blood calcium by bone resorption.
Prolactin: Hormone stimulating milk production; excess may affect calcium metabolism.
Aldosterone: Hormone regulating sodium and water balance.
Estrogen: Female sex hormone that protects bone density.
Progesterone: Hormone supporting pregnancy, with minor effects on bones.
Bone Resorption: Process by which osteoclasts break down bone tissue.
Calcium Homeostasis: Balance of calcium levels in blood and bone.
Hormonal Imbalance: Disruption of hormone levels affecting health.
Clinical Significance: Hormone-related disorders can directly contribute to osteoporosis.
Lead Question - 2018
Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis:
(A) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
(B) Aldosterone and Prolactin
(C) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
(D) Progesterone and Aldosterone
Explanation: Osteoporosis results from low estrogen (post-menopause) and excessive parathyroid hormone, both promoting bone resorption and reducing bone mass. Prolactin and aldosterone play minor or no role in bone fragility. Correct answer: C.
1. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
Deficiency of which hormone commonly leads to postmenopausal osteoporosis?
(a) Estrogen
(b) Progesterone
(c) Cortisol
(d) Thyroxine
Explanation: Estrogen deficiency
2. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
Excess secretion of parathyroid hormone causes:
(a) Hypocalcemia
(b) Hypercalcemia
(c) Hyponatremia
(d) Hyperkalemia
Explanation: Excess PTH
3. MCQ - Single Correct Answer (Clinical)
A 55-year-old woman presents with back pain and fragile bones. Which hormone deficiency is most likely?
(a) Estrogen
(b) Progesterone
(c) Insulin
(d) Cortisol
Explanation: The most common cause of postmenopausal osteoporosis is estrogen deficiency, leading to increased bone resorption and fragility fractures. Correct answer: a.
4. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
Which cells are responsible for bone resorption in osteoporosis?
(a) Osteoblasts
(b) Osteocytes
(c) Osteoclasts
(d) Chondrocytes
Explanation: Osteoclasts are bone-resorbing cells stimulated by PTH and lack of estrogen, leading to osteoporosis. Osteoblasts form bone, while osteocytes maintain it. Correct answer: c.
5. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
Increased risk of osteoporosis is associated with deficiency of:
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin K
(d) Vitamin E
Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency
6. MCQ - Single Correct Answer (Clinical)
A patient with hyperparathyroidism shows recurrent fractures. The mechanism is:
(a) Excess calcium deposition in bone
(b) Increased bone resorption
(c) Decreased osteoclast activity
(d) Increased bone formation
Explanation: Excess PTH
7. MCQ - Assertion-Reason
Assertion (A): Estrogen protects against osteoporosis.
Reason (R): Estrogen suppresses osteoclast activity and promotes osteoblast survival.
(a) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
(b) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
(c) A true, R false
(d) A false, R true
Explanation: Estrogen deficiency increases osteoclast activity, leading to bone loss. The reason explains the assertion correctly. Correct answer: a.
8. MCQ - Matching Type
Match hormone with its role in bone metabolism:
1. Estrogen - (a) Promotes osteoblast survival
2. PTH - (b) Stimulates bone resorption
3. Calcitonin - (c) Inhibits osteoclast activity
4. Vitamin D - (d) Enhances calcium absorption
Options:
(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(B) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(C) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
(D) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
Explanation: Correct matches: Estrogen–a, PTH–b, Calcitonin–c, Vitamin D–d. Correct answer: A.
9. MCQ - Fill in the Blanks
__________ deficiency after menopause is a major cause of osteoporosis.
(a) Estrogen
(b) Insulin
(c) Cortisol
(d) Thyroxine
Explanation: Estrogen deficiency
10. MCQ - Choose Correct Statements
Which statements about osteoporosis are correct?
1. Estrogen protects bone health
2. PTH excess promotes bone resorption
3. Aldosterone deficiency causes osteoporosis
4. Vitamin D improves calcium absorption
Options:
(A) 1, 2, 4
(B) 2, 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) All 1,2,3,4
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct: Estrogen protects bones, PTH excess resorbs bone, Vitamin D improves absorption. Aldosterone is unrelated to osteoporosis. Correct answer: A.
Subtopic: Endocrine Regulation of Blood Pressure
Keyword Definitions:
Blood Pressure: Force exerted by circulating blood on vessel walls.
Blood Volume: Total amount of blood in the circulatory system.
ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone): Hormone secreted by posterior pituitary to conserve water.
Renin: Enzyme from kidney that regulates blood pressure via RAAS.
Aldosterone: Hormone from adrenal cortex that increases sodium reabsorption.
Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF): Hormone released by atria in response to increased blood volume, reduces BP.
RAAS: Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System regulating blood pressure and fluid balance.
Clinical Significance: Dysregulation of these hormones can cause hypertension, hypotension, or edema.
Homeostasis: Maintenance of stable internal conditions including blood pressure.
Kidney Function: Regulates electrolyte balance, volume, and hormone secretion.
Cardiovascular Response: Hormonal adjustments maintain circulation under stress or volume changes.
Lead Question - 2017
A decrease in blood pressure / volume will not cause the release of:
(A) ADH
(B) Renin
(C) Atrial Natriuretic Factor
(D) Aldosterone
Explanation: A decrease in blood pressure or volume stimulates ADH, Renin, and Aldosterone to conserve water and sodium. Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) is released when atrial pressure rises; it lowers BP. Thus, decreased BP does not trigger ANF secretion. Correct answer: C.
1. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
ADH primarily acts on:
(a) Liver
(b) Kidneys
(c) Lungs
(d) Heart
Explanation: ADH acts on kidney collecting ducts to increase water reabsorption, maintaining blood volume and pressure. Liver, lungs, and heart are not direct targets. Proper ADH secretion prevents hypotension and dehydration. Correct answer: b.
2. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
Renin release is triggered by:
(a) High blood pressure
(b) Low blood pressure
(c) High blood volume
(d) High sodium intake
Explanation: Renin is secreted by juxtaglomerular cells when blood pressure drops. It initiates RAAS to increase angiotensin II and aldosterone, raising BP. High blood pressure, volume, or sodium inhibits renin. Correct answer: b.
3. MCQ - Single Correct Answer (Clinical)
Hyperaldosteronism may cause:
(a) Hypotension
(b) Hypertension
(c) Low sodium loss
(d) Dehydration
Explanation: Excess aldosterone increases sodium retention and water reabsorption, raising blood volume and causing hypertension. Hypotension occurs with aldosterone deficiency. Correct answer: b.
4. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
ANF is released from:
(a) Kidneys
(b) Adrenal cortex
(c) Cardiac atria
(d) Pituitary gland
Explanation: Atrial Natriuretic Factor is secreted by cardiac atria in response to increased blood volume. It promotes sodium excretion and reduces blood pressure. Kidneys, adrenal cortex, and pituitary are not sources. Correct answer: c.
5. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
Which hormone decreases blood pressure?
(a) ADH
(b) Aldosterone
(c) ANF
(d) Renin
Explanation: ANF lowers blood pressure by promoting sodium and water excretion. ADH, Aldosterone, and Renin work to raise blood pressure. Proper ANF release prevents volume overload and hypertension. Correct answer: c.
6. MCQ - Single Correct Answer (Clinical)
A patient with hypovolemia will have elevated levels of:
(a) ANF
(b) ADH
(c) Both a and b
(d) None
Explanation: In hypovolemia, blood volume is low. The body increases ADH to conserve water. ANF is not released as atrial stretch is reduced. Correct answer: b.
7. MCQ - Assertion-Reason
Assertion (A): ANF secretion increases with high blood volume.
Reason (R): ANF promotes sodium and water excretion.
(a) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
(b) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
(c) A true, R false
(d) A false, R true
Explanation: ANF is released when atrial pressure rises, promoting sodium and water excretion to lower blood volume and pressure. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion. Correct answer: a.
8. MCQ - Matching Type
Match hormone with function:
1. ADH - (a) Sodium excretion
2. Renin - (b) Initiates RAAS
3. ANF - (c) Water reabsorption
4. Aldosterone - (d) Sodium retention
Options:
(A) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d
(B) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(C) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(D) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
Explanation: ADH: water reabsorption; Renin: initiates RAAS; ANF: sodium excretion; Aldosterone: sodium retention. Correct matching: 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d. Answer: A.
9. MCQ - Fill in the Blanks
_________ increases sodium and water reabsorption to raise blood pressure.
(a) ANF
(b) Aldosterone
(c) ADH
(d) Renin
Explanation: Aldosterone from adrenal cortex promotes sodium and water retention in kidneys, increasing blood volume and pressure. ANF reduces BP, ADH only conserves water, and renin indirectly raises BP via RAAS. Correct answer: b.
10. MCQ - Choose Correct Statements
Select correct statements about blood pressure regulation:
1. Decreased BP stimulates ADH release
2. ANF is released during low blood volume
3. Renin increases BP via RAAS
4. Aldosterone promotes sodium retention
Options:
(A) 1, 3, and 4
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 4
(D) All 1,2,3,4
Explanation: Low BP triggers ADH and renin release; aldosterone promotes sodium retention. ANF is secreted when blood volume is high, not low. Correct statements: 1, 3, and 4. Answer: A.
Subtopic: Endocrine System
Keyword Definitions:
Endocrine Gland: Gland that secretes hormones directly into the blood.
Corpus Luteum: Temporary gland formed after ovulation in females.
Pineal Gland: Small gland in the brain secreting melatonin.
Corpus Allatum: In insects, secretes juvenile hormone.
Corpus Cardiacum: In insects, stores and releases hormones.
Hormone: Chemical messenger regulating physiological processes.
Ovulation: Release of mature egg from ovary.
Progesterone: Hormone secreted by corpus luteum supporting pregnancy.
Temporary Gland: Endocrine gland that exists only for a short period.
Clinical Significance: Corpus luteum disorders can cause infertility or menstrual irregularities.
Exocrine vs Endocrine: Exocrine glands release secretions through ducts, endocrine glands release directly into blood.
Lead Question - 2017
A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is:
(A) Corpus allatum
(B) Pineal gland
(C) Corpus cardiacum
(D) Corpus luteum
Explanation: The corpus luteum forms in the ovary after ovulation and secretes progesterone to support early pregnancy. It degenerates if fertilization does not occur, making it a temporary endocrine gland. Therefore, correct answer is D.
1. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
Which hormone is primarily secreted by the corpus luteum?
(a) Estrogen
(b) Progesterone
(c) Testosterone
(d) Melatonin
Explanation: The corpus luteum secretes progesterone after ovulation, which maintains the uterine lining for potential pregnancy. Estrogen is secreted earlier by the follicle, testosterone by testes, and melatonin by pineal gland. Answer: b.
2. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
The pineal gland regulates:
(a) Blood glucose
(b) Sleep-wake cycle
(c) Blood pressure
(d) Ovulation
Explanation: The pineal gland secretes melatonin, controlling circadian rhythms and sleep-wake cycle. It is permanent, unlike corpus luteum. Blood glucose is regulated by pancreas, blood pressure by adrenal hormones, and ovulation by ovarian hormones. Answer: b.
3. MCQ - Single Correct Answer (Clinical)
Absence or malfunction of corpus luteum can lead to:
(a) Diabetes
(b) Infertility
(c) Hypertension
(d) Hyperthyroidism
Explanation: Dysfunctional corpus luteum leads to insufficient progesterone, causing luteal phase defects, irregular cycles, or infertility. Proper corpus luteum function is critical for early pregnancy maintenance. Answer: b.
4. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
Corpus allatum is found in:
(a) Humans
(b) Insects
(c) Birds
(d) Fish
Explanation: Corpus allatum is an endocrine gland in insects secreting juvenile hormone, regulating development and metamorphosis. It is not present in humans. Answer: b.
5. MCQ - Single Correct Answer
Which gland is responsible for secreting juvenile hormone in insects?
(a) Corpus luteum
(b) Corpus cardiacum
(c) Corpus allatum
(d) Pineal gland
Explanation: The corpus allatum in insects produces juvenile hormone, controlling larval development and preventing premature metamorphosis. Corpus luteum and pineal gland are in vertebrates, corpus cardiacum stores hormones. Answer: c.
6. MCQ - Single Correct Answer (Clinical)
Progesterone deficiency during early pregnancy may result in:
(a) Miscarriage
(b) Hyperthyroidism
(c) Infertility only
(d) Hypertension
Explanation: Low progesterone from corpus luteum during early pregnancy can fail to maintain uterine lining, causing miscarriage. Supplementation may be clinically necessary in luteal phase defects. Answer: a.
7. MCQ - Assertion-Reason
Assertion (A): Corpus luteum is temporary.
Reason (R): It forms after ovulation and degenerates if pregnancy does not occur.
(a) Both A and R true, R correct explanation
(b) Both A and R true, R not correct explanation
(c) A true, R false
(d) A false, R true
Explanation: Corpus luteum forms post-ovulation and secretes progesterone. If fertilization fails, it degenerates, confirming its temporary nature. Both assertion and reason are correct, with reason explaining assertion. Answer: a.
8. MCQ - Matching Type
Match gland with its function:
1. Corpus luteum - (a) Melatonin secretion
2. Pineal gland - (b) Progesterone secretion
3. Corpus cardiacum - (c) Hormone storage in insects
Options:
(A) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
(B) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
(C) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
(D) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
Explanation: Corpus luteum secretes progesterone, pineal gland secretes melatonin, and corpus cardiacum stores insect hormones. Correct matching: 1-b, 2-a, 3-c. Answer: A.
9. MCQ - Fill in the Blanks
The corpus luteum forms from the __________ after ovulation.
(a) Follicle
(b) Ovary wall
(c) Pineal gland
(d) Corpus cardiacum
Explanation: After ovulation, the ruptured follicle transforms into corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone to prepare endometrium for possible pregnancy. If fertilization does not occur, it degenerates. Answer: a.
10. MCQ - Choose Correct Statements
Select correct statements about corpus luteum:
1. Temporary endocrine gland
2. Secretes estrogen only
3. Forms from follicle after ovulation
4. Degenerates if pregnancy does not occur
Options:
(A) 1, 3, and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) All 1,2,3,4
Explanation: Corpus luteum is temporary, forms after ovulation from follicle, and degenerates if no pregnancy occurs. It secretes progesterone, not estrogen only. Correct statements: 1, 3, and 4. Answer: A.
Topic: Endocrine System
Subtopic: Growth Hormone Disorders
Keyword Definitions:
• Growth Hormone (GH) – Hormone secreted by anterior pituitary regulating growth and metabolism.
• Hypersecretion – Excessive secretion of a hormone beyond normal physiological levels.
• Epiphyseal plates – Cartilaginous growth regions at the ends of long bones.
• Adults – Human post-adolescent stage where growth plates are fused.
• Acromegaly – Condition in adults due to GH excess causing bone thickening.
• Gigantism – Condition in children due to GH excess causing abnormal height.
• Muscle fibers – Basic units of skeletal muscle responsible for contraction.
• Pituitary gland – Endocrine gland regulating various hormones including GH.
• Bone growth – Increase in bone length primarily during childhood and adolescence.
• Hormone sensitivity – Ability of tissues to respond to hormonal signals.
• Anterior pituitary – Front portion of pituitary gland secreting GH, TSH, ACTH, etc.
Lead Question – 2017:
Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height because:
(A) Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth
(B) Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults
(C) Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence
(D) Bones lose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone in adults
Explanation:
Correct option is C (Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence). In adults, the epiphyseal growth plates are fused, preventing further elongation of long bones. Hypersecretion of GH in adults causes acromegaly, leading to bone thickening, organ enlargement, and soft tissue growth, but not increase in height. (Answer: C)
1) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Excess GH secretion in children before epiphyseal plate closure leads to:
(A) Acromegaly
(B) Gigantism
(C) Dwarfism
(D) Osteoporosis
Explanation:
Hypersecretion of GH before closure of epiphyseal plates causes Gigantism, characterized by excessive height due to elongation of long bones. Acromegaly occurs after epiphyseal closure in adults. (Answer: B)
2) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Acromegaly is characterized by:
(A) Increased height
(B) Enlargement of hands, feet, and facial bones
(C) Muscle atrophy
(D) Epiphyseal plate elongation
Explanation:
In adults, hypersecretion of GH leads to Acromegaly, causing thickening of bones in hands, feet, and face. Height does not increase due to closed epiphyseal plates, but bones and soft tissues enlarge. (Answer: B)
3) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which gland secretes Growth Hormone?
(A) Thyroid
(B) Adrenal
(C) Anterior pituitary
(D) Pancreas
Explanation:
Growth Hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary. It regulates bone and tissue growth, metabolism, and protein synthesis. Pituitary tumors can cause hypersecretion or hyposecretion disorders. (Answer: C)
4) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
What is the main clinical feature of GH deficiency in adults?
(A) Increased height
(B) Reduced muscle mass and bone density
(C) Enlarged facial bones
(D) Excess sweating
Explanation:
GH deficiency in adults leads to reduced muscle mass and bone density, decreased energy, and altered body composition. Height is unaffected because epiphyseal plates are already closed. (Answer: B)
5) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
Which hormone primarily stimulates epiphyseal plate activity in children?
(A) Cortisol
(B) Thyroxine
(C) Growth Hormone
(D) Insulin
Explanation:
< b>Growth Hormone
stimulates cartilage proliferation in epiphyseal plates during childhood and adolescence, promoting linear bone growth. After plate closure, GH cannot increase height. (Answer: C)
6) Single Correct Answer MCQ:
What complication can arise in adults due to GH hypersecretion?
(A) Dwarfism
(B) Acromegaly
(C) Osteogenesis imperfecta
(D) Marfan syndrome
Explanation:
GH hypersecretion in adults results in Acromegaly, characterized by enlarged extremities, facial bones, and organ growth, but no height increase due to closed epiphyseal plates. (Answer: B)
7) Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Adults with GH hypersecretion do not grow taller.
Reason (R): Epiphyseal plates are fused after adolescence.
(A) Both A and R true, R explains A
(B) Both A and R true, R does not explain A
(C) A true, R false
(D) A false, R true
Explanation:
Both A and R are true. Height cannot increase in adults because epiphyseal plates are closed; GH can still cause soft tissue and bone thickening. (Answer: A)
8) Matching Type MCQ:
Match:
1. GH excess before adolescence – (i) Gigantism
2. GH excess after adolescence – (ii) Acromegaly
3. GH deficiency in children – (iii) Dwarfism
Options:
(A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii
(B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii
(C) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii
(D) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii
Explanation:
Correct matching: 1-i (Gigantism), 2-ii (Acromegaly), 3-iii (Dwarfism). Timing of GH excess or deficiency determines clinical outcomes. (Answer: A)
9) Fill in the Blanks MCQ:
Epiphyseal plates close during _______ marking the end of height increase.
(A) Childhood
(B) Adolescence
(C) Adulthood
(D) Infancy
Explanation:
Epiphyseal plates fuse during adolescence, preventing further longitudinal bone growth. GH excess in adults affects bone thickness, not height. (Answer: B)
10) Choose the correct statements MCQ:
1. GH hypersecretion in adults causes acromegaly.
2. GH excess in children can cause gigantism.
3. Epiphyseal plate closure prevents height increase in adults.
4. Muscle fibers do not respond to GH after birth.
Options:
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 3, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4
(D) 1, 2, 4
Explanation:
Statements 1, 2, 3 are correct. GH hypersecretion effects depend on epiphyseal plate status: gigantism in children, acromegaly in adults. Muscle fibers can hypertrophy but height increase is limited by fused plates. (Answer: A)
Topic: Hormonal Regulation
Subtopic: Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Gonadal Axis
Keyword Definitions:
GnRH: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone secreted by hypothalamus that regulates reproductive hormones.
Anterior pituitary: Gland that releases hormones like LH and FSH under GnRH influence.
LH: Luteinizing hormone essential for ovulation and testosterone production.
FSH: Follicle-stimulating hormone that regulates gamete maturation.
Posterior pituitary: Stores and releases oxytocin and vasopressin but not controlled by GnRH.
Lead Question - 2017
GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction acts on :
(A) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin
(B) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin
(C) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH
(D) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH
Explanation: GnRH is released from hypothalamus in a pulsatile manner. It stimulates anterior pituitary to secrete LH and FSH, which regulate ovarian and testicular functions. Posterior pituitary stores oxytocin and vasopressin but not influenced by GnRH. Correct answer is (C) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.
1) Which hormone triggers ovulation in females?
(A) FSH
(B) LH
(C) Prolactin
(D) Oxytocin
Explanation: Ovulation is triggered by a surge in LH, which ruptures the mature Graafian follicle releasing the ovum. FSH supports follicle growth but LH peak initiates ovulation. Prolactin regulates lactation and oxytocin helps in parturition. Correct answer is (B) LH.
2) Clinical Type: A male patient with low sperm count is tested and found to have deficient FSH secretion. Which structure is mainly affected?
(A) Sertoli cells
(B) Leydig cells
(C) Hypothalamus
(D) Epididymis
Explanation: FSH acts on Sertoli cells to stimulate spermatogenesis. Deficiency of FSH results in impaired support of germ cells, reducing sperm production. Leydig cells are regulated by LH for testosterone secretion. Thus, primary defect is in (A) Sertoli cells.
3) In females, corpus luteum secretes:
(A) Progesterone
(B) Estrogen only
(C) FSH
(D) LH
Explanation: After ovulation, corpus luteum forms and secretes progesterone, essential for maintaining endometrium for implantation. It also secretes some estrogen. LH and FSH are pituitary hormones, not secreted by corpus luteum. Correct answer is (A) Progesterone.
4) Assertion-Reason Type:
Assertion (A): GnRH is secreted in a pulsatile manner.
Reason (R): Continuous secretion of GnRH leads to down-regulation of its receptors on anterior pituitary.
(A) Both A and R true, R is correct explanation
(B) Both A and R true, R is not correct explanation
(C) A true, R false
(D) A false, R true
Explanation: Pulsatile GnRH secretion maintains receptor sensitivity. Continuous secretion causes receptor desensitization and reduced LH/FSH secretion. Both statements are true and the reason explains assertion. Correct answer is (A).
5) Match the following:
Column I
(a) GnRH
(b) LH
(c) FSH
(d) Prolactin
Column II
1. Stimulates Leydig cells
2. Stimulates Sertoli cells
3. Stimulates mammary glands
4. Stimulates anterior pituitary
Options:
(A) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(D) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
Explanation: GnRH stimulates anterior pituitary (4), LH acts on Leydig cells (1), FSH stimulates Sertoli cells (2), and prolactin stimulates mammary glands (3). Correct answer is (A).
6) Fill in the blank: In males, LH acts on ______ cells to stimulate testosterone production.
(A) Sertoli
(B) Leydig
(C) Spermatogonia
(D) Epididymal
Explanation: LH targets Leydig cells in testes to stimulate testosterone synthesis, which is crucial for spermatogenesis and secondary sexual characters. Sertoli cells are FSH-dependent, spermatogonia form sperm, and epididymis stores sperm. Correct answer is (B) Leydig.
7) Which hormone is secreted by placenta during pregnancy?
(A) HCG
(B) LH
(C) FSH
(D) Oxytocin
Explanation: Placenta secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), which maintains corpus luteum for progesterone secretion during early pregnancy. LH and FSH are pituitary hormones, oxytocin is from posterior pituitary. Correct answer is (A) HCG.
8) Clinical Type: A woman undergoing infertility treatment is given GnRH agonists in a pulsatile manner. What is the effect?
(A) Decreased gonadotropins
(B) Increased LH and FSH
(C) Increased prolactin
(D) Increased oxytocin
Explanation: Pulsatile GnRH agonists mimic physiological release, enhancing anterior pituitary secretion of LH and FSH. This supports ovulation induction and fertility treatment. Correct answer is (B) Increased LH and FSH.
9) Choose the correct statements:
(i) GnRH is secreted by hypothalamus.
(ii) LH stimulates testosterone in males.
(iii) FSH stimulates oogenesis.
(iv) Prolactin causes milk ejection.
Options:
(A) i, ii, iii
(B) i, ii, iv
(C) ii, iii, iv
(D) i, ii, iii, iv
Explanation: Statements (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct. Prolactin promotes milk production, but milk ejection is caused by oxytocin. Hence statement (iv) is incorrect. Correct answer is (A).
10) Which hormone is responsible for uterine contractions during parturition?
(A) LH
(B) Oxytocin
(C) FSH
(D) Progesterone
Explanation: Oxytocin secreted from posterior pituitary stimulates strong uterine contractions during labor and also causes milk let-down reflex. LH and FSH regulate gonads, progesterone maintains pregnancy but does not initiate contractions. Correct answer is (B) Oxytocin.
Topic: Endocrine System
Subtopic: Posterior Pituitary Gland
Posterior Pituitary: Part of the pituitary gland that stores and releases hormones made by hypothalamus.
Endocrine Gland: Glands that secrete hormones directly into the blood.
Hypothalamus: Brain region controlling pituitary hormone release and maintaining homeostasis.
Oxytocin: Hormone secreted by posterior pituitary controlling uterine contractions and milk ejection.
ADH (Vasopressin): Hormone regulating water balance, released by posterior pituitary.
Ductless: Characteristic of endocrine glands that release hormones directly into the bloodstream.
Clinical Relevance: Disorders include diabetes insipidus and pituitary dysfunction affecting ADH and oxytocin secretion.
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 2): The posterior pituitary gland is not a ‘true’ endocrine gland because :
it secretes enzymes
it is provided with a duct
it only stores and releases hormones
it is under the regulation of hypothalamus
Explanation: The correct answer is (3). The posterior pituitary is not a true endocrine gland because it does not synthesize hormones; it only stores and releases hormones produced by the hypothalamus, such as ADH and oxytocin. Clinically, dysfunction can cause diabetes insipidus or impaired lactation.
Chapter: Human Physiology
Topic: Endocrine System
Subtopic: Posterior Pituitary Gland
Posterior Pituitary: Stores and releases hypothalamic hormones.
Oxytocin: Stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection.
ADH: Regulates water balance in kidneys.
Hypothalamus: Controls hormone release from pituitary.
Endocrine Gland: Secretes hormones directly into blood.
1. Which hormone is synthesized in the posterior pituitary?
Oxytocin
ADH
Both A and B
Neither A nor B
Explanation: The correct answer is (4). The posterior pituitary does not synthesize hormones; it only stores and releases oxytocin and ADH, which are produced in the hypothalamus. Clinically, failure to release these hormones can lead to diabetes insipidus or lactation defects.
2. The hypothalamic hormone that stimulates ADH release is:
TRH
CRH
Oxytocin
None of the above
Explanation: The correct answer is (4). ADH is synthesized in hypothalamic nuclei (supraoptic and paraventricular) and released by posterior pituitary. TRH and CRH regulate anterior pituitary hormones. Clinical relevance includes disorders like diabetes insipidus caused by deficient ADH release.
3. Oxytocin plays a key role in:
Water balance
Blood sugar regulation
Uterine contraction and milk ejection
Thyroid hormone release
Explanation: The correct answer is (3). Oxytocin, stored in the posterior pituitary, induces uterine contractions during labor and milk ejection during lactation. Clinical importance is in managing labor or breastfeeding complications related to inadequate oxytocin release.
4. Which condition arises due to insufficient ADH?
Diabetes mellitus
Diabetes insipidus
Hyperthyroidism
Cushing’s syndrome
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Insufficient ADH secretion or release leads to diabetes insipidus, characterized by polyuria and polydipsia. This clinical condition highlights the posterior pituitary’s functional role in water homeostasis, despite not being a true endocrine gland.
5. Which statement is true about posterior pituitary?
It synthesizes hormones
It has ducts
It stores hypothalamic hormones
It regulates anterior pituitary
Explanation: The correct answer is (3). The posterior pituitary stores hormones made by hypothalamus, such as ADH and oxytocin. It does not synthesize hormones nor have ducts. Clinically, storage and release disorders affect fluid balance or lactation.
6. Which nuclei of hypothalamus produce ADH?
Supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei
Ventromedial nucleus
Arcuate nucleus
Posterior nucleus
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). ADH is synthesized in supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of hypothalamus and stored in posterior pituitary. Clinical dysfunction causes diabetes insipidus, showing the importance of hypothalamic-posterior pituitary axis.
7. Assertion (A): Posterior pituitary is not a true endocrine gland.
Reason (R): It stores but does not synthesize hormones.
A is true, R is true, R explains A
A is true, R is true, R does not explain A
A is true, R is false
A is false, R is true
Explanation: The correct answer is (1). Posterior pituitary only stores and releases hypothalamic hormones like ADH and oxytocin, not synthesizing them. This explains why it is not a true endocrine gland. Clinically, this distinction is important for understanding endocrine disorders affecting fluid balance and lactation.
8. Match the hormones with their function:
ADH
Oxytocin
A. Stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection
B. Regulates water reabsorption in kidneys
Explanation: Correct matching: 1-B, 2-A. ADH regulates water balance, oxytocin controls uterine contractions and lactation. Clinically, understanding these hormone functions is critical for diagnosing and managing disorders like diabetes insipidus and lactation failure.
9. Fill in the blank: Hormones stored in the posterior pituitary are synthesized in the ______.
Anterior pituitary
Hypothalamus
Thyroid gland
Pancreas
Explanation: The correct answer is (2). Hormones like ADH and oxytocin are synthesized in hypothalamic nuclei and stored in posterior pituitary. Clinical significance includes disorders like diabetes insipidus, where inadequate release of ADH affects fluid balance.
10. Choose correct statements about posterior pituitary:
It stores hypothalamic hormones
It synthesizes ADH and oxytocin
It releases hormones into blood
It has no duct
Explanation: The correct answers are (1,3,4). Posterior pituitary stores hypothalamic hormones, releases them into blood, and has no duct. It does not synthesize hormones. Clinically, this understanding is crucial in managing disorders like diabetes insipidus and lactation abnormalities.
Topic: Endocrine Hormones
Subtopic: Insulin and Glucose Metabolism
Keyword Definitions
Insulin: A peptide hormone secreted by pancreatic beta cells, regulating glucose uptake and storage.
Glucagon: A hormone from alpha cells that raises blood glucose by stimulating glycogen breakdown.
Gastrin: A hormone stimulating gastric acid secretion in the stomach.
Secretin: A hormone stimulating bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas.
Hepatocytes: Liver cells performing metabolism, detoxification, and protein synthesis.
Peptide hormones: Protein-based hormones that act via receptors on target cells.
Glycogenesis: Conversion of glucose into glycogen for storage.
Glycogenolysis: Breakdown of glycogen to glucose.
Hyperglycemia: Excess glucose levels in the blood.
Hypoglycemia: Low glucose levels in the blood.
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 2)
Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization :
(1) Gastrin
(2) Insulin
(3) Glucagon
(4) Secretin
Explanation: Insulin is a peptide hormone secreted by pancreatic beta cells. It promotes glucose uptake by cells, enhances glycogenesis, and reduces blood glucose levels. Other hormones regulate digestion or increase glucose but not cellular uptake. Hence, the correct answer is (2) Insulin.
1. In diabetes mellitus type I, the primary defect is:
(1) Insulin deficiency
(2) Insulin resistance
(3) Excess glucagon
(4) High gastrin levels
Explanation: Type I diabetes mellitus is caused by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, resulting in insulin deficiency. Type II diabetes is due to insulin resistance. Excess glucagon and gastrin are unrelated. Correct answer is (1) Insulin deficiency.
2. A patient with hypoglycemia is likely to show which symptom?
(1) Frequent urination
(2) Sweating and tremors
(3) Excessive thirst
(4) Weight gain
Explanation: Hypoglycemia leads to activation of the sympathetic system, causing sweating, tremors, and palpitations. Frequent urination and excessive thirst are signs of hyperglycemia. Weight gain is unrelated. Correct answer is (2) Sweating and tremors.
3. Which hormone acts antagonistically to insulin?
(1) Secretin
(2) Gastrin
(3) Glucagon
(4) Prolactin
Explanation: Glucagon raises blood glucose levels by glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, opposing insulin’s action of lowering glucose. Secretin, gastrin, and prolactin do not regulate blood glucose. Correct answer is (3) Glucagon.
4. Which cells of the pancreas secrete insulin?
(1) Alpha cells
(2) Beta cells
(3) Delta cells
(4) Acinar cells
Explanation: Beta cells of the islets of Langerhans secrete insulin. Alpha cells secrete glucagon, delta cells secrete somatostatin, and acinar cells produce digestive enzymes. Correct answer is (2) Beta cells.
5. Clinical case: A diabetic patient is unconscious with low blood glucose. The emergency treatment is:
(1) IV insulin
(2) IV glucose
(3) Oral gastrin
(4) IV glucagon
Explanation: Hypoglycemic coma requires immediate correction of blood sugar. IV glucose is given to restore normal levels rapidly. Insulin would worsen the condition. Gastrin is unrelated. Glucagon can help, but IV glucose is preferred. Correct answer is (2) IV glucose.
6. Insulin facilitates glucose entry into cells by:
(1) Activating sodium channels
(2) Opening calcium channels
(3) Stimulating glucose transporters
(4) Increasing potassium influx
Explanation: Insulin promotes insertion of GLUT4 transporters into cell membranes of muscle and adipose tissues, enhancing glucose uptake. Sodium, calcium, and potassium channels are not directly responsible for glucose uptake. Correct answer is (3) Stimulating glucose transporters.
7. Assertion-Reason: Insulin lowers blood glucose. It increases glucose uptake by adipose and muscle cells.
(1) Both A and R true, R explains A
(2) Both A and R true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Explanation: Insulin reduces blood glucose by promoting uptake into tissues such as muscle and fat. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason correctly explains assertion. Correct answer is (1).
8. Match the following:
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Gastrin
D. Secretin
(i) Increases blood glucose
(ii) Stimulates gastric acid
(iii) Enhances glucose uptake
(iv) Stimulates bicarbonate secretion
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
Explanation: Insulin enhances glucose uptake, glucagon increases blood glucose, gastrin stimulates gastric acid, and secretin stimulates bicarbonate secretion. Correct answer is (1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv.
9. Fill in the blank: Insulin deficiency leads to ______ in blood glucose level.
(1) Decrease
(2) Increase
(3) No change
(4) Fluctuation only
Explanation: Lack of insulin causes hyperglycemia due to reduced glucose uptake and enhanced glycogenolysis. Blood glucose rises significantly, leading to diabetes mellitus. Correct answer is (2) Increase.
10. Choose the correct statements regarding insulin:
(1) It promotes glycogenesis
(2) It increases blood glucose
(3) It enhances lipogenesis
(4) It is secreted by beta cells
(1) 1,2 correct
(2) 2,3 correct
(3) 1,3,4 correct
(4) All correct
Explanation: Insulin promotes glycogenesis, enhances lipogenesis, and is secreted by beta cells of pancreas. It does not increase blood glucose; instead, it lowers it. Correct answer is (3) 1,3,4 correct.
Topic : Endocrine Disorders
Subtopic : Thyroid Disorders
Keyword Definitions :
Graves’ Disease : An autoimmune disorder leading to hyperthyroidism due to excess thyroid hormone secretion.
Hyperthyroidism : A condition caused by excessive thyroid hormone levels, leading to weight loss, heat intolerance, and anxiety.
Thyroxine (T4) : The main hormone secreted by the thyroid gland regulating metabolism.
Adrenal Gland : Endocrine gland producing cortisol, aldosterone, and adrenaline for stress response and metabolism.
Hypothyroidism : A condition caused by underproduction of thyroid hormones, leading to fatigue and weight gain.
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 2)
Graves’ disease is caused due to :
(1) hypersecretion of adrenal gland
(2) hyposecretion of thyroid gland
(3) hypersecretion of thyroid gland
(4) hyposecretion of adrenal gland
Explanation : Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder leading to hyperthyroidism. Antibodies stimulate thyroid hormone overproduction, causing symptoms like goiter, bulging eyes, heat intolerance, and weight loss. Thus, the correct answer is (3) hypersecretion of thyroid gland. It is a common endocrine disorder affecting metabolism and energy balance.
1. Which hormone increases basal metabolic rate in humans?
(1) Cortisol
(2) Thyroxine
(3) Insulin
(4) Glucagon
Explanation : Thyroxine, secreted by the thyroid gland, regulates basal metabolic rate and energy utilization. It stimulates protein synthesis, glucose metabolism, and heat production. Therefore, the correct answer is (2) Thyroxine, essential for growth, metabolism, and development, especially during childhood.
2. Clinical Case: A patient with bulging eyes, weight loss, and excessive sweating is most likely suffering from:
(1) Hypothyroidism
(2) Hyperthyroidism
(3) Addison’s disease
(4) Cushing’s syndrome
Explanation : The patient shows classic hyperthyroidism features, including exophthalmos, weight loss, and sweating. These are commonly associated with Graves’ disease, an autoimmune disorder. Thus, the correct answer is (2) Hyperthyroidism, which arises due to overproduction of thyroid hormones, increasing metabolic rate.
3. Which mineral is essential for thyroid hormone synthesis?
(1) Calcium
(2) Iodine
(3) Magnesium
(4) Iron
Explanation : Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone synthesis. Deficiency leads to goiter, hypothyroidism, and developmental delays. Thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) require iodine atoms in their structure. Hence, the correct answer is (2) Iodine, critical for thyroid gland function and normal metabolism.
4. Assertion (A): Hypothyroidism in adults may lead to myxedema.
Reason (R): Thyroxine deficiency causes decreased metabolic activity.
(1) Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true, R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true
Explanation : Hypothyroidism in adults results in myxedema with fatigue, puffiness, and low metabolism. Reduced thyroxine lowers basal metabolic activity. Hence, both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A. The correct answer is (1).
5. Match the endocrine disorder with its cause:
a. Addison’s disease - i. Hyposecretion of cortisol
b. Cushing’s syndrome - ii. Hypersecretion of cortisol
c. Diabetes mellitus - iii. Hyposecretion of insulin
d. Graves’ disease - iv. Hypersecretion of thyroid hormone
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
Explanation : Addison’s disease occurs due to hyposecretion of cortisol, Cushing’s syndrome due to excess cortisol, diabetes mellitus due to insulin deficiency, and Graves’ disease due to thyroid hypersecretion. Hence, the correct answer is (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv.
6. Which of the following is a symptom of hypothyroidism?
(1) Weight loss
(2) Increased heart rate
(3) Cold intolerance
(4) Bulging eyes
Explanation : Hypothyroidism leads to cold intolerance, fatigue, weight gain, and bradycardia due to reduced thyroid hormone levels. Bulging eyes and weight loss are signs of hyperthyroidism. Thus, the correct answer is (3) Cold intolerance, a classic symptom of underactive thyroid function.
7. Fill in the Blank: The autoimmune disorder that causes hyperthyroidism with exophthalmos is called ______.
(1) Addison’s disease
(2) Graves’ disease
(3) Myxedema
(4) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Explanation : The autoimmune disorder producing thyroid-stimulating antibodies that cause excessive thyroid hormone release and exophthalmos is Graves’ disease. Thus, the correct answer is (2) Graves’ disease, a major cause of hyperthyroidism globally.
8. Choose the correct statements:
A. Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder.
B. Hypothyroidism in children causes cretinism.
C. Iodine deficiency leads to goiter.
D. Cushing’s syndrome is due to hyposecretion of cortisol.
(1) A, B, and C
(2) A and D
(3) B and C only
(4) A, C, and D
Explanation : Statements A, B, and C are correct: Graves’ disease is autoimmune, hypothyroidism in children causes cretinism, and iodine deficiency leads to goiter. Cushing’s syndrome is due to hypersecretion, not hyposecretion, of cortisol. Hence, the correct answer is (1).
Chapter: Biochemistry
Topic: Amino Acids and Their Metabolic Roles
Subtopic: Tryptophan Metabolism and Derivatives
Amino Acid: Organic molecules forming proteins, some serve as precursors for bioactive compounds.
Tryptophan: An essential amino acid involved in the biosynthesis of serotonin, melatonin, and niacin.
Melatonin: Hormone regulating sleep-wake cycles, derived from tryptophan.
Serotonin: Neurotransmitter regulating mood and digestion, synthesized from tryptophan.
Thyroxine & Triiodothyronine: Thyroid hormones synthesized from tyrosine.
Estrogen & Progesterone: Steroid hormones derived from cholesterol.
Cortisol & Cortisone: Glucocorticoids derived from cholesterol, involved in stress response.
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 1)
The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of:
(1) Melatonin and Serotonin
(2) Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine
(3) Estrogen and Progesterone
(4) Cortisol and Cortisone
Answer & Explanation: (1) Melatonin and Serotonin. Tryptophan is metabolized into serotonin, a key neurotransmitter regulating mood and gastrointestinal function, and further converted to melatonin, a hormone controlling sleep-wake cycles. Thyroid hormones and steroid hormones derive from tyrosine or cholesterol, not tryptophan.
MCQ 1 (Single Correct Answer)
Which neurotransmitter is synthesized from tryptophan?
(A) Dopamine
(B) Acetylcholine
(C) Serotonin
(D) GABA
Answer & Explanation: (C) Serotonin. Tryptophan is converted into serotonin via hydroxylation and decarboxylation processes. Serotonin plays critical roles in mood regulation, gastrointestinal function, and vasoconstriction, making tryptophan essential for proper neurological health.
MCQ 2 (Single Correct Answer)
Melatonin, synthesized from tryptophan, primarily regulates:
(A) Blood pressure
(B) Sleep-wake cycles
(C) Digestion
(D) Muscle contraction
Answer & Explanation: (B) Sleep-wake cycles. Melatonin, produced in the pineal gland from tryptophan, governs circadian rhythms, signaling night-time and promoting sleep, essential for maintaining a stable biological clock and overall health.
MCQ 3 (Single Correct Answer)
Which of the following is NOT synthesized from tryptophan?
(A) Serotonin
(B) Melatonin
(C) Thyroxine
(D) Niacin
Answer & Explanation: (C) Thyroxine. Thyroxine is synthesized from tyrosine in the thyroid gland, not tryptophan. Tryptophan is a precursor to serotonin, melatonin, and niacin, all critical for neural and metabolic functions.
MCQ 4 (Single Correct Answer)
Niacin, synthesized from tryptophan, is essential for the synthesis of:
(A) Hemoglobin
(B) NAD+/NADP+
(C) Insulin
(D) DNA
Answer & Explanation: (B) NAD+/NADP+. Tryptophan is metabolized into niacin (vitamin B3), which is essential for forming NAD+ and NADP+, coenzymes critical in cellular redox reactions and energy metabolism.
MCQ 5 (Single Correct Answer)
Deficiency of tryptophan can lead to:
(A) Hypothyroidism
(B) Pellagra
(C) Anemia
(D) Osteoporosis
Answer & Explanation: (B) Pellagra. Pellagra arises due to niacin deficiency, which can occur when tryptophan metabolism is impaired. Symptoms include dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia, reflecting the critical role of tryptophan in niacin synthesis.
MCQ 6 (Single Correct Answer)
In clinical settings, melatonin supplements are often used to:
(A) Treat bacterial infections
(B) Manage sleep disorders
(C) Regulate blood sugar
(D) Enhance muscle growth
Answer & Explanation: (B) Manage sleep disorders. Melatonin supplementation helps correct circadian rhythm disruptions such as jet lag or insomnia by mimicking natural melatonin levels and promoting restful sleep.
MCQ 7 (Assertion-Reason)
Assertion (A): Tryptophan is an essential amino acid.
Reason (R): The human body cannot synthesize tryptophan and it must be obtained from the diet.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & Explanation: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Humans lack the metabolic pathways to synthesize tryptophan, requiring dietary intake from protein-rich foods to maintain critical functions like serotonin and melatonin production.
MCQ 8 (Matching Type)
Match the compound with its precursor:
1. Melatonin
2. Serotonin
3. Thyroxine
4. Cortisol
Tryptophan
Tryptophan
Tyrosine
Cholesterol
(A) 1-A, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
(B) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
(C) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
(D) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
Answer & Explanation: (A) 1-A, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D. Both melatonin and serotonin are synthesized from tryptophan. Thyroxine is derived from tyrosine, and cortisol from cholesterol, representing distinct biosynthetic pathways of essential hormones and neurotransmitters.
MCQ 9 (Fill in the Blanks)
Tryptophan is an ______ amino acid and a precursor of ______ and ______.
(A) Non-essential, Dopamine, Adrenaline
(B) Essential, Serotonin, Melatonin
(C) Non-essential, Thyroxine, Triiodothyronine
(D) Essential, Cortisol, Aldosterone
Answer & Explanation: (B) Essential, Serotonin, Melatonin. Tryptophan is an essential amino acid acquired from diet. It is metabolized into serotonin, a key neurotransmitter, and melatonin, a hormone regulating circadian rhythms, critical for mood and sleep regulation.
MCQ 10 (Choose the Correct Statements)
Select the correct statements regarding tryptophan:
1. Precursor for serotonin and melatonin
2. Synthesized by the human body
3. Deficiency can lead to sleep disorders
4. Precursor for thyroid hormones
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3, and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) All statements are correct
Answer & Explanation: (A) 1 and 3 only. Tryptophan is essential and must be obtained from the diet. It is a precursor for serotonin and melatonin, both regulating mood and sleep. It is not a precursor for thyroid hormones, which derive from tyrosine.
Keywords:
Inhibin: Hormone produced by gonads that inhibits FSH secretion.
Granulosa cells: Ovarian cells surrounding developing oocyte, producing estrogen and inhibin.
Nurse cells / Sertoli cells: Testicular cells that support spermatogenesis and secrete inhibin.
FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone): Pituitary hormone stimulating gametogenesis.
LH (Luteinizing Hormone): Pituitary hormone regulating ovulation and steroidogenesis.
Prolactin: Hormone stimulating lactation.
Ovary: Female gonad producing eggs and hormones.
Testes: Male gonad producing sperm and hormones.
Feedback regulation: Hormonal mechanism controlling secretion of pituitary hormones.
Endocrine function: Hormones released into blood affecting distant organs.
Gonadal axis: Interaction between hypothalamus, pituitary, and gonads.
Chapter: Human Physiology
Topic: Reproductive Physiology
Subtopic: Hormonal Regulation of Gonads
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 1): Identify the correct statement on 'Inhibin' :
(1) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin.
(2) Is produced by granulosa cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH.
(3) Is produced by granulosa cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH.
(4) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH.
Answer: 2
Explanation: Inhibin is produced by ovarian granulosa cells in females and Sertoli cells in males. Its primary function is to inhibit secretion of FSH from the anterior pituitary, providing negative feedback to regulate gametogenesis. It does not inhibit LH or prolactin directly.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ: In males, inhibin is secreted by:
(A) Leydig cells
(B) Sertoli cells
(C) Seminiferous tubules
(D) Epididymis
Answer: B
Explanation: Sertoli (nurse) cells in testes secrete inhibin to regulate FSH levels, controlling spermatogenesis without directly affecting LH secretion.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which hormone stimulates granulosa cells to produce inhibin?
(A) LH
(B) FSH
(C) Prolactin
(D) ACTH
Answer: B
Explanation: FSH stimulates ovarian granulosa cells to secrete inhibin, which then inhibits further FSH release via negative feedback, regulating follicular development.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ: The main function of inhibin is:
(A) Stimulate LH secretion
(B) Inhibit FSH secretion
(C) Promote ovulation
(D) Induce lactation
Answer: B
Explanation: Inhibin selectively inhibits FSH secretion, modulating gametogenesis in both sexes without significantly affecting LH levels or other pituitary hormones.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which cells of ovary produce inhibin?
(A) Theca cells
(B) Granulosa cells
(C) Oocytes
(D) Corpus luteum
Answer: B
Explanation: Granulosa cells surrounding developing oocytes synthesize inhibin, providing negative feedback on FSH secretion during the menstrual cycle.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Inhibin acts primarily on:
(A) Hypothalamus
(B) Anterior pituitary
(C) Ovary
(D) Testes
Answer: B
Explanation: Inhibin targets the anterior pituitary to reduce FSH secretion, controlling gametogenesis and follicular development in females and sperm production in males.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Loss of inhibin function would result in:
(A) Decreased FSH
(B) Increased FSH
(C) Decreased LH
(D) Increased prolactin
Answer: B
Explanation: Without inhibin, negative feedback on FSH is lost, leading to increased FSH levels. LH and prolactin are largely unaffected directly.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Inhibin controls the rate of gametogenesis.
Reason (R): Inhibin inhibits FSH secretion from the anterior pituitary.
(A) Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, R is NOT correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, R is false
(D) A is false, R is true
Answer: A
Explanation: Inhibin regulates gametogenesis by reducing FSH secretion, controlling follicle maturation in females and spermatogenesis in males.
8. Matching Type MCQ: Match the source with function:
1. Granulosa cells A. Inhibit FSH
2. Sertoli cells B. Support spermatogenesis and secrete inhibin
3. Leydig cells C. Secrete testosterone
4. Theca cells D. Produce estrogen
(A) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(B) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
(C) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
(D) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
Answer: A
Explanation: Granulosa cells produce inhibin (FSH inhibition), Sertoli cells support spermatogenesis and secrete inhibin, Leydig cells produce testosterone, and Theca cells produce estrogen.
9. Fill in the Blanks: In females, inhibin is secreted by ________ cells and mainly inhibits ________ secretion.
(A) Granulosa; FSH
(B) Theca; LH
(C) Granulosa; LH
(D) Sertoli; FSH
Answer: A
Explanation: Granulosa cells produce inhibin, which specifically inhibits FSH secretion to regulate follicular development and ensure controlled gametogenesis.
10. Choose the Correct Statements:
(A) Inhibin selectively inhibits FSH
(B) Inhibin inhibits LH secretion
(C) Sertoli cells secrete inhibin
(D) Granulosa cells secrete inhibin
(1) A, C, D
(2) B, C
(3) A, B, D
(4) All are correct
Answer: 1
Explanation: Inhibin selectively inhibits FSH, and is secreted by Sertoli cells in testes and granulosa cells in ovary. It does not inhibit LH.
Keywords:
GnRH (Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone): Hormone secreted by hypothalamus regulating LH and FSH secretion.
FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone): Pituitary hormone stimulating ovarian follicle growth in females.
LH (Luteinizing Hormone): Pituitary hormone triggering ovulation and corpus luteum formation.
Estrogen: Ovarian steroid hormone regulating follicular development and GnRH pulse frequency.
Progesterone: Ovarian hormone produced by corpus luteum, modulating GnRH and preparing uterus for implantation.
Inhibin: Hormone secreted by granulosa cells inhibiting FSH secretion.
Hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis: Feedback loop controlling reproductive hormone secretion.
Pulsatile secretion: Hormone release in bursts, critical for normal reproductive function.
Negative feedback: Hormone feedback inhibiting upstream hormone release to maintain homeostasis.
Positive feedback: Hormone feedback stimulating upstream hormone release, e.g., pre-ovulatory LH surge.
Ovarian cycle: Cyclic changes in ovary involving follicular, ovulatory, and luteal phases.
Chapter: Human Physiology
Topic: Reproductive Endocrinology
Subtopic: GnRH Regulation
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 1): Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of:
(1) Estrogen and progesterone
(2) Estrogen and inhibin
(3) Progesterone only
(4) Progesterone and inhibin
Answer: 1
Explanation: GnRH pulse frequency in females is modulated by estrogen and progesterone. High estrogen during follicular phase increases GnRH pulse frequency stimulating LH surge, while progesterone during luteal phase slows pulse frequency, maintaining cyclic hormonal balance for normal reproductive function.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which hormone triggers the pre-ovulatory LH surge?
(A) Progesterone
(B) Estrogen
(C) Inhibin
(D) FSH
Answer: B
Explanation: Rising estrogen levels from the dominant follicle induce positive feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary, triggering the LH surge responsible for ovulation.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Pulsatile GnRH release is essential because:
(A) Continuous GnRH increases fertility
(B) Pulses regulate FSH and LH secretion
(C) It inhibits ovarian function
(D) It stimulates prolactin secretion
Answer: B
Explanation: Pulsatile secretion of GnRH maintains proper stimulation of pituitary gonadotropes, ensuring normal FSH and LH levels. Continuous GnRH can desensitize receptors, leading to decreased gonadotropin release.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Progesterone primarily affects GnRH by:
(A) Increasing pulse frequency
(B) Decreasing pulse frequency
(C) Stimulating LH surge
(D) Enhancing FSH secretion
Answer: B
Explanation: Progesterone, secreted by the corpus luteum, slows down GnRH pulse frequency during luteal phase, reducing LH secretion and maintaining negative feedback on the HPG axis.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Inhibin selectively inhibits:
(A) LH
(B) FSH
(C) GnRH
(D) Progesterone
Answer: B
Explanation: Inhibin, secreted by ovarian granulosa cells, specifically suppresses FSH secretion from the anterior pituitary, regulating follicle development without affecting LH levels significantly.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which phase has highest GnRH pulse frequency in females?
(A) Follicular phase
(B) Luteal phase
(C) Menstrual phase
(D) Pregnancy
Answer: A
Explanation: During the follicular phase, high estrogen increases GnRH pulse frequency, promoting LH and FSH secretion for follicle maturation. Pulse frequency decreases in luteal phase due to progesterone dominance.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ: LH and FSH secretion depends on:
(A) Constant GnRH
(B) Pulsatile GnRH
(C) Only estrogen
(D) Only progesterone
Answer: B
Explanation: Pituitary gonadotropes require pulsatile GnRH stimulation for proper synthesis and secretion of LH and FSH. Continuous GnRH leads to receptor desensitization and decreased hormone release.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): Progesterone slows down GnRH pulse frequency.
Reason (R): Luteal phase progesterone maintains negative feedback on hypothalamus and pituitary.
(A) Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, R is NOT correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, R is false
(D) A is false, R is true
Answer: A
Explanation: Progesterone during the luteal phase reduces GnRH pulse frequency, maintaining negative feedback on LH and FSH, stabilizing the reproductive cycle.
8. Matching Type MCQ: Match hormone with effect on GnRH:
1. Estrogen A. Increases GnRH pulse frequency
2. Progesterone B. Decreases GnRH pulse frequency
3. Inhibin C. Inhibits FSH only
(A) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
(B) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
(C) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
(D) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B
Answer: A
Explanation: Estrogen accelerates GnRH pulses (follicular phase), progesterone slows pulses (luteal phase), and inhibin selectively suppresses FSH, coordinating ovarian cycle regulation.
9. Fill in the Blanks: High _______ levels increase GnRH pulse frequency, while high _______ levels decrease it.
(A) Estrogen; Progesterone
(B) Progesterone; Estrogen
(C) Inhibin; Estrogen
(D) LH; FSH
Answer: A
Explanation: Estrogen during follicular phase increases GnRH pulse frequency, promoting ovulation. Progesterone during luteal phase slows pulse frequency, stabilizing hormone levels and supporting endometrial maintenance.
10. Passage-based MCQ:
Passage: A female patient shows altered menstrual cycles with irregular LH peaks. Laboratory reports low estrogen and high progesterone levels. GnRH pulses are slowed, affecting FSH and LH secretion.
Question: Which hormones primarily control her GnRH pulse frequency?
(A) Estrogen and progesterone
(B) Estrogen and inhibin
(C) Progesterone only
(D) Progesterone and inhibin
Answer: A
Explanation: GnRH pulse frequency is modulated by circulating estrogen and progesterone. Low estrogen and high progesterone reduce pulse frequency, impairing LH and FSH secretion and disrupting the ovarian cycle.
Keywords:
FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone): Gonadotropin stimulating Sertoli cells in males and follicular growth in females.
LH (Luteinizing Hormone): Gonadotropin triggering ovulation in females and androgen secretion in males.
Sertoli cells: Testicular cells supporting spermatogenesis and secreting inhibin.
Leydig cells: Interstitial cells in testes producing testosterone under LH stimulation.
Spermiogenesis: Final phase of sperm development where spermatids mature into spermatozoa.
Follicular phase: Phase of menstrual cycle with growth of ovarian follicles under FSH influence.
Ovulation: Release of a mature oocyte from the ovary due to LH surge.
Androgens: Male sex hormones like testosterone.
Menstrual cycle: Cyclical changes in female reproductive organs regulated by hormones.
Endocrine regulation: Hormonal control of reproductive processes in both sexes.
Clinical relevance: Understanding FSH and LH functions aids in fertility treatment and hormone therapy.
Chapter: Human Physiology
Topic: Reproductive Physiology
Subtopic: Hormonal Regulation of Gonads
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 1): Select the incorrect statement:
(1) FSH stimulates the Sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis.
(2) LH triggers ovulation in ovary.
(3) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase.
(4) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells.
Answer: 3
Explanation: During the follicular phase, FSH rises to stimulate follicular growth, and LH remains low but gradually increases toward mid-cycle to trigger ovulation. Statement 3 is incorrect because LH and FSH do not decrease gradually throughout the follicular phase; FSH initially rises.
1. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which hormone directly stimulates Sertoli cells in males?
(A) LH
(B) FSH
(C) Testosterone
(D) GnRH
Answer: B
Explanation: FSH stimulates Sertoli cells to support spermatogenesis, produce androgen-binding protein, and secrete inhibin, regulating sperm maturation and maintaining testicular function.
2. Single Correct Answer MCQ: LH surge in females primarily causes:
(A) Follicle recruitment
(B) Ovulation
(C) Luteolysis
(D) Menstruation
Answer: B
Explanation: A sudden mid-cycle surge of LH triggers the rupture of the mature ovarian follicle, releasing the secondary oocyte, a key step in female fertility.
3. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Leydig cells are stimulated by:
(A) FSH
(B) LH
(C) GnRH
(D) Inhibin
Answer: B
Explanation: LH acts on Leydig cells in the testes to stimulate production of testosterone, which supports spermatogenesis and secondary sexual characteristics.
4. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Spermiogenesis refers to:
(A) Formation of spermatogonia
(B) Maturation of spermatids into spermatozoa
(C) Division of primary spermatocytes
(D) Fertilization process
Answer: B
Explanation: Spermiogenesis is the final stage of spermatogenesis, where haploid spermatids differentiate into motile spermatozoa capable of fertilization.
5. Single Correct Answer MCQ: Which hormone initiates follicular growth in females?
(A) LH
(B) FSH
(C) Progesterone
(D) Estrogen
Answer: B
Explanation: FSH stimulates the development of ovarian follicles during the follicular phase, increasing estrogen secretion and preparing the oocyte for ovulation.
6. Single Correct Answer MCQ: The peak of LH in the menstrual cycle occurs:
(A) Early follicular phase
(B) Mid-follicular phase
(C) Ovulatory phase
(D) Luteal phase
Answer: C
Explanation: LH surge occurs during the ovulatory phase, inducing the rupture of the dominant follicle and release of the secondary oocyte, facilitating fertilization.
7. Assertion-Reason MCQ:
Assertion (A): FSH supports spermiogenesis in males.
Reason (R): Sertoli cells, stimulated by FSH, provide nutrients and signals for sperm maturation.
(A) Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, R is NOT correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, R is false
(D) A is false, R is true
Answer: A
Explanation: FSH acts on Sertoli cells, which secrete factors and provide a supportive environment for spermiogenesis, confirming the assertion and its explanation.
8. Matching Type MCQ: Match hormone with primary function:
1. FSH A. Triggers ovulation
2. LH B. Stimulates Sertoli cells
3. Testosterone C. Supports secondary sexual characteristics
4. Progesterone D. Prepares endometrium for implantation
(A) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
(B) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(C) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
(D) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
Answer: A
Explanation: FSH stimulates Sertoli cells for spermatogenesis and follicular growth; LH triggers ovulation; testosterone supports male secondary sexual characteristics; progesterone prepares endometrium for implantation.
9. Fill in the Blanks: During the follicular phase, _______ rises gradually to stimulate ovarian follicle growth, while _______ triggers ovulation.
(A) FSH; LH
(B) LH; FSH
(C) Estrogen; Progesterone
(D) Progesterone; LH
Answer: A
Explanation: FSH rises during the follicular phase to stimulate follicle development, whereas the mid-cycle LH surge triggers ovulation, coordinating female reproductive cycle.
10. Passage-based MCQ:
Passage: A male patient has low sperm count. His LH is normal, but FSH is low. Sertoli cells are under-stimulated, affecting sperm maturation. Leydig cells produce testosterone normally.
Question: Which hormone deficiency is primarily responsible for impaired spermiogenesis?
(A) LH
(B) FSH
(C) Testosterone
(D) Progesterone
Answer: B
Explanation: FSH deficiency reduces Sertoli cell stimulation, impairing spermiogenesis despite normal testosterone from Leydig cells. FSH is essential for supporting sperm maturation and maintaining spermatogenic environment.
Chapter: Chemical Coordination and Integration | Topic: Hormonal Control | Subtopic: Antagonistic Hormones
Keywords:
Antagonistic hormones: Hormones that produce opposite effects on target tissues.
Parathormone: Increases blood calcium levels by bone resorption.
Calcitonin: Lowers blood calcium by deposition in bone.
Insulin: Lowers blood glucose by promoting uptake.
Glucagon: Increases blood glucose via glycogenolysis.
Aldosterone: Enhances sodium reabsorption in kidney.
Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF): Promotes sodium excretion and reduces blood pressure.
Relaxin: Hormone aiding relaxation of pelvic ligaments during pregnancy.
Inhibin: Hormone that inhibits FSH secretion from anterior pituitary.
Lead Question - 2016 (Phase 1)
Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?
1. Parathormone - Calcitonin
2. Insulin - Glucagon
3. Aldosterone - Atrial Natriuretic factor
4. Relaxin - Inhibin
Explanation (Answer: 4 — Relaxin and Inhibin): Parathormone and calcitonin act antagonistically on calcium levels, insulin and glucagon on glucose regulation, and aldosterone with ANF on sodium balance. Relaxin facilitates childbirth ligament relaxation, while inhibin regulates FSH. Their roles are unrelated, hence they are not antagonistic.
Q1. Which of the following hormones increases blood calcium levels?
A. Calcitonin
B. Parathormone
C. Insulin
D. Thyroxine
Explanation (Answer: B — Parathormone): Parathormone (PTH) from parathyroid glands stimulates bone resorption, increases renal calcium reabsorption, and activates vitamin D. These actions collectively elevate blood calcium. Calcitonin lowers calcium, insulin regulates glucose, and thyroxine regulates metabolism, not calcium balance.
Q2. In a diabetic patient, which hormone is deficient leading to hyperglycemia?
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Cortisol
D. Epinephrine
Explanation (Answer: A — Insulin): Diabetes mellitus occurs due to insufficient insulin production or action, resulting in elevated blood glucose. Glucagon, cortisol, and epinephrine are hyperglycemic hormones, so their excess raises glucose, but deficiency of insulin is the key cause of persistent hyperglycemia.
Q3. Aldosterone secretion mainly regulates:
A. Blood glucose
B. Sodium and water balance
C. Calcium deposition
D. Growth rate
Explanation (Answer: B — Sodium and water balance): Aldosterone, secreted by adrenal cortex, increases sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion in renal tubules. This indirectly regulates water balance and blood pressure. It does not control glucose, calcium, or growth processes directly.
Q4. A patient shows hypercalcemia and fragile bones. Which hormone is most likely secreted in excess?
A. Calcitonin
B. Parathormone
C. Aldosterone
D. Insulin
Explanation (Answer: B — Parathormone): Excess PTH leads to hypercalcemia due to increased bone resorption and renal calcium retention. This weakens bones and increases fracture risk. Calcitonin lowers calcium, aldosterone regulates sodium, and insulin regulates glucose, so they are not involved here.
Q5 (Assertion–Reason):
Assertion (A): Insulin promotes glycogen synthesis in the liver.
Reason (R): Insulin activates glucose uptake and glycogen synthase enzyme.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not explanation
C. A is true, R is false
D. A is false, R is true
Explanation (Answer: A): Insulin lowers blood glucose by promoting glycogen synthesis in liver and muscles. This occurs through activation of glucose uptake and glycogen synthase. Thus, both statements are true, and R explains A fully.
Q6 (Matching Type): Match hormones with their major function:
A. Insulin – 1. Increases blood calcium
B. Glucagon – 2. Stimulates glycogen breakdown
C. Parathormone – 3. Promotes glucose uptake
D. Calcitonin – 4. Lowers blood calcium
Options:
a. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
b. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
c. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
d. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Explanation (Answer: a): Insulin promotes glucose uptake, glucagon breaks down glycogen, parathormone increases calcium levels, and calcitonin lowers calcium. These pairings reflect their physiological roles and homeostasis functions.
Q7. Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) is secreted by:
A. Kidney
B. Atria of heart
C. Liver
D. Lungs
Explanation (Answer: B — Atria of heart): ANF is secreted by atrial walls in response to high blood pressure. It promotes sodium excretion and vasodilation, thereby lowering blood volume and pressure. It is a cardiac hormone, not secreted by kidney, liver, or lungs.
Q8 (Fill in the Blank): Relaxin is secreted by the ______ during late pregnancy.
A. Ovary
B. Placenta
C. Adrenal gland
D. Thyroid
Explanation (Answer: B — Placenta): Relaxin is produced by placenta and ovary during late pregnancy. It relaxes pelvic ligaments and softens cervix, facilitating childbirth. This hormone has no antagonistic relationship with inhibin, which regulates FSH secretion.
Q9. A person with Addison’s disease shows low sodium levels. Which hormone is deficient?
A. Cortisol
B. Aldosterone
C. Calcitonin
D. Insulin
Explanation (Answer: B — Aldosterone): Addison’s disease involves adrenal insufficiency with low aldosterone, causing sodium loss, dehydration, and low blood pressure. Cortisol deficiency also contributes, but aldosterone is key for sodium reabsorption. Calcitonin and insulin are unrelated here.
Q10 (Passage-based):
Passage: Hormones regulate internal balance through synergistic and antagonistic actions. For example, insulin and glucagon regulate glucose, while PTH and calcitonin balance calcium. Some hormones, like relaxin and inhibin, have distinct roles in reproduction rather than antagonistic functions.
Q: Which conclusion is correct?
A. All hormone pairs act antagonistically
B. Some hormones act independently without antagonism
C. Antagonistic hormones always regulate reproduction
D. Calcitonin increases blood calcium
Explanation (Answer: B): While many hormone pairs are antagonistic, not all are. Relaxin and inhibin act independently in reproduction. Calcitonin lowers blood calcium, not increases. Thus, the correct conclusion is that some hormones act without antagonistic relationships.